Prior Exam Material Flashcards

1
Q

Similar chromosomes carrying the same types of genes…

A

homologous chromosomes

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2
Q

Individual with a matched pair of alleles…

A

homozygous

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3
Q

Have only one member of each pair of chromosomes, therefore called a haploid…

A

gametes

sperm
egg

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4
Q

Traits such as a scrotal circumference or milk production are examples of…

A

sex-limited traits

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5
Q

The fundamental unit of inheritance…

A

gene

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6
Q

Gametogenesis as it occurs in females is termed…

A

oogenesis

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7
Q

An observed category or measured level of performance in an individual…

A

phenotype

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8
Q

A normal distribution does not…

A

accurately describe the distribution of threshold traits

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9
Q

What is influenced by one (or few) gene pairs and fit into phenotypic categories?

A

Qualitative traits

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10
Q

As animal breeders, we are concerned with the________ because it is what can be passed on to the next generation…

A

genotype

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11
Q

The two fundamental questions of Animal Breeders are 1) ___________ and 2) _____________

A

1) what is the best animal?

2) how do we breed animals so that their offspring will be better than their parents

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12
Q

What is the “big DNA crapshoot”?

A

if a dam and sire produce a superior offspring, there is no guarantee that they will produce an equal to it ever again

genetics are random

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13
Q

What does gametogenesis do to the gametes?

A

reduces the chromosomes in a sperm/egg to a haploid, then join to create the normal diploid in the zygote

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14
Q

What is the location of a gene on a chromosome called? What else is it referred to?

A

allele

the fundamental unit of inheritance

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15
Q

The testicles of a male and the ovaries of female produce gametes by a process called _________. The unique type of cell division in which gametes are formed is called ________.

A

gametogenesis

meiosis

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16
Q

Over-dominance means what?

A

heterozygotes possess MORE vigor than the homozygotes

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17
Q

When epistasis is occurring, we see…

A

interaction of genes at different locations

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18
Q

When sperm and egg unite, it establishes the…

A

paired condition of chromosomes in the zygote

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19
Q

A zygote is termed ______ because it contains chromosomes in pairs.

A

diploid

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20
Q

When a zygote is formed the genotype of an animal is…

A

permanently established

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21
Q

Regression is…

A

the amount of change expected in one variable for a given amount of change in another variable

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22
Q

A correlation coefficient is…
Correlation coefficients are confined to a range from _____.

A

a measure of the strength of the relationship between two variables in populations
-1.0 to 1.0

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23
Q

________ is a measure of how two traits (or values) vary together in a population
_______ is approximately the average deviation from the
mean

A

covariance
standard deviation

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24
Q

We collect samples of data from _______ to calculate sample statistics which are estimates of the _________.

A

populations
true population parameters

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25
Q

The sex chromosomes, X and Y, are not considered _______ as they have different _______ and lack corresponding genes

A

homologous
size and shape

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26
Q

Coat color inheritance in the Shorthorn breed serves as an example of how ____ gene action works. Mating a red Shorthorn bull with genotype RR to white Shorthorn cows with genotype rr would result in roan Shorthorn calves with genotype Rr

A

co-dominant

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27
Q

What can be passed from generation to generation?

A

the effect of individual genes

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28
Q

Genotype can be split into two components. The two components are…

A

additive (BV) and non-additive (GV)

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29
Q

What are the 4 parts of selection that improve polygenic traits?

A

challenging
long-term
cumulative
easier for carcass traits than reproductive traits

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30
Q

Measurement of strength between true genetic value and the predicted genetic value…

A

accuracy

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31
Q

The ability of an individual to produce progeny whose performance is especially like its own and its especially uniform is called…

A

prepotency

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32
Q

Matings within a breed across family lines (crossing unrelated families)…

A

outcrossing

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33
Q

When “analyzing the system” what 4 things are we looking at?

A

animals (genotype)
production environment
fixed resources and management
production inputs and marketing endpoint

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34
Q

What is the most challenging to change through selection?

A

improving growth rate

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35
Q

Heritability is…(3 things)

A

the relationship between phenotype and genotype
the proportion of phenotypic variance that can be explained by additive genetic variance
an indicator of how easily traits can be changed in response to selection

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36
Q

Polygenic traits are…(3 things)

A

traits influenced by many genes
typically more economic important
more challenging to select for than simply inherited traits

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37
Q

The process of deciding which animals will become parents…

A

replacement selection

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38
Q

What types of traits respond most favorably to cross-breeding? Example?

A

breeding values

a reproductive trait like age at puberty

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39
Q

Selection can be based on… (4 things)

A

phenotype (individual performance)
progeny testing
pedigrees
genetic prediction

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40
Q

The general goal for a breeding program or the idea of what constitutes the best animal

A

breeding objective

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41
Q

An observed category or measured level of performance for a trait in an individual

A

phenotype

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42
Q

With regard to the typical pyramid structure, information used to determine breeding objectives should be based on…(2)

A

information from end users
performance data indicating the genotypes with most profit potential relative to the marketing endpoint

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43
Q

Selection can be based on phenotype, progeny testing, pedigree, or genetic prediction. Of these four, _________ is the only one that accounts for each of the other three

A

genetic prediction accounts for the others

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44
Q

Phenotypes can be evaluated subjectively or objectively. There are ________ traits that can only be evaluated subjectively

A

economically important

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45
Q

An important responsibility of purebred seedstock breeders is to __________ in the _________ traits in their respective meat animal industry

A

make genetic improvements
economically important

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46
Q

The two fundamental questions of animal breeders are: 1) ______ and 2) _________

A

1) what is the best animal
2) how do you breed animals so that their offspring will be better than their parents

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47
Q

Relative to mating systems and industry structure, feedstock producers are more likely to ______ and commercial producers are more likely to ______

A

inbreed
crossbreed

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48
Q

It is possible to see ______ levels of heterosis (5-10%) in F1 crossbreds that still results in a ______ level of performance than one of the lines of purebred parents

A

high
lower

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49
Q

As animal breeders, we a primarily concerned with ________ of the individual

A

genetic makeup

50
Q

The two basic tools used to improve animal populations are _____ and _______. _______ is the process of determining which males are mated to which females

A

selection
mating
mating

51
Q

Traits that are low in heritability are influenced more by _______ and ______ genetic effects

A

environment
non-additive

52
Q

________ traits are influenced by one gene pair (or a few) and typically qualitative

A

Simply inherited

53
Q

Mating decisions are made to ______ the proportion of favorable _______ in future generations

A

increase
gene combinations

54
Q

Crossbreeding=________=prepotency

A

heterozygosity

55
Q

A crossbred is a hybrid but….

A

a hybrid is not always a crossbred

56
Q

A race of animals within a species, usually with a common origin and similar identifying characteristics is called…

A

a breed

57
Q

We need ______ to crossbreed and ______ to outcross

A

purebreds
inbreds

58
Q

A _______ is a set of animals of the same sex, managed alike, close to the same age and given the same opportunity to perform in the same environment

A

contemporary group

59
Q

_______ is an area of animal breeding concerned with the measurement of data, statistical procedures and computational techniques for predicted breeding values

A

Genetic prediction

60
Q

In the typical pyramid structure of the meat animal industries, germ plasma flows ______ the pyramid and information should flow _____ the pyramid

A

down
up

61
Q

With regard to proper breeding, objectives ______ is typically better. Seldom (if ever) is _______ the correct breeding objective

A

intermediate optimums

extremities (more is better, less is better)

62
Q

The kind of animal that works best in one environment from will _____ from the optimal animal in different ______ scenarios

A

differ
production

63
Q

Most breeding industries have a pyramid structure including relatively few _______ selling breeding stock to a larger number of _______ who sell breeding stock to a great number of ______ (commercial breeders)

A

elite breeders
multiplier breeders
end users

64
Q

H=

A

2pq

65
Q

P=

A

BV+GVC+E

can include mean

66
Q

Selection for a higher Doc EPD would result…

A

more docile cattle

67
Q

Selection for a higher HP EPD would result in….

A

increased probability of first pregnancy

68
Q

EPDs are…
They are subject to change as more data is collected. More data results in higher accuracy and less possible change in EPD

A

an estimate of an animal’s true genetic value as a parent

69
Q

Effective crossbreeding systems require _____ animals

A

purebred

70
Q

BV represents the part of G that can be…

A

passed from parent to offspring

71
Q

_______ is the sum of independent, additive gene effects that are transmissible to offspring

A

Breeding Value

72
Q

Only one of each gene pair can be transmitted from parent to offspring
Genes cannot…
This explains why independent gene effects, but not __________, are transmitted from parents to offspring

A

can’t be transmitted in pairs
gene combination effects

73
Q

The biological phenomenon called hybrid vigor is the result of…

A

non-additive genetic merit

74
Q

________ effects can be temporary or permanent

A

Environmental

75
Q

Independent gene effects are known as _______ since the BV for a trait is the sum of the independent gene effects over all loci

A

additive gene effects

76
Q

Seedstock breeders sell not only animals but also….
The more and better the ________, the more valuable the product

A

information about these animals
information

77
Q

EPDs cannot predict the…
As EPD is a prediction of how future offspring will perform for a specific trait in comparison to the offspring of another parent

A

level of performance of offspring

78
Q

There is no “ideal” value of…

A

an EPD for any trait

79
Q

$Values assign an _______ to several EPDs based on the traits financial importance to a specific selection goal or _______

A

economic weighting
marketing endpoint

80
Q

What four things should be known about a trait before it is included in a selection program?

A

heritability
genetic correlation to other economically important traits
ease of measurement
economic importance

81
Q

Discovering and identifying genetic defects is usually the result of…(4 things)

A

breeding to a common ancestor
breeding success
lethal and sub-lethal mutations
eliminating phenocopies as a potential cause

82
Q

A Permanent Environmental Effect (like losing function in half the udder), would impact what in the lactating cow?

A

milk production in dairy cattle or any repeated trait

83
Q

If you were looking at six locus genotypes, what combination would you expect to breed with the most prepotence?

A

Bbccddeeffgg

more homozygous means more prepotency

84
Q

If a bull had a breeding value (BV) of 100 for Yearling Weight, what would be the bull’s progeny difference (PD) for Yearling Weight?

A

50

PD=.5*BV

85
Q

If a population of Holstein cows has an average level of milk production of 20,000 lbs and one cow in the population has a G value of +1000 and an E value of -1000, what is her expected level of production?

A

20,000

P=mean+G+E

86
Q

If a Holstein bull is mated to a large number of randomly selected dairy cows. On average, the female offspring resulting from the matings produced 225 lbs more milk per lactation than the average dairy cow. What is the sire’s progeny difference for milk production?

A

225

PD of sire will be same as number given. BV=2*PD

87
Q

Polygenic, qualitative traits that follow a normal distribution but with regard to genetic prediction, we draw a point at which they exhibit the desired phenotype or if they fall below they exhibit the other phenotype. EPDs for these traits are often expressed as percentages

A

threshold traits

88
Q

If N=normal development and n=lethal recessive gene which results in homozygous recessive genotypes being born dead. If Nn genotype have an advantage in fitness over NN genotypes, what impact would it have on the gene frequency of the n allele over time in this population?

A

gene frequency of n would increase

89
Q

If one locus has two alleles A & a. Independent, additive effects on marbeling score are A=+1 and a=-1, furthermore A is completely dominant to a. What genotype should you select if your breeding objective is to increase marbeling?

A

using BV, AA (1+1)

90
Q

You own an outstanding ewe flock and recently discovered they ALL are carriers of a lethal recessive gene. N is the allele that leads to normal development and n is the lethal recessive allele that results in the homozygous recessive genotype being born dead. You are currently in the process of selecting a new herd sire. What is the genotype you need in the next stud ram that will permit you to capture the genetic value of these breeding females while NEVER permitting the lethal recessive to manifest itself?

A

NN

91
Q

Based on information in the Angus sire summary, what has one of the lowest heritabilities?

A

maternal milk

92
Q

What is CED?

A

calving ease direct

unassisted births

93
Q

What is BW?

A

birth weight EPD

sire’s ability to transmit birth weight

94
Q

What is WW?

A

weaning weight

sire’s ability to transmit weaning weight to progeny

95
Q

What is YW?

A

yearling weight EPD

sire’s ability to transmit yearling weight to progeny

96
Q

What is RADG?

A

residual average daily gain

postweaning weight to progeny

97
Q

What is DMI?

A

dry matter intake

feed intake during postweaning to progeny

98
Q

What is YH?

A

yearling height

yearling height in inches to progeny

99
Q

What is SC?

A

scrotal circumference

scrotal size in centimeters to progeny

100
Q

What is Milk?

A

Maternal Milk EPD

milk and mothering ability from sire to progeny

101
Q

What is HP?

A

heifer pregnancy

chance of first pregnancy from sire to progeny

102
Q

What is CEM?

A

calving ease MATERNAL

unassisted births related to the daughter of the sires

103
Q

What is MW?

A

mature weight EPD

mature weights of progeny from sires in lbs

104
Q

What is MH?

A

mature height

difference in mature height of daughters from sires

105
Q

What is Marb?

A

marbeling

106
Q

What is RE?

A

ribeye area EPD

107
Q

What is $V?

A

economic selection index compared to a value

108
Q

What is EPD?

A

expected progeny difference

109
Q

What is ACC?

A

accuracy or reliability of an EPD

110
Q

What is Doc?

A

docility

111
Q

What is Claw?

A

claw set EPD

relation to toes

112
Q

What is Angle?

A

foot angle EPD

113
Q

What is PAP?

A

pulmonary arterial pressure EPD?

114
Q

What is CW?

A

carcass weight

115
Q

What is Fat?

A

fat thickness

116
Q

What is $M?

A

maternal weaned calf value

117
Q

What is $W?

A

weaned calf value?

118
Q

What is $F?

A

feedlot value

119
Q

What is $G?

A

grid value

120
Q

What is $B?

A

beef value

121
Q

What is $C?

A

combined value