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FAA KT > Priv Pilot Practice Test > Flashcards

Priv Pilot Practice Test Flashcards

1
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 8 on page 215
What is the effect of a temperature increase from 25 to 50 degrees Fahrenheit on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 5,000 feet?
A 1,200-foot increase
B 1,400-foot increase
C 1,650-foot increase

A

1,650-foot increase

pg 214

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2
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 40 on page 216
Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
OAT-Std
Pressure altitude= 4,000 ft
Takeoff weight=2/800 lb
Headwind component=Calm
A 1,500 feet
B 1,750 feet
C 2,000 feet

A

1,750 feet

pg 217

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3
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 24 on page 443
Determine the magnetic Course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area2) Magnetic variation is 6 degrees 30’E.
A 075 degrees
B 082 degrees
C 091 degrees

A

075 degrees

pg 443

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4
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 36 on page 220
With a reported wind of South at 20 knots, which runway is appropriate for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?
A Runway 10
B Runway 14
C Runway 24

A

Runway 24

pg 221

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5
Q

PPPT If an aircraft is loaded 90 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight and fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?
A 10 gallons
B 12 gallons
C 15 gallons

A

15 gallons

pg 225

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6
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 32 on page 245 and Figure 33 on page 245
Which action can adjust the airplane’s weight to maximum gross weight and the CG within limits for takeoff?
Front seat occupants=425 lbs
Rear seat occupants =300 lbs
Fuel, main tanks= 44 gal
A Drain 12 gallons for fuel
B Drain 9 gallons of fuel
C Transfer 12 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to the auxiliary tanks.

A

Drain 9 gallons of fuel

pg 244

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7
Q

PPPT What is true altitude?
A The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level
B The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface
C The height above the standard datum plane

A

The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level

pg 58

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8
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 25 on page 345 (Refer to Area 4)
The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is
A Class Be airspace to 10,000 feet MSL
B Class C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL
C Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL

A

Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL

pg 344

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9
Q

PPPT Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports
A regardless of weather conditions
B only when weather conditions are less than VFR
C within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR

A

regardless of weather conditions

pg 111

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10
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 12 on page 291
Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather?
A All
B KINK, KBOI, and KJFK
C KINK, KBOI, and KLAX

A

KINK, KBOI, and KLAX

pg 291

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11
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 14 on page 293
If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceoling?
A 505 feet AGL
B 1,295 feet AGL
C 6,586 feet AGL

A

505 feet AGL

pg 292

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12
Q

PPPT Refer to Figur 20 on page 335 (Refer to Area 3)
Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport
A 36 degrees 24’N-76 degrees 01’W
B 36 degrees 48’N-46 degrees 01’W
C 47 degrees 24N’-75 degrees 58’W

A

36 degrees 24’N-76 degrees 01’W

pg 334

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13
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 25 on page 345 (Refer to Area 3)
The floor of Class B airspace of Dallas Executive Airport is
A at the surface
B 3,000 feet MSL
C 3,100 feet MSL

A

3,000 feet MSL

pg 344

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14
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 23 on page 369 (Area 3)
What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?
A 1,498 feet MSL
B 1,531 feet AGL
C 1,548 feet MSL

A

1,548 feet MSL

pg 368

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15
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 25 on page 375 (Refer to Area 2)
The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is
A 122.95 MHz
B 126.0 MHz
C 133.4 MHz

A

126.0 MHz

pg 374

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16
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 26 on page 377 (Refer to Area 2)
What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport?
A Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz
B Contact UNICOM when 10 miles out on 122.8 MHz
C Circle the airport in a left turn prior to entering traffic

A

Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz

pg 376

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17
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 15 on Page 295
The only cloud type forecast in TAF report is
A nimbostratus
B Cumulonimbus
C Scattered cumulus

A

Cumulonimbus

pg 295

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18
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 4 on page 54
What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?
a 55 to 100 kts
B 55-208 kts
C 55 to 165 kts

A

55 to 100 kts

pg 54

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19
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 28 on page 405 (Ref Illustration 3)
The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft’s position relative to the station?
A East
B Southeast
C West

A

Southeast

pg 410

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20
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 24 on page 407
What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 245 degree radial of Sulphur Springs VOR-DME (area 5) and the 140 degree radial of Bonham VORTAC (area 3)?
A Glenmar Airport
B Caddo Mills Airport
C Majors Airport

A

Glenmar Airport

pg 406

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21
Q

PPPT What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?
A Structural failure
B Mechanical malfunction
C Human error

A

Human error

pg 258

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22
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 9 on page 433 (Refer to Area C)
How should the flight controls to held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind?
A Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
B Left aileron down elevator neutral
C Left aileron down elevator down

A

Left aileron down elevator down

pg 433

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23
Q

PPPT Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
A the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out of the wiring is defective
B hot sprots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
C the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

A

the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

pg 71

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24
Q

PPPT During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
A The other aircraft is crossing to the left
B The other aircraft is crossing to the right.
C The other aircraft is approaching head-on

A

The other aircraft is crossing to the left

pg 107

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25
Q

PPPT What is the effect of advancing the throttle in flight?
A Both aircraft groundspeed and angle of attack will increase
B Airspeed will remain relatively constant but the aircraft will climb
C The aircraft will accelerate, which will cause ta turn to the right

A

Both aircraft groundspeed and angle of attack will increase

pg 35

26
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 47 on page 103
Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is
A below the glide slope
B on the glide slope
C above the guide slope

A

on the glide slope

pg 103

27
Q

PPPT What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
A Automated Flight Service Station
B Air Traffic Control Tower
C Air Route Traffic Control Center

A

Air Traffic Control Tower

pg 117

28
Q

PPPT During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
A 1,000 feet
B 1,500 feet
C 2,000 feet

A

2,000 feet

pg 117

29
Q

PPPT Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
A Air temperature lower than standard
B Atmospheric pressure lower than standard
C Air temperature warmer than standard.

A

Air temperature warmer than standard.

pg 61

30
Q

PPPT Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
A Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50
B Temperature between 32F and 50F and low humidity
C Temperature between 20F and 70F and high humidity

A

Temperature between 20F and 70F and high humidity

pg 68

31
Q

PPPT Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should
A check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.
B visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance
C announce thier intentions on the nearest CTAF

A

visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

pg 108

32
Q

PPPT Refer to Figure 25 on page 449
Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Fort Worth Meacham (area 4) to Denton Muni (area1). The wind is from 330 degrees at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7 degrees E.
A 003 degrees
B 017 degrees
C 023 degrees

A

003 degrees

pg 448

33
Q

PPPT What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
A the location of the CG with respect to the center of lift
B The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab.
C The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.

A

the location of the CG with respect to the center of lift

pg 34

34
Q

PPPT In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when
A a left turn is entered from an east heading
B a right turn is entered from a west heading
C the aircraft is decelerated while on west heading

A

the aircraft is decelerated while on west heading

pg 52

35
Q

PPPT VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished
A at a higher airspeed
B with a steeper descent
C the same as during daytime

A

the same as during daytime

pg 431

36
Q

PPPT Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
A maintain a 3 degree glide to the runway
B maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
C stay high until the runway can be reached in a power off landing

A

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

pg 102

37
Q

PPPT When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
A During unaccelerated level flight
B When the aircraft is accelerating
C when the aircraft is at rest on the ground

A

During unaccelerated level flight

pg 30

38
Q

PPPT What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
A Never-exceed speed
B Maximum structural cruising speed
C Maneuvering speed

A

Maneuvering speed

pg 53

39
Q

PPPT Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?
A Connective SIGMET
B SIGMENT
C AIRMET

A

SIGMENT

pg 300

40
Q

PPPT The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there
A are thunderstorms in the area
B has been cold frontal passage
C is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.

A

is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.

pg 268

41
Q

PPPT Which statement best defines hypoxia?
A A state of oxygen deficiency in the body
B An abnoral increase in the volume of air breathed
C A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles

A

A state of oxygen deficiency in the body

pg 251

42
Q

PPPT If the pilot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instrument would be affected?
A The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator
B The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator
C The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator

A

The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator

pg

43
Q

PPPT What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
A Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
B Reduce climb speed and increase RPM
C Increase climb speed and increase RPM

A

Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

pg 66

44
Q

PPPT Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?
A An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
B An in-flight radio communications failure
C An in-flight generator or altenator failure

A

An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.

pg 191

45
Q

PPPT With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?
A Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon
B Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air
C Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

A

An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.

pg 146

46
Q

PPPT A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5hours. The 100-hour inspection actually done at 2209.5 hours. when is the next 100-hour inspection due?
A 3312.5 hours
B 3402.5 hours
C 3395.5 hours

A

3402.5 hours

pg 187

47
Q

PPPT Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
A The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
B The corrected density altitude of the departure airport.
C The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.

A

The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.

pg 177

48
Q

PPPT When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
A When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery
B Only when passengers are carried
C Any time when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.

A

Any time when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.

pg 151

49
Q

PPPT An airplane and airship are converging. Id the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
A The airship
B The airplane
C Each pilot should alter course to the right.

A

The airship

pg 174

50
Q

PPPT Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civilian aircraft of US registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of
A 12,500 feet MSL
B 14,000 feet MSL
C 15,000 feet MSL

A

15,000 feet MSL

pg 182

51
Q

PPPT The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from
A sunset to sunrise
B 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
C the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.

A

1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise

pg 157

52
Q

PPPT In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may
A act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment.
B not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
C not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

A

not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

pg 159

53
Q

PPPT Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
A In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
B Only if the person does not have access to the flight deck or pilot’s compartment.
C Under no condition,

A

In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.

pg 170

54
Q

PPPT What is one purpose of wing flaps?
A To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
B To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls.
C To decrease wing area to vary the lift.

A

To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.

pg 28

55
Q

PPPT Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
A mature stage
B downdraft stage
C cumulus stage

A

mature stage

pg 266

56
Q

PPPT Where can locations for VOR test facilities be found?
A Aeronautical Information Manual.
B Sectional charts.
C Chart Supplement.

A

Chart Supplement.

pg403

57
Q

PPPT A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristics? A Showery precipitation.
B Turbulent air.
C Poor surface visibility.

A

Poor surface visibility.

pg 276

58
Q

PPPT Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of, a
A movement of air.
B pressure differential.
C heat exchange.

A

heat exchange.

pg 264

59
Q

PPPT Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by
A warm, dense air moving inland from over the water.
B water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land.
C cool, dense air moving inland from over the water.

A

cool, dense air moving inland from over the water.

pg 265

60
Q

PPPT Where does wind sheer occur?
A Only at higher altitudes.
B Only at lower altitudes.
C At all altitudes, in all directions.

A

At all altitudes, in all directions.

pg 271

FAA KT (2 decks)

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