Principles of Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

Epithelium (Benign)

A

Adenoma and Papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Epithelium (Malignant/Cancer)

A

Adenocarcinoma and Papillary carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mesenchyme (Benign)

A

Lipoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mesenchyme (Malignant/Cancer)

A

Liposarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lymphocyte (Benign)

A

Does not exist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lymphocyte (Malignant/Cancer)

A

Lymphoma/Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Melanocyte (Benign)

A

Nevus (mole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Melanocyte (Malignant/Cancer)

A

Melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Alfatoxins

A
  • hepatocellular carcinoma

- derived from Aspergillus, which can contaminate stored rice and grains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Alkylating agents

A
  • leukemia/lymphoma
  • side effect of chemotherapy
  • many chemotherapy agents are myelosuppresive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Alcohol

A
  • squamous cell carcinoma of oropharynx and upper esophagus

- hepatocellular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Asbestos

A
  • lung carcinoma
  • mesothelioma
  • exposure to asbestos is more likely to lead to lung cancer than mesothelioma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Arsenic

A
  • squamous cell carcinoma of skin
  • lung cancer
  • angiosarcoma of liver
  • present in cigarette smoke
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cigarette smoke

A
  • carcinoma of oropharynx, esophagus, lung, kidney, bladder, and pancreas
  • most common carcinogen worldwide
  • polycyclic hydrocarbons are particularly carcinogenic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nitrosamines

A
  • stomach cancer
  • found in smoked foods
  • responsible for high rate of stomach carcinoma in Japan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Naphthylamine

A
  • urothelial carcinoma of bladder

- derived from cigarette smoke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Vinyl chloride

A
  • angiosarcoma of liver
  • occupational exposure
  • used to make polyvinyl chloride (PVC) for use in pipes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Nickel, chromium, baryllium, or silica

A
  • lung carcinoma

- occupational exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

EBV

A
  • oncogenic virus
  • nasopharyngeal carcinoma
  • Burkitt lymphoma
  • CNS lymphoma in AIDS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

HHV-8

A
  • oncogenic virus

- Kaposi sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

HBV and HCV

A
  • oncogenic virus

- hepatocellular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HTLV-1

A
  • oncogenic virus

- adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

High-risk HPV (e.g. subtypes 16, 18, 31, 33)

A
  • oncogenic virus
  • squamous cell carcinoma of vulva, vagina, anus, and cervix
  • adenocarcinoma of cervix
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ionizing Radiation (nuclear reactor accidents and radiotherapy)

A
  • AML
  • CML
  • papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
  • generates hydroxyl free radicals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Nonionizing Radiation
- basal cell carcinoma - squamous cell carcinoma - melanoma of skin - UVB sunlight is most common source - results in formation of pyrimidine dimers in DNA, which are normally excised by restriction endonucleases
26
PDGFB
- platelet-derived growth factor - mechanism: overexpression, autocrine loop - associated tumor: astrocytoma
27
ERBB2 (HER2/neu)
- epidermal growth factor receptor - mechanism: amplification - associated tumor: subset of breast carcinomas
28
RET
- neural growth factor receptor - mechanism: point mutation - associated tumor: MEN2A, MEN2B and sporadic medullary carcinoma of thyroid
29
KIT
- stem cell growth factor receptor - mechanism: point mutation - associated tumor: gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)
30
RAS gene family
- GTP-binding protein - mechanism: point mutation - associated tumor: carcinomas, melanoma, and lymphoma
31
ABL
- tyrosine kinase - mechanism: t(9;22) with BCR - associated tumor: CML and some types of ALL
32
c-MYC
- transcription factor - mechanism: t(8;14) involving IgH - associated tumor: Burkitt lymphoma
33
N-MYC
- transcription factor - mechanism: amplification - associated tumor: neuroblastoma
34
L-MYC
- transcription factor - mechanism: amplification - lung carcinoma (small cell)
35
CCND1 (cyclin D1)
- cyclin - mechanism: t(11;14) involving IgH - mantle cell lymphoma
36
CDK4
- cyclin-dependent kinase - mechanism: amplification - associated tumor: melanoma
37
p53
- regulates progression from G1 to S phase - DNA damage --> p53 slows the cell cycle and upregulates DNA repair enzymes - if DNA repair not possible --> induce apoptosis - p53 induces apoptosis by upregulating BAX, which disrupts Bcl2... this then causes cytochrome c to leak from mitochondria and thus activate apoptosis - both copies of the p53 gene must be knocked out for tumor formation - loss is seen in >50% of cancers - germline mutation results in Li-Fraumeni syndrome (2nd hit somatic), characterized by the propensity to develop multiple types of carcinomas and sarcomas
38
Rb
- regulates progression from G1 to S phase - "holds" the E2F transcription factor, which is necessary for transition to the S phase - E2F is released when Rb is phosphorylated by the cyclinD/cyclin-dependent kinase 4 (CDK4) complex - Rb mutation results in constitutively free E2F, allowing progression through the cell cycle and uncontrolled growth of cells - both copies of Rb gene must be knocked out for tumor formation - sporadic mutation (both hits are somatic) is characterized by unilateral retinoblastoma - germline mutation results in familial retinoblastoma (2nd hit is somatic), characterized by bilateral retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma
39
Bcl2
- prevent apoptosis in normal cells - promote apoptosis in mutated cells whose DNA cannot be repaired - normally stabilizes the mitochondrial membrane, blocking release of cytochrome c - disruption of Bcl2 allows cytochrome c to leave the mitochondria and activate apoptosis
40
Bcl2 and Follicular Lymphoma
- Bcl2 is overexpressed in follicular lymphoma - t(14,18) moves Bcl2 (chromosome 18) to the Ig heavy chain locus (chrom. 14), resulting in increased Bcl2 - mitochondrial membrane is further stabilized, prohibiting apoptosis - B cells that would normally undergo apoptosis during somatic hyper-mutation in the lymph node germinal center accumulate, leading to lymphoma
41
Telomerase and Tumor Development
- telomerase is necessary for cell immortality - normally, telomeres shorten with serial cell divisions, eventually resulting in cellular senescence - cancers often have upregulated telomerase, which preserves telomeres
42
Angiogenesis and Tumor Development
- necessary for tumor survival and growth | - FGF and VEGF (angiogenic factors) are commonly produced by tumor cells
43
Avoiding Immune Surveillance
- necessary for tumor survival - mutations often result in production of abnormal proteins, which are expressed on MHC class I - CD8+ T cells detect and destroy such mutated cells - tumor cells can evade immune surveillance by downregulating expression of MHC class I - immunodeficiency (both primary and secondary) increases the risk for cancer
44
Tumor Invasion and Spread
- epithelial tumor cells are normally attached to one another by cellular adhesion molecules (e.g. E-cadherin) - downregulation of E-cadherin leads to dissociation of attached cells - cells attach to laminin and destroy basement membrane (collagen type IV) via collagenase - cells attach to fibronectin in the extracellular matrix and spread locally - entrance into vascular or lymphatic spaces allows for metastasis (distant spread)
45
Routes of Metastasis (lymphatic spread)
- lymphatic spread is characteristic of carcinomas | - initial spread is to regional draining lymph nodes
46
Routes of Metastasis (hematogenous spread)
- hematogenous spread is characteristic of sarcomas and some carcinomas - renal cell carcinoma (often invades renal vein) - hepatocellular carcinoma (often invades hepatic vein) - follicular carcinoma of the thyroid - choriocarcinoma
47
Seeding
-seeding of body cavities is characteristic of ovarian carcinoma, which often involves the peritoneum
48
Clinical Features (Benign and Malignant Tumors)
- benign tumors tend to be slow growing, well circumscribed, distinct, and mobile - malignant tumors are usually rapid growing, poorly circumscribed, infiltrative, and fixed to surrounding tissues and local structures - biopsy or excision is generally required before a tumor can be classified as benign or malignant with certainty - some benign tumors can grow in a malignant-like fashion, and some malignant tumors can grow in a benign-like fashion
49
Histological Features (benign tumors)
- usually well differentiated - organized growth - uniform nuclei - low nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio - minimal mitotic activity - lack of invasion (of basement membrane or local tissue) - no metastatic potential
50
Histological Features (metastatic tumors)
- classically poorly differentiated (anaplastic) - disorganized growth (loss of polarity) - nuclear pleomorphism and hyperchomasia - high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio - high mitotic activity with atypical mitosis - invasion (through basement membrane or into local tissue) - metastatic potential is the hallmark of malignancy - benign tumors never metastasize - immunohistochemistry is used to characterize tumors that are difficult to classify on histology
51
Serum Tumor Markers
- proteins released by tumor into serum (e.g. PSA) - useful for screening, monitoring response to treatment, and monitoring recurrence - elevated levels require tissue biopsy for diagnosis of carcinoma (e.g. biopsy of prostate with elevated PSA)
52
Grading of Cancer
- microscopic assessment of differentiation (i.e. how much a cancer resembles the tissue in which it grows); takes into account architectural and nuclear features - well differentiated (low grade) resembles normal parent tissue - poorly differentiated (high grade) does not resemble parent tissue - important for determining prognosis; well-differentiated cancers have better prognosis than poorly-differentiated cancers
53
Staging of Cancer
- assessment of size and spread of a cancer - key prognostic factor; more important than grade - determined after final surgical resection of the tumor - utilizes TNM staging system - T: tumor (size and/or depth of invasion) - N: spread to regional lymph nodes; second most important prognostic factor - M: metastasis; single most important prognostic factor
54
Immunohistochemical Stain (keratin)
-epithelium
55
Immunohistochemical Stain (vimentin)
-mesenchyme
56
Immunohistochemical Stain (GFAP)
-neuroglia
57
Immunohistochemical Stain (desmin)
-muscle
58
Immunohistochemical Stain (neurofilament)
-neurons
59
Immunohistochemical Stain (PSA)
-prostatic epithelium
60
Immunohistochemical Stain (ER)
-breast epithelium
61
Immunohistochemical Stain (thyroglobulin)
-thyroid follicular cells
62
Immunohistochemical Stain (chromogranin)
-neuroendocrine cells (e.g. small cell carcinoma of lung and carcinoid tumors)
63
Immunohistochemical Stain (S-100)
-melanoma, Schwannoma and Langerhans cell histiocytes