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Private Pilot Q&A (Multiple Choice) > Private Pilot > Flashcards

Private Pilot Flashcards

1
Q

What are the most important weather variables to consider before you make your go-no-go decision?

  1. Visibility, winds, and cloud cover.
  2. The seasons of the year—especially winter and summer.
  3. Crosswinds, humidity, and air temperature.
A

Visibility, winds, and cloud cover.

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2
Q

During the summer months, what situation might cause you to delay a lesson?

  1. A visibility of 3 to 5 miles.
  2. The presence of local thunderstorms.
  3. High atmospheric pressure over the area.
A

The presence of local thunderstorms.

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3
Q

As a student pilot you will be flying via?

  1. GFR (Good Flight Rules)
  2. VFR (Visual Flight Rules).
  3. IFR (Instrument Flight Rules)
A

VFR (Visual Flight Rules)

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4
Q

When is aircraft performance at its peak?

  1. During the hot, humid days of summer.
  2. The cold, crisp air of winter.
  3. When flying at an altitude of 10,000 feet or more.
A

The cold, crisp air of winter

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5
Q

How would you define a “ceiling”?

  1. The lowest broken or overcast cloud layer that covers the sky.
  2. Any cloud cover along your route of flight.
  3. The base of the cloud cover.
A

The lowest broken or overcast cloud layer that covers the sky.

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6
Q

What are the four forces acting on an airplane in flight?

  1. Lift, gravity, power, and friction.
  2. Lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
  3. Lift, weight, gravity, and thrust.
A

Lift, weight, thrust, and drag.

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7
Q

How does a wing create lift?

  1. The length of a wing’s chord is the principle cause of lift.
  2. The air pressing on the bottom of the wing is the major cause of a wing’s ability to lift.
  3. The curved top surface of the wing increases air velocity and is the major source of lift.
A

The curved top surface of the wing increases air velocity and is the major source of lift.

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8
Q

To climb or descend in an airplane the pilot does what?

  1. Pushes the rudder pedals enabling the airplane to climb or descend.
  2. Moves the yoke back and forward causing the ailerons to move up and down.
  3. Moves the yoke back and forward which moves the elevator up and down.
A

Moves the yoke back and forward which moves the elevator up and down.

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9
Q

What is the purpose of the airplane’s rudder?

  1. It is the normal way to turn the airplane.
  2. Its only function is to counteract the adverse yaw when rolling into or out of a turn.
  3. It helps the pilot hold altitude in the turn.
A

Its only function is to counteract the adverse yaw when rolling into or out of a turn.

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10
Q

On landing, what is the advantage to using flaps?

  1. Extending the flaps permit a steeper and slower approach.
  2. The flaps help the pilot land on a specific spot on the runway.
  3. Lowering the flaps helps to stabilize the airplane in a crosswind condition.
A

Extending the flaps permit a steeper and slower approach.

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11
Q

Which of the following are considered aircraft flight instruments?

  1. Magnetic compass, tachometer, and oil pressure gauge.
  2. Turn coordinator, heading indicator and vertical speed indicator.
  3. Oil temperature gauge, vacuum pressure, and fuel flow indicator.
A

Turn coordinator, heading indicator and vertical speed indicator.

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12
Q

(Refer to figure) Which color identifies the normal airspeed operating range?

View Figure

  1. The lower limit of the white arc to the upper limit of the green arc.
  2. The green arc.
  3. The white arc.
A

The green arc

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13
Q

(Refer to figure) Altimeter 2 indicates

View Figure

  1. 14,500 feet
  2. 1,500 feet
  3. 4,500 feet
A

14,500 feet

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14
Q

What is the purpose of the airplane engine’s mixture control?

  1. To speed up or slow down the airplane much like the gas pedal on your car.
  2. It allows the oil to flow more quickly into the engine’s crankcase.
  3. To regulate the ratio of fuel to air entering the fuel distribution system.
A

To regulate the ratio of fuel to air entering the fuel distribution system.

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15
Q

The elevator trim control is rotated which way for nose down trim?

  1. Is automatically controlled by the pilot’s movement of the yoke.
  2. Is rotated forward for nose down trim.
  3. Is rotated aft for nose down trim.
A

Is rotated forward for nose down trim.

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16
Q

The order of operation regarding the strokes of a typical four-stroke per cycle airplane engine is:

  1. Intake, compression, power, and exhaust.
  2. Power, compression, intake, and exhaust.
  3. Compression, intake, power, and exhaust.
A
  1. Intake
  2. Compression
  3. Power
  4. Exhaust
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17
Q

Most of the heat caused by internal combustion is eliminated via:

  1. The exhaust system.
  2. Air directed around the engine by the use of engine baffles.
  3. Oil circulating through the oil cooler.
A

The exhaust system.

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18
Q

Engine lubrication oil performs three functions:

  1. Carries foreign materials to the oil filter, coats moving parts, and maintains internal engine pressure.
  2. Coats moving parts, cleans metal surfaces, and reduces engine noise.
  3. Coats moving parts, dissipates heat, and filters foreign materials.
A
  1. Coats moving parts
  2. Dissipates heat
  3. Filters foreign materials
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19
Q

An aircraft engine features extra reliability because it has what?

  1. Engine air baffles.
  2. Dual magneto ignition system.
  3. A five position ignition switch.
A

Dual magneto ignition system.

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20
Q

Aviation fuel used in the Cessna training airplanes is colored…?

  1. Clear or straw colored and is rated at 100 octane.
  2. Blue and rated at 100 octane.
  3. Green with a 90 octane rating.
A

Blue and rated at 100 octane.

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21
Q

The Fuel pump system on a Cessna 172 uses:

  1. An electric fuel pump only.
  2. An engine-driven fuel pump only.
  3. An electric auxiliary fuel pump and an engine-driven fuel pump.
A

An electric auxiliary fuel pump and an engine-driven fuel pump.

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22
Q

In order for the propeller to pull the airplane along, the blades are:

  1. Flat
  2. Spiral-shaped
  3. Twisted
A

Twisted

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23
Q

The electrical system on the Cessna 172 uses:

  1. An alternator to provide direct current to the system
  2. A generator to produce electrical current
  3. A 24 volt battery, which is the only electrical source necessary
A

An alternator to provide direct current to the system

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24
Q

The preflight inspection begins when?

  1. As you walk toward the airplane.
  2. Only when the checklist is in hand.
  3. While seated in the cockpit seat belt and harness set.
A

As you walk toward the airplane

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25
Q

The required documents necessary to be onboard the airplane include:

  1. Engine/airframe log, Airworthiness Certificate, and Owner’s Manual.
  2. Registration, Engine/airframe log, and Owner’s Manual.
  3. Airworthiness Certificate, Registration, and Operating Handbook.
A
  1. Airworthiness Certificate
  2. Registration
  3. Operating Handbook
  4. Weight & Balance
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26
Q

The left wing on a Cessna 172 is a mirror image of the right wing with the exception of:

  1. Both wings have the identical additions, parts and structure.
  2. Fuel vent and aileron trim tab.
  3. The fuel vent, Pitot tube and stall warning sensor.
A
  1. The fuel vent
  2. Pitot tube
  3. Stall warning sensor
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27
Q

Before you begin the engine starting checklist be sure to do what first?

  1. Lower the flaps.
  2. Turn on all navigational lights to ensure visibility.
  3. Set the parking brake and hold the foot pedal brakes.
A

Set the parking brake and hold the foot pedal brakes.

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28
Q

Prior to starting the engine, set the fuel selector switch to:

  1. Both
  2. Left tank
  3. Right tank
A

Both

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29
Q

To use the throttle properly before starting the fuel-injected engine in a Cessna 172:

  1. Open the throttle about one quarter of an inch.
  2. Make sure the throttle is all the way out in the off position.
  3. Pump the throttle three times to prime the engine.
A

Open the throttle about one quarter of an inch

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30
Q

When should you turn on the beacon light?

  1. Before you start the engine.
  2. Only when you are on a taxiway.
  3. While the engine is warming up.
A

Before you start the engine.

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31
Q

On starting the engine, first check for:

  1. The proper amount of vacuum pressure.
  2. Oil temperature rising.
  3. Oil pressure in the green after a few seconds.
A

Oil pressure in the green after a few seconds

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32
Q

The proper way to initiate communication with ATC is to do which of the following?

  1. Give your aircraft type, altitude, what you want to do.
  2. Give your location, aircraft type, altitude, what you want to do, and if you have ATIS.
  3. Give your location, aircraft type, color, and altitude.
A
  1. Give your aircraft type, altitude, what you want to do.
  2. Give your location, aircraft type, altitude, what you want to do, and if you have ATIS.
  3. Give your location, aircraft type, color, and altitude.
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33
Q

What are the four “Ws” of good radio communication?

  1. Who you are calling, who you are, where you are, and when you will arrive.
  2. Who you are calling, who you are, where you are, and what you want to do.
  3. Who you are calling, who you are, when you will arrive, and what you want.
A
  1. Who you are calling
  2. Who you are
  3. Where you are
  4. What you want to do
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34
Q

All U.S. registered aircraft numbers begin with an ‘N’, therefore…

  1. For brevity, you do not need to include the ‘N’ in your transmission in the U.S.
  2. Always say the ‘N’ on initial call up and eliminate it in subsequent transmissions.
  3. Always say the ‘N’ when giving your aircraft number.
A

For brevity, you do not need to include the ‘N’ in your transmission in the U.S.

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35
Q

The proper way to say the altitude 6,500 ft on the radio feet is:

  1. Sixer thousand five hundred feet.
  2. Sixty five hundred feet.
  3. Six thousand fife hundred feet.
A

Six thousand fife hundred feet.

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36
Q

Where can you find more information on good radio communication procedures?

  1. By listening to LiveATC.
  2. The Aeronautical Information Manual.
  3. Federal Aviation Regulations.
A

The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

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37
Q

The 4Ws of radio communication are, in the proper sequence:

  1. Who you are calling, Who you are, Where you are, and What you want.
  2. Where you are, What you want, Who you are calling, and Who you are.
  3. Who you are, Who you are calling, What you want, and Where you are.
A
  1. Who you are calling
  2. Who you are
  3. Where you are
  4. What you want
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38
Q

How should you pronounce letters of the alphabet and numerals on the radio?

  1. Do not use any phonetics, it may confuse other pilots.
  2. By using your own phonetic alphabet that will make it more clear. For example, A for ‘apple’, and B for ‘boy’.
  3. By using the phonetic alphabet constructed by the International Civil Aviation Organization.
A

By using the phonetic alphabet constructed by the International Civil Aviation Organization.

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39
Q

A UNICOM (Unified Communications) facility is available at…

A

Most nontowered airports

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40
Q

The generic term for the radio channel to use at airports without an operating control tower is?

  1. FSS
  2. UNICOM
  3. CTAF
A

CTAF

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41
Q

How is time expressed in the aviation system?

  1. Either as coordinated universal time, or local time zone.
  2. Strictly military time.
  3. It is always denoted in the local time zone.
A

Either as coordinated universal time, or local time zone.

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42
Q

A good rule of thumb regarding your taxi speed is:

  1. As fast as the taxi traffic will allow.
  2. Never taxi over 20 mph.
  3. No faster than a brisk walk.
A

No faster than a brisk walk.

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43
Q

Airplane brakes are located where?

  1. On the top of the rudder pedals.
  2. On the bottom of the rudder pedals.
  3. On the hand operated emergency brake only.
A

On the top of the rudder pedals.

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44
Q

How do you turn the airplane to the right on the ground when taxiing?

  1. Use a coordinated movement of both the control yoke and the right brake pedal.
  2. Turn the control yoke to the right.
  3. Use a combination of the right rudder pedal and brake on the top of the right rudder pedal.
A

Use a combination of the right rudder pedal and brake on the top of the right rudder pedal.

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45
Q

When taxiing with a left quartering tailwind do which of the following?

  1. Move the aileron fully right and push the control wheel forward.
  2. Move the aileron fully left and push the control wheel forward.
  3. Hold the aileron in the neutral position and pull the control wheel rearward.
A

Move the aileron fully right and push the control wheel forward.

This will out the left aileron up, blocking the wind

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46
Q

Runway numbers are determined from what?

  1. The approach direction and its number is the magnetic direction of the runway.
  2. The length of the runway.
  3. The departure direction measured in its true heading.
A

The approach direction and its number is the magnetic direction of the runway.

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47
Q

During the takeoff, the airplane has a tendency to what?

  1. Turn to the left.
  2. Fight the climb attitude and stay on the ground.
  3. Turn to the right.
A

Turn to the left.

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48
Q

The rudder has enough force to maintain directional control without the use of nosewheel steering when…?

  1. When the movement of the trim tab is effective.
  2. Only after the airplane is well established in the climb.
  3. When the airplane reaches a liftoff speed.
A

The airplane reaches a liftoff speed.

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49
Q

After takeoff, what is the minimum altitude you should reach before making a turn?

  1. Any time after reaching 100 feet above the ground.
  2. After you are at least 500 feet above the ground.
  3. Immediately when the airplane crosses the end of the runway.
A

After you are at least 500 feet above the ground.

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50
Q

The left turning tendency of an airplane in a climb is overcome by doing what?

  1. By applying pressure with the left rudder.
  2. By turning the yoke to the right.
  3. The use of right rudder.
A

The use of right rudder.

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51
Q

What is the proper way to depart the traffic pattern after takeoff?

  1. Either straight out or on a 45° leg in the direction of pattern.
  2. Straight out in the direction of the takeoff.
  3. By making a right turn when reaching pattern altitude.
A

Either straight out or on a 45° leg in the direction of pattern.

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52
Q

What are the four fundamentals of flight?

  1. Taxiing, climbs, lift, and drag.
  2. Turns, climbs, straight-and-level, and descents.
  3. Straight-and-level, turns, lift, and thrust.
A
  1. Turns
  2. Climbs
  3. Straight-and-level
  4. Descents
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53
Q

What is the position of the airplane relative to the horizon called?

  1. The attitude
  2. The pitch
  3. Straight-and-level
A

The attitude

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54
Q

What is the primary reference for attitude when looking outside the airplane?

  1. The position of your wings to the ground.
  2. The relation of the nose of the airplane to the sky.
  3. The relationship between a point (s) on the airplane and the horizon.
A

The relationship between a point (s) on the airplane and the horizon.

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55
Q

What is the primary reference for attitude when looking inside the airplane?

  1. The altimeter
  2. The position of the miniature airplane of the attitude indicator in relation to the horizon bar
  3. The wings of the miniature airplane of the turn coordinator
A

The position of the miniature airplane of the attitude indicator in relation to the horizon bar.

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56
Q

Which instrument(s) are used to verify and crosscheck the attitude of the airplane?

  1. Attitude indicator.
  2. Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.
  3. Altimeter, heading indicator, airspeed indicator, and the turn coordinator.
A
  1. Altimeter
  2. Heading indicator
  3. Airspeed indicator
  4. Turn coordinator
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57
Q

Turns are divided into three categories, which are?

  1. Shallow, medium, and steep.
  2. Turn to heading, 180 degree turns, and turns around a point.
  3. Minimum, moderate, and maximum
A
  1. Shallow
  2. Medium
  3. Steep
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58
Q

In a turn, you must do what?

  1. Use constant pressure on the rudder pedals to maintain the turn
  2. Decrease the back pressure on the yoke
  3. Apply back pressure on the elevator control
A

Apply back pressure on the elevator control

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59
Q

In a medium banked turn, once the desired bank is achieved you should do what to the controls?

  1. Neutralize the controls
  2. Maintain aileron pressure in the direction of the turn
  3. Relax the back pressure you are holding
A

Neutralize the controls

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60
Q

When rolling out of a shallow banked turn, when should you begin your rollout?

  1. Start your roll out when the heading indicator reaches your desired heading
  2. Begin the roll out about 10 degrees before reaching your desired heading
  3. Begin the roll out about 25 degrees before reaching your desired heading
A

Begin the roll out about 10 degrees before reaching your desired heading.

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61
Q

You know when your turn is properly balanced—horizontal lift is equaled by centrifugal force, when…?

  1. The ball slips to the side of the tube in the direction opposite the turn
  2. The ball in the inclinometer stays in the center
  3. The ball slips to the side of the tube in the direction of the turn
A

The ball in the inclinometer stays in the center.

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62
Q

Flying the airplane on a constant heading and at a constant altitude is termed what?

  1. Straight-and-level
  2. Straight attitude
  3. Neutral power and control pressure
A

Straight-and-level

63
Q

One way to determine if you are maintaining a constant attitude is to occasionally check what?

  1. The tachometer
  2. The altimeter
  3. The vertical speed indicator
A

The altimeter

64
Q

To ensure that the airplane is laterally level, check what?

  1. Visually check the relationship of the wings to the horizon
  2. Make sure that the right wing is slightly farther above the horizon than the left wing
  3. Check that the nose of the airplane remains at a constant distance from the horizon
A

Visually check the relationship of the wings to the horizon.

65
Q

The reference instruments for straight flight are what?

  1. The attitude indicator, heading indicator, and turn coordinator
  2. The airspeed indicator, heading indicator, and altimeter
  3. The attitude indicator, vertical speed indicator, and the airspeed indicator
A
  1. The attitude indicator
  2. Heading indicator
  3. Turn coordinator
66
Q

The airplane will gain altitude at a steady rate by applying what?

  1. Pitch only
  2. Power only
  3. Pitch and power
A

Pitch & power

67
Q

Climbing turns should be made using what type of bank?

  1. A shallow bank
  2. A medium bank
  3. A steep bank
A

A shallow bank

68
Q

During a prolonged glide, clear the engine by doing what?

  1. Reducing the power all the way back to the full idle position
  2. Increasing the power to about 1500 RPM
  3. Using carburetor heat for a duration of 2 minutes
A

Increasing the power to about 1500 RPM.

69
Q

When you decide to level-off from a climb, start leveling off at how many feet before desired altitude?

  1. Start the level-off 50 feet before your desired altitude
  2. Start the level-off 10 feet before your desired altitude
  3. Start the level-off when the altimeter indicates your desired altitude
A

Start the level-off 50 feet before your desired altitude

70
Q

The recommended glide speed is what?

  1. Only used on final approach to landing
  2. The speed that gives the greatest forward travel for the altitude lost
  3. Achieved by reducing the power all the way back to idle
A

The speed that gives the greatest forward travel for the altitude lost.

71
Q

When flying along a road, the wind from the right will do what to the aircraft?

  1. Will not affect the airplane’s ground track
  2. Will cause the airplane to drift to the left of the road
  3. Will cause the airplane to drift to the right of the road
A

Will cause the airplane to drift to the left of the road

72
Q

In order to fly parallel next to a straight road with a crosswind coming from the side, you must do what?

  1. Do nothing since the wind will not adversely affect your track across the ground
  2. Point the nose of the aircraft away from the direction of the wind
  3. Point the aircraft into the wind to offset its effect
A

Point the aircraft into the wind to offset its effect

73
Q

A line drawn from one point to another on a chart is called what?

  1. The course
  2. The track
  3. The heading
A

The course

74
Q

The three types of ground reference maneuvers are what?

  1. S turns, chandelles, and slow flight
  2. Rectangular course, S-turns across a road, and turns around a point
  3. Rectangular courses, straight-and-level flight, and chandelles
A
  1. Rectangular course
  2. S-turns across a road
  3. Turns around a point
75
Q

Ground reference maneuvers are flown at what altitudes?

  1. At lower altitudes— between 600 and 1,000 feet above the ground
  2. At a minimum altitude of 2,500 feet MSL
  3. No lower than 1,000 feet above the ground
A

At lower altitudes— between 600 and 1,000 feet above the ground

76
Q

An airplane flying in an uncongested area with persons, vessels, vehicles or structures nearby on the ground may not fly lower than what?

  1. 500 feet above them
  2. 1,000 feet above them
  3. There is no altitude restriction in this situation
A

500 feet above them

77
Q

How far must you remain from large stadiums that are actively hosting a sporting event?

  1. At least 5,000 feet above the stadium within a 1 mile radius from the stadium
  2. 3,000 feet above the ground within a 3 miles radius from the stadium
  3. At least 2,500 feet above the stadium within a 5 miles radius
A

3,000 feet above the ground within a 3 miles radius from the stadium

Remember they are both 3s (above and radius)

78
Q

The rectangular course ground reference maneuver is very similar to what normal aviation procedure?

  1. An engine out emergency landing scenario
  2. An airport traffic pattern
  3. An emergency landing situation
A

An airport traffic pattern

79
Q

The preferred entry into the rectangular course maneuver is what?

  1. A 45 degree entry to the downwind leg
  2. A straight in entry
  3. A 90 degree entry to the upwind leg
A

A 45 degree entry to the downwind leg

80
Q

When flying the crosswind leg of a rectangular course the airplane must be what?

  1. Crabbed away from the wind
  2. Flown parallel to the ground reference
  3. Crabbed into the wind
A

Crabbed into the wind

81
Q

In an internal combustion engine, the ratio of air to fuel is correct in the full rich position only at what altitude?

  1. 10,000 feet MSL
  2. Sea level
  3. 5,000 feet MSL
82
Q

As an airplane climbs, the fuel air mixture becomes what?

  1. Remains the same
  2. Richer
  3. Leaner
83
Q

A mixture that is set too rich will do what?

  1. Will create spark plug fouling
  2. Will limit fuel flow to the engine
  3. Will cause the engine to overheat
A

Will create spark plug fouling

84
Q

For best economy, lean the mixture to peak exhaust gas temperature (EGT) and do what?

  1. Leave it set at peak EGT
  2. Increase the peak EGT by 50 degrees
  3. Reduce the peak EGT by 50 degrees
A

Leave it set at peak EGT

85
Q

The mixture must be reset whenever you change what?

  1. Once set at the cruise altitude, there is no further need to change the mixture
  2. Altitude or power
  3. Direction
A

Altitude or power

86
Q

How do you set the mixture if your airplane has no EGT?

  1. Lean till the engine temperature increases by 50 degrees
  2. If your engine has no EGT there is no need to lean
  3. Lean till the engine runs roughly and then enrich until the engine runs smoothly again
A

Lean till the engine runs roughly and then enrich until the engine runs smoothly again.

87
Q

Detonation occurs when…?

  1. There is an explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinder’s combustion chamber
  2. The temperature of the fuel/air mixture is too cool and no ignition of fuel occurs
  3. When the fuel/air mixture ignites prior to the engine’s normal ignition point
A

There is an explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinder’s combustion chamber

88
Q

Preignition occurs when…?

  1. The fuel/air mixture ignites prior to the engine’s normal ignition point
  2. There is an explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinder’s combustion chamber
  3. The temperature of the fuel/air mixture is too cool causing the fuel to ignite before the spark plugs are set to fire
A

The fuel/air mixture ignites prior to the engine’s normal ignition point

89
Q

The most reliable indicator of preignition is when you have what?

  1. Loss of power
  2. A decrease in engine temperature
  3. An increase in RPMs
A

Loss of power

90
Q

What is induced drag?

  1. The drag caused by the lifting upward force of the elevator
  2. The drag caused by the fuselage and other protrusions disrupting the flow of air
  3. The rearward retarding force caused by the wings creating lift
A

The rearward retarding force caused by the wings creating lift

91
Q

What is parasite drag?

  1. The rearward retarding force caused by the wings creating lift
  2. The drag caused by the fuselage and other protrusions disrupting the flow of air
  3. The drag caused by the lifting upward force of the elevator
A

The drag caused by the fuselage and other protrusions disrupting the flow of air

92
Q

What is meant by angle of attack?

  1. How quickly the airplane is climbing
  2. The angle between the chord line and the relative wind
  3. Any increase in pitch attitude of the airplane
A

The angle between the chord line and the relative wind

93
Q

What is the critical angle of attack?

  1. The point at which the wing will stall
  2. The pitch angle that will create the best climb performance
  3. The angle of attack that will achieve the greatest climb speed at a given altitude
A

The point at which the wing will stall

94
Q

Wingtip vortices are the result of what?

  1. Relative wind
  2. Lift
  3. Aircraft weight
95
Q

As the airplane slows down in flight, the angle of attack must be:

  1. Increased to maintain altitude
  2. Decreased to prevent a stall
  3. Decreased to maintain altitude
A

Increased to maintain altitude

96
Q

How does an airplane’s wing design prevent a completely stalled condition?

  1. It has a high-speed airfoil design at the wing tip
  2. The smoothness of its surface helps prevent a stall
  3. The wing is twisted from root to tip allowing the tip to have a lower angle of attack
A

The wing is twisted from root to tip allowing the tip to have a lower angle of attack

97
Q

What factors cause the airplane to turn to the left in a nose high attitude?

  1. Both of the other two answers are correct
  2. Engine torque and spiraling slipstream
  3. Gyroscopic precession and asymmetrical propeller loading
A
  1. Both of the other two answers are correct.
  2. Engine torque and spiraling slipstream.
  3. Gyroscopic precession and asymmetrical propeller loading
98
Q

Slow flight is taught in order to familiarize you with what?

  1. Landing on a grass field
  2. The feel and sounds of an approaching stall
  3. Low speed engine management
A

The feel and sounds of an approaching stall

99
Q

In order to maintain altitude at a slower airspeed, the angle of attack must what?

  1. Be decreased
  2. Be increased
  3. Remain the same
A

Be increased

100
Q

Induced drag increases when airspeed is what?

  1. Increased
  2. Decreased
  3. Increased by a factor of two
101
Q

Parasite drag increases when airspeed is what?

  1. Decreased
  2. Increased
  3. Parasite drag always remains constant
102
Q

In a turn at slow flight speed, you must do what?

  1. No power change is necessary to maintain altitude
  2. Decrease power to maintain altitude
  3. Add power to maintain altitude
A

Add power to maintain altitude

103
Q

The use of flaps in slow flight may be used to what?

  1. Should never be used in slow flight
  2. May be used to demonstrate their slow speed handling characteristics
  3. Can only be deployed up to ten degrees
A

Demonstrate their slow speed handling characteristics

104
Q

Extending the flaps will do what to stall speed?

  1. Allows for more stable control in a slow flight condition
  2. Increases the stalling speed
  3. Lowers the stalling speed
A

Lowers the stalling speed

105
Q

Power-off stalls are also called what type of stalls?

  1. Approach to landing stalls
  2. Departure stalls
  3. High power stalls
A

Approach to landing stalls

106
Q

In an imminent stall, when is recovery made?

  1. You immediately put the airplane in a spin configuration
  2. Recovery is held off until the aircraft is in a complete stall
  3. Recovery is initiated at the first sign of the stall
A

Recovery is initiated at the first sign of the stall

107
Q

When practicing full stalls allow the stall to progress until…?

  1. Allow the stall to progress until you have full up elevator and nose down pitching
  2. Recover immediately before you have full up elevator pressure
  3. Complete the stall by initiating a moderate dive
A

Allow the stall to progress until you have full up elevator and nose down pitching

108
Q

Stalls are primarily caused by what?

  1. Rough handling of the controls
  2. Change in the wind direction and speed
  3. An excessive angle of attack
A

An excessive angle of attack

109
Q

The objective for doing stalls is:

  1. Both of the other two answers are correct
  2. To learn how to recover to normal flight
  3. To learn how to avoid them
A
  1. Both of the other two answers are correct
  2. To learn how to recover to normal flight
  3. To learn how to avoid them
110
Q

What is the minimum recovery altitude when practicing stalls?

  1. 1,500 feet above the ground
  2. 800 feet above the ground
  3. 5,000 feet AGL
A

1,500 feet above the ground (1,500 AGL)

111
Q

Stall recovery is made by…?

  1. By lowering the nose and simultaneously adding full power
  2. By lowering the nose and retarding the throttle to idle
  3. By maintaining the nose attitude and adding full power
A

By lowering the nose and simultaneously adding full power

112
Q

A turning power-off stall should be made at how many degrees of bank?

  1. 30 degrees of bank
  2. 20 degrees of bank
  3. 45 degrees of bank
A

20 degrees of bank

113
Q

What do you need to do to perform a power-on stall?

  1. Slow to rotation speed, add takeoff power, and raise the nose to an attitude above what’s required for a normal climb
  2. Lower the nose, increase speed, and then begin a normal climb
  3. Slow to rotation speed, maintain present power setting, and raise nose to begin climb
A
  1. Slow to rotation speed
  2. Add takeoff power
  3. Raise the nose to an attitude above what’s required for a normal climb
114
Q

To recover from a power-on stall, you must…

  1. Add full power and lower the pitch attitude
  2. Add full power and climb
  3. Lower the pitch attitude to slightly below level flight
A

Lower the pitch attitude to slightly below level flight

115
Q

To prevent the airplane from rolling in a stall, you must…

  1. Add sufficient aileron pressure opposite the turn
  2. Slowly add right rudder until the pedal hits the floor
  3. Keep the ball centered throughout the maneuver
A

Keep the ball centered throughout the maneuver

116
Q

The factors that affect the angle of attack are what?

  1. Load factor, thrust, and pitch attitude
  2. Airspeed, weight, and load factor
  3. Thrust, drag, and weight
A
  1. Airspeed
  2. Weight
  3. Load factor
117
Q

The load factor on an airplane increases with:

  1. Flying steep turns and making abrupt changes in airplane attitude
  2. Any moderate change in pitch attitude, increase in weight, and steep turns
  3. Increase in weight, an increase in power, and any moderate pitch change
A

Flying steep turns and making abrupt changes in airplane attitude

118
Q

Whenever possible, always enter the traffic pattern at what altitude?

  1. Slightly below pattern altitude to better see other airplanes
  2. At pattern altitude
  3. In a descending entry into the pattern
A

At pattern altitude

119
Q

The recommended entry into the airport traffic pattern is what?

  1. A 45 degree angle into the downwind leg
  2. A straight-in entry to the crosswind leg
  3. A straight-in entry to the downwind leg
A

A 45 degree angle into the downwind leg

120
Q

The pre-landing checklist items include what?

  1. Fuel selector on both, controls moving freely, and mixture lean
  2. Seats and seat belts secured, fuel selector on both, and mixture full rich
  3. Seats adjusted and secure, controls moving freely, and transponder on
A
  1. Seats and seat belts secured
  2. Fuel selector on both
  3. Mixture full rich
    • landing light on
    • carb heat on
121
Q

When flying the airport pattern legs, it’s a good practice to what?

  1. To remain about two miles parallel to each leg
  2. To fly at cruise airspeed
  3. To fly close enough to the runway to be able to land if you lose engine power
A

To fly close enough to the runway to be able to land if you lose engine power

122
Q

The turn from downwind to base leg should occur when?

  1. Should occur when you are approximately one mile from the intended touchdown point
  2. Should occur when the intended touchdown point is approximately 45 degrees behind the wing
  3. Should occur when the intended touchdown point is even with the tip of your wing
A

Should occur when the intended touchdown point is approximately 45 degrees behind the wing

123
Q

On final approach, one of the fixed values you should maintain is what?

  1. The approach speed
  2. Your desired flap setting
  3. Your crab angle
A

The approach speed

124
Q

During the approach, align the aiming point on the runway to a place on the windshield. If the windshield mark stays on the aiming point then it means you are what?

  1. You are above the glidepath
  2. You are on the glidepath
  3. You are below the glidepath
A

You are on the glidepath

125
Q

During landing you should always try to touch down in what kind of attitude?

  1. On all three wheels at once
  2. In a nose high attitude
  3. First on the nose wheel then on the main gear
A

In a nose high attitude

126
Q

Just before touchdown, the airplane is what?

  1. Is stalled about one foot above the runway
  2. Must be crabbed into the wind
  3. Must accelerate in order to land without stalling
A

Is stalled about one foot above the runway

127
Q

An aircraft always, when possible, takes off how, realtive to the wind?

  1. With full flaps
  2. With the wind
  3. Into the wind
A

Into the wind

128
Q

With a left quartering crosswind, you takeoff with with you ailerons in what position?

  1. The right aileron up—control wheel positioned fully to the right
  2. The left aileron up—control wheel positioned fully to the left
  3. The left aileron up—control wheel positioned fully to the right
A

The left aileron up—control wheel positioned fully to the left

  • Headwinds, turn into it
  • Tailwinds, turn out of it
129
Q

With a left quartering crosswind, you takeoff with what type of takeoff speed?

  1. A higher than normal takeoff speed
  2. A lower than normal takeoff speed
  3. A normal takeoff speed
A

A higher than normal takeoff speed.

130
Q

Immediately after liftoff in a crosswind, keep the airplane in a what?

  1. Allow the airplane to crab into the wind
  2. Neutralize the controls for a normal takeoff
  3. Keep the airplane in a sideslip
A

Keep the airplane in a sideslip

131
Q

After takeoff and established in a climb, when the airplane is well above the runway…

  1. Allow the airplane to crab into the wind
  2. Keep the airplane in a sideslip
  3. Neutralize the controls for a normal takeoff
A

Allow the airplane to crab into the wind

132
Q

Which crosswind landing technique is best for landing without causing a side load on the gear?

  1. The sideslip
  2. The crab
  3. Neither method is appropriate for landing in a crosswind
A

The sideslip

133
Q

At touchdown, the sideslip is held…?

  1. Throughout the landing procedure
  2. Until the upwind gear touches the runway
  3. Until the airplane is approximately one foot above the runway
A

Until the upwind gear touches the runway

134
Q

With experience in crosswind landing conditions, in order to compensate for drift, use what to compensate for drift?

  1. Use only the sideslip method to land
  2. Use only the crab method to land
  3. Use both a crab and then a sideslip to compensate for drift
A

Use both a crab and then a sideslip to compensate for drift.

135
Q

The key to setting up a landing on final approach is your ability to do what?

  1. Using the proper degree of flaps on base leg
  2. To properly initiate either the crab or slip on final
  3. Your ability to properly judge the turn from base leg to final
A

Your ability to properly judge the turn from base leg to final

136
Q

If you land without the use of flaps, the approach will be what?

  1. Faster and shallower
  2. Slower and shallower
  3. Slower and steeper
A

Faster and shallower

137
Q

The purpose of the forward slip is to do what?

  1. Create a high rate of descent
  2. Hold the airplane on the centerline of the runway
  3. To counteract a crosswind
A

Create a high rate of descent

138
Q

In a go-around situation, how should flaps be retracted?

  1. Leave the flaps in their original position
  2. Retract the flaps a little at a time
  3. Quickly retract all the flaps at one time
A

Retract the flaps a little at a time

139
Q

Whenever you are in doubt about a landing you should do what?

  1. Add full power and lower the nose
  2. Go-around for another try
  3. Retard the throttle and use a forward slip to quickly lose altitude
A

Go-around for another try

140
Q

If an airport has both UNICOM and CTAF frequencies and you want information regarding the airport or FBO services you should call on what frequency?

  1. Call the local ATC center
  2. Call on the airport’s CTAF frequency
  3. Call on the UNICOM frequency
A

Call on the UNICOM frequency

141
Q

When landing at a pilot-controlled airport, it’s a good idea to announce your position, when?

  1. Downwind only
  2. Final only
  3. When approaching the airport and on each leg of the pattern
A

When approaching the airport and on each leg of the pattern

142
Q

Select the best statement regarding communications and position reporting at non-towered airports:

  1. Radio position reports are only necessary when there are other aircraft in the pattern
  2. Radio position reports are mandatory when entering each leg of the pattern
  3. Radio position reports are not mandatory, but are encouraged for a safer environment in and near the traffic pattern
A
  • A. Radio position reports are only necessary when there are other aircraft in the pattern.
  • B. Radio position reports are mandatory when entering each leg of the pattern.
  • C. Radio position reports are not mandatory, but are encouraged for a safer environment in and near the traffic pattern.
143
Q

CTAF is an acronym for Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and allows what?

  1. It is used for communication with FSS
  2. It allows pilots to communicate with an air traffic control tower
  3. It allows pilots to communicate their intentions in the environment of a pilot-controlled airport
A

It allows pilots to communicate their intentions in the environment of a pilot-controlled airport.

144
Q

Many airports in the U.S. have automated weather information available, depending on their complexity, the facility may be classified as what three types?

  1. An ASOS, AWOS or UNICOM system
  2. An ASOS or AMOS system
  3. An ASOS, AWOS or the newer AWSS system
A

An…

  1. ASOS
  2. AWOS
  3. AWSS
145
Q

When is wake turbulence the strongest?

  1. Behind slow, fast airplanes during take off or landing
  2. Behind large, slow airplanes during take off or landing
  3. Behind large, fast airplanes during take off or landing
A

Behind large, slow airplanes during take off or landing.

146
Q

When does wake turbulence become and remain a hazard?

  1. During taxi, and remains a hazard until the airplane rotates
  2. Just after engine start, and remains a hazard until takeoff power is applied
  3. When an airplane rotates for takeoff, and remains a hazard until the airplane lands
A

When an airplane rotates for takeoff, and remains a hazard until the airplane lands

147
Q

Wake turbulence strength is determined by:

  1. Wing shape, speed, and weight of the airplane
  2. Fuselage shape, speed, and weight of the airplane
  3. Strictly the speed and angle of attack
A

Wing shape, speed, and weight of the airplane

148
Q

Wake turbulence vortices tend to descend at about how many feet and level off at how many feet?

  1. Stay level behind the generating airplane
  2. Descend about 400-500 feet per minute, and level off about 900 feet below the flight path of the generating airplane
  3. Climb about 400-500 feet per minute, and level off about 900 feet above the flight path of the generating airplane
A

Descend about 400-500 feet per minute, and level off about 900 feet below the flight path of the generating airplane

149
Q

You are following behind a large airplane to land on the same runway. Where should you land?

  1. Stay above the large airplane’s flight path, and touch down beyond where the large aircraft landed
  2. Stay in the large airplane’s flight path, and touch down before where the large aircraft landed
  3. Stay below the airplane’s flight path, and touch down after where the large aircraft landed
A

Stay above the large airplane’s flight path, and touch down beyond where the large aircraft landed

150
Q

You are landing on a runway where another large airplane is departing. Where should you land?

  1. Stay in ground effect until you can touch down beyond the point the aircraft rotated
  2. Watch where it rotates, and land before that point
  3. Watch where it rotates, and land beyond that point
A

Watch where it rotates, and land before that point.

151
Q

You are landing on a crossing runway behind a large departing airplane. You should be aware that the large aircraft rotates before the runway intersection…then what?

  1. If the large aircraft rotates before the runway intersection, vortices will have been generated and flight under the large airplane’s path should be avoided.
  2. If the large aircraft rotates before the runway intersection, you will be safe from vortices as long as the departing aircraft climbs at a steep rate.
  3. If the large aircraft rotates after the runway intersection, you still may be affected by low lying vortices.
A

If the large aircraft rotates before the runway intersection, vortices will have been generated and flight under the large airplane’s path should be avoided.

152
Q

If taking off or landing behind a large aircraft, a safe way to avoid wake turbulence is to do what?

  1. Asking the controller to allow at least three minutes prior to departing or landing behind a large airplane
  2. Follow in the path of the large airplane, as wake turbulence tends to sink
  3. There is no safe way to avoid wake turbulence, other than not flying near large aircraft
A

Asking the controller to allow at least three minutes prior to departing or landing behind a large airplane

153
Q

You are landing on the same runway behind a large airplane. What should you do?

  1. Stay above the large airplane’s flight path and note where it touches down. Land beyond that point.
  2. Stay above the large airplane’s flight path and note where it touches down. Land before that point.
  3. Stay below the large airplane’s flight path and note where it touches down. Land at that same point.
A

Stay above the large airplane’s flight path and note where it touches down. Land beyond that point.

154
Q

While flying under visual conditions, to avoid wake turbulence in flight, you should do what?

  1. Avoid flying behind and below a large aircraft, and if possible, adjust position laterally, towards the upwind.
  2. Fly behind and below the large aircraft, and adjust position to stay downwind of the large aircraft path.
  3. Avoid flying behind and below a large aircraft, and if possible, adjust position laterally, towards the downwind.
A

Avoid flying behind and below a large aircraft, and if possible, adjust position laterally, towards the upwind.

Private Pilot Q&A (Multiple Choice) (1 decks)

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