Principles of Radiology for the Comprehensive Ophthalmologist Flashcards

1
Q

When is CT a good imaging modality choice

A

acute haemorrhage, trauma, calcification, and diseases of the bone and orbit and in patients for whom magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is contraindicated

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2
Q

When is MRI useful

A

the modality of choice for assessing the central nervous system

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3
Q

What is the relationship between ultrasound frequency and resolution

A

The frequency of ultrasound is directly proportional to its resolution and inversely proportional to its depth of penetration

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4
Q

What is SPECT

A

CT scans can be combined with nuclear medicine imaging, as in single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) and positron emission tomography (PET-CT). These modalities use radiolabeled molecules to help evaluate metabolic activity in a wide range of diseases

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5
Q

When is SPECT useful

A

evaulation of myocardial perfusion and brain function

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6
Q

When is PET CT useful

A

diagnose and stage brain tumours as well as diagnose degenerative diseases of the brain

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7
Q

What is the advantage of MRA/V, CTA/V

A

Less invasive than catheter angiography

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8
Q

Limitations of CT

A

1) CT scans employ ionizing radiation, a potential concern especially in pediatric cases and pregnant patients
2) Poor visibility of posterior fossa due to streak artifact from skull base
3) Lower spatial resolution than MRI

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9
Q

What is the unit to determine the amount of tissue damage expected from absorbed dose of ionizing radiation

A

Millisievert (mSv)

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10
Q

What is the unit for total dose of ionizing radiation delivered to a tissue during a particular scan sequence

A

Milligray (mGy)

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11
Q

What is the risk of exposure to 10mSv of radiation

A

Cancer risk 1/1000 patients

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12
Q

How does MRI work

A

MRI uses a strong magnetic field that causes hydrogen atoms found in water and fat to align themselves with the field. Once the atoms are aligned, protons within a selected imaging section/volume are exposed to a series of radiofrequency (RF) and/or magnetic gradient pulses and become excited. As the protons relax again to a steady state, they emit radio waves, which are detected by a receiver coil in the MRI system.

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13
Q

What is echo time

A

The time it takes for the signal to reach the MRI machine following the applied RF (or gradient) pulse

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14
Q

What is repetition time

A

The time between RF pulses

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15
Q

What is T1W image

A

Images generated with shorter TEs and TRs, are typically used for contrast-enhanced studies. In a T1WI, water appears dark (hypointense) and fat appears bright (hyperintense)

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16
Q

What is T2W image

A

use a longer TE to depict differences in water content, thus revealing inflammatory, ischemic, and neoplastic-related edematous changes. On T2WIs, vitreous, cerebrospinal, and other fluids are bright

17
Q

What is FLAIR

A

In fluid-attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) images, the fluid signal is suppressed on T2WIs, facilitating visualization of signal abnormalities associated with changes in the periventricular white matter (eg, as in multiple sclerosis)

18
Q

What is Diffusion weighted imaging

A

this sequence is the most sensitive for the detection of acute ischemic changes (eg, cerebrovascular accident). DWI can detect changes within minutes compared with potentially hours with other MRI methods

19
Q

What frequency is ultrasound energy

A

Ultrasound refers to sound waves with frequencies above the audible range. Electrical energy is converted into sound waves by means of a piezoelectric crystal

20
Q

What structures can be evaluated with Ultrasound

A
  • intraocular structures with media opacities
  • posterior sclera
  • extraocular muscles and the surrounding orbit
  • intraocular tumors
21
Q

Quantification of reflectivity on A-scan

A

Low 0–33%
Medium 34–66%
High 67–100%

22
Q

A-scan frequencies

A

Used for measuring axial length
uses frequencies between 8 and 12 MHz

23
Q

What is the relationship between reflectivity and homogeneity

A

The reflectivity within a tissue is inversely proportional to its homogeneity. The reflectivity within a tissue is inversely proportional to its homogeneity

24
Q

B-scan frequency

A

10Mhz commonly used with axial resolution of 100 micrometres

25
Q

What are the 3 types of B-scan

A

axial, transverse, and longitudinal

26
Q

How is an axial B-scan done

A

performed by placing the probe directly on the cornea with the patient looking straight ahead and the probe marker oriented vertically at 12 o’clock or horizontally with the probe marker oriented nasally. This allows visualization of the posterior pole and the optic nerve

27
Q

How is a transverse B-scan done

A

probe is placed on the sclera, avoiding image degradation from the anterior segment, and is oriented parallel to the limbus, providing a circumferential scan of the opposing retina ie, when imaging the nasal quadrant, the probe is placed on the temporal sclera with the patient adducting his or her eye

28
Q

What are the 4 transverse scans

A

superior, inferior, nasal, and temporal. nasal and temporal scans are known as the lateral transverse scans

29
Q

How is a longitudinal B-scan done

A

performed with the probe placed on the sclera, with the marker oriented perpendicular to the limbus

30
Q

Frequency of UBM (ultrasound biomicroscopy)

A

utilizes the highest frequency available in ophthalmic ultrasonography, usually 50 MHz with axial resolution of 37 μm and is used to evaluate the anterior segment of the eye

31
Q

How are UBM scans generated

A

by centering the probe at the limbus, with the marker oriented perpendicular to the limbus. The anterior chamber angle, iris, and ciliary body can be evaluated with this scan

32
Q

Ultrasound findings in Retinoblastoma

A

Widening of the ocular walls, extremely high acoustic reflectivity, shadowing effect, atypical findings possible

33
Q

Ultrasound findings in Congenital cataract

A

Increased reflectivity from the posterior lens surface, vitreous space empty, ocular walls normal