Principles of Dietetics

Question 1

An example of a conditionally indispensable amino acid is:

A. Tryptophan
B. Tyrosine
C. Alanine
D. Leucine

Answer 1

B. Tyrosine

Conditionally indispensable amino acids are defined as requiring a dietary source when endogenous synthesis cannot meet metabolic need. The indispensable amino acids are arginine, cysteine, glutamine, glycine, proline, and tyrosine.

Question 2

The biologically active hormone form of vitamin D is

A. 7-dehydrocholesterol
B. 25-hydroxyvitamin D
C. D3
D. 1, 25-dihydroxyvitamin D

Answer 2

D. 1, 25-dihydroxyvitamin D

Vitamin D is considered to be devoid of direct biological activity. It must be first hydroxylated in the liver by a 25-hydroxylase and then in the kidney by a 1 alpha-hydroxylase, which is responsible for the synthesis of the active metabolite 1, 25-dihydroxyvitamin D.

Question 3

Which of the following includes energy-yielding substances?

A. Carbohydrates, triglycerides, protein
B. Alcohol, carbohydrates, triglycerides, protein
C. Vitamins, minerals, carbohydrates, triglycerides, protein
D. Carbohydrates, triglycerides, protein, vitamins, minerals, water

Answer 3

B. Alcohol, carbohydrates, triglycerides, protein

Carbohydrate, triglycerides, protein, and alcohol are all energy-yielding substances. Vitamins, minerals, and water do not provide energy.

Question 4

Which of the following breakfast meals contains approximately 60 grams of carbohydrate?

A. 2 slices of toast, 1 egg, 1 small orange, 1 cup milk
B. 2 slices of toast, 1 cup apple juice, 1 large banana
C. 1- 1/2 cups of oatmeal, 1/4 cup blueberries, 1 cup orange juice, 1/2 cup milk
D. 2 eggs, 1 slice bacon, 2 slices of toast, 1/2 cup orange juice

Answer 4

A. 2 slices of toast, 1 egg, 1 small orange, 1 cup milk

One exchange of starch, fruit, or milk each has about 15g carbohydrate.

Question 5

What is the upper limit of fat, in grams, that should be consumed by a healthy person requiring 2,500 kcal per day?

A. 875
B. 97
C. 218
D. 71

Answer 5

B. 97

Fat should be 35% or less of energy. 2,500 kcal x 0.35 = 875 kcal from fat; 875 kcal from fat ÷ 9 kcal/g = 97 g fat

Question 6

Which of the following foods does not contain carbohydrates?

A. Tortilla
B. Broccoli
C. Lentils
D. Eggs

Answer 6

D. Eggs

Only meat and foods from fat groups do not contain carbohydrates. Lentils contain protein and carbohydrate. Egg is from the meat group.

Question 7

A meal providing 1,200 kcal contains 13 grams of saturated fats, 10 grams of monounsaturated fats, and 27 grams of polyunsaturated fats. What is the percentage of energy supplied by the lipid?

A. 37
B. 10
C. 17
D. 25

Answer 7

A. 37

13 g saturated fats + 10 g monounsaturated fats + 27 g polyunsaturated fats = 50 g total fat
50 g total fat x 9 kcal per gram of fat = 450 kcal from fat
450 kcal from fat ÷ 1,200 total kcal = 0.375 or 37%

Question 8

Which of the following foods contains less than 20 kcal?

A. 1 Tbsp peanut butter
B. 1 Tbsp sunflower seeds
C. 1 Tbsp ketchup
D. 1 Tbsp reduced-fat mayonnaise

Answer 8

C. 1 Tbsp ketchup

1 Tbsp peanut butter contains 86 kcal
1 Tbsp sunflower seeds contains 157 kcal
1 Tbsp ketchup contains 16 kcal
1 Tbsp reduced-fat mayonnaise contains 48 kcal

Question 9

What term signifies an obligation to perform an assigned activity?

A. Authority
B. Responsibility
C. Accountability
D. Capability

Answer 9

B. Responsibility

Responsibility is the obligation to perform an assigned activity or see that someone else performs it. Authority is delegated from the top level to lower level management. Accountability is the state of being responsible for one’s self or to some organization. Capability is the mental or physical ability to perform a task.

Question 10

A calorie deficit of 500 kcal below estimated energy needs should result in the loss of:

A. 1/2 pound per week
B. 1 pound per week
C. 2 pounds per week
D. 2-1/2 pounds per week

Answer 10

B. 1 pound per week

3,500 kcal = 1 pound
3,500 kcal ÷ 500 kcal less per day = 7 days to lose 1 pound

Question 11

Purchasing locally grown produce, using permanent ware (plates, flatware, etc.), and reducing solid waste are practices that support a __________ program.

A. Hazard analysis and critical control points
B. Food safety
C. Sustainability
D. Risk Management

Answer 11

C. Sustainability

These are sustainable practices that promote waste reduction, energy/water conservation, and other forms of reduced environmental impact.

Question 12

To honor client autonomy in motivational interviewing, the food and nutrition professional __________.

A. identifies which foods the client should consume in small quantities.
B. encourages the client to choose which foods to eat.
C. gives the client sage advice regarding dietary changes.
D. accepts responsibility for the client’s success or failure in following the recommended diet.

Answer 12

B. encourages the client to choose which foods to eat.

Honoring client autonomy means that decisions are left to the client even thought the food and nutrition professional may have different preferences or opinions.

Question 13

When using the andragogy theory and strategy of learning, the nutrition professional should __________.

A. arrange for those close tot he clients to provide positive reinforcement.
B. serve as a role model, for example, by selecting nutrient-dense, lower-energy foods from a buffet.
C. carefully structure information about weight loss so that essential concepts are easy to identify.
D. assist clients in identifying weight loss strategies that could work for them.

Answer 13

D. assist clients in identifying weight loss strategies that could work for them.

One of the principles of andragogy is that adults need to be involved in the planning of learning and the teacher facilitates the learning and assists with identifying reinforcers.

Question 14

Management functions include which of the following?

A. Recruiting and screening
B. Hiring, orienting, and training
C. Supervising and evaluating
D. All of the above

Answer 14

D. All of the above

Management functions include all phases of labor management: recruiting, screening, hiring, orienting, training, supervision, and evaluation.

Question 15

At what levels do leptin and ghrelin promote excess food intake?

A. Low leptin, high ghrelin
B. High leptin, low ghrelin
C. Low leptin, low ghrelin
D. High leptin, high ghrelin

Answer 15

A. Low leptin, high ghrelin

Low leptin and high ghrelin promote excess food intake

Question 16

When baking muffins, which of the following is most likely to have a deeper brown crust?

A. Muffin made with baking powder and solid sugar
B. Muffin made with baking soda and solid sugar
C. Muffin made with baking soda, buttermilk, and solid sugar
D. Muffin made with baking powder and liquid sugar

Answer 16

B. Muffin made with baking soda and solid sugar

The Maillard reaction is most likely to occur in the presence of an alkali environment. Without the addition of an acid, the batter with baking soda and solid sugar will result in a deeper brown color compared with the other options listed.

Question 17

If a researcher creates a questionnaire so that extra emphasis is placed on certain questions, what type of errors likely will affect the findings?

A. Sampling errors
B. Measurement errors
C. Non-response errors
D. Errors of data distortion

Answer 17

B. Measurement errors

Measurement error will likely result. A questionnaire with emphasis on certain questions causes bias because the measuring device (questionnaire) was faulty and, therefore, less reliable. It would not result in a true measure of the situation.

Question 18

__________ is an essential amino acid.

A. Alanine
B. Histidine
C. Proline
D. Tyrosine

Answer 18

B. Histidine

Essential amino acids are: histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine.

Phenylalanine, Valine, Threonine
Tryptophan, Isoleucine, Methionine
Histidine, Leucine, Lysine

Question 19

If the dietetics professional presents new information to an adult orally, about how much of what is heard will be remembered after 2 weeks?

A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%

Answer 19

A. 20%

People remember 10% of what they read, 20% of what they hear, 30% of hat they see, 50% of what they hear and see, 70% of what they themselves say, and 90% of what they themselves say and do.

Question 20

What type of learning experiences should the dietetics professional provide in order to maximize the clients’ accomplishment of learning outcomes?

A. Multiple opportunities for asking questions and participating in a discussion
B. A field trip or tour that is relevant to the topic
C. A multimedia experience that is followed by a question and answer period
D. A role-play situation

Answer 20

D. A role-play situation

Learning setting that involve role play or simulation are remembered 90% of the time.

Question 21

CDR’s Essential Practice Competencies specify what every registered dietitian nutritionist should be able to do __________.

A. prior to beginning supervised practice.
B. before graduating from an accredited DPD.
C. when completing a supervised practice experience.
D. following completion of the first 3 years of professional experience.

Answer 21

C. when completing a supervised practice experience.

Individuals are expected to develop competence to practice dietetics through a supervised practice component in programs accredited or approved by ACEND. Competency statements specify what every registered dietitian nutritionist should be able to do at the beginning of his or her practice career. The core competency statements build on appropriate knowledge and skills necessary for the entry-level practitioner to perform reliably at the level indicated.

Question 22

If students describe themselves as kinesthetic learners, which of the following learning experiences would be best suited to them?

A. A lecture session that includes the opportunity to ask questions
B. A laboratory setting that includes “hands-on” experiences
C. A self-paced, computerized presentation of content
D. An audiotaped or televised presentation

Answer 22

B. A laboratory setting that includes “hand-on” experiences

Kinesthetic means touching, feeling, and experiencing the material at hand.

Question 23

Dietetics professionals may apply basic educational principles to program design. Which of the following is the best example of the application of consonance?

A. Even though the basics of a heart-healthy meal plan are being explained in a group setting, each participant is given the opportunity to have personal questions answered.
B. The successes that clients have had when following a reduced-sodium meal pattern are rewarded by the dietetics professional who gives away samples of salt-free seasoning packets.
C. The dietetics professional explains and demonstrates proper procedures for portioning hot entrees for the tray line.
D. The professional provides clients newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus a way of monitoring the progress they are making with regard to controlling blood sugar levels.

Answer 23

C. The dietetics professional explains and demonstrates proper procedures for portioning hot entrees for the tray line.

Consonance is the fit between the program and the expected outcomes based on the objectives.

Question 24

Which of the following foods is likely to be consumed by a lacto-vegetarian?

A. Scrambled eggs
B. Tuna fish salad
C. Hamburger
D. Grilled cheese sandwich

Answer 24

D. Grilled cheese sandwich

A lacto-vegetarian eats milk and dairy products but no meat, fish, poultry, or eggs.

Question 25

Which of the following symptoms often characterizes niacin deficiency?

A. Diarrhea
B. Dermatitis
C. Dementia
D. All of the above

Answer 25

D. All of the above

Symptoms of niacin deficiency include diarrhea, mental disorientation, and skin problems.

Question 26

Which of the following does not provide a significant source of vitamin D?

A. Egg yolk
B. Kale
C. Sardines
D. Fortified milk

Answer 26

B. Kale

Some of the sources of vitamin D include fortified milk, fish, egg yolk, and butter.

Question 27

What is the name of the substance that denatures protein in the stomach during digestion?

A. Chymotrypsin
B. Elastase
C. Pepsin
D. Hydrochloric acid

Answer 27

D. Hydrochloric acid

Hydrochloric acid is secreted by the stomach and is a major component of gastric juice. Gastric juice aids in the preparation of food for digestion.

Chymotrypsin is a pancreatic digestive enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of certain proteins in the small intestine into polypeptides and amino acids.

Elastase is an enzyme found especially in pancreatic juice that catalyzes the hydrolysis of elastin.

Pepsin is a digestive enzyme found in gastric juice that catalyzes the breakdown of protein to peptides.

Question 28

A patient presents with lesions on his gums and pinpoint hemorrhages on his skin. What vitamin is this patient most likely deficient in?

A. Thiamin
B. Magnesium
C. Vitamin C
D. Selenium

Answer 28

C. Vitamin C

Vitamin C helps keep your gums healthy, heal any cuts and wounds, and protect from bruising.

Thiamin may contribute to maintaining mental function and help regulate metabolism.

Magnesium signals muscles to relax and contract, may help maintain immune response, and promotes normal blood pressure.

Selenium aids cell growth and boosts immune function.

Question 29

Approximately how many servings of milk would a women 53 years of age need to consume to meet her RDA for calcium?

A. 2 cups
B. 3 cups
C. 4 cups
D. 5 cups

Answer 29

C. 4 cups

The RDA for women aged 51 and older is 1,200 mg calcium daily.
Milk has 300 mg calcium/cup and would require 4 cups to meet the RDA. Plain yogurt has 450 mg calcium/cup and would require 3 cups to meet the RDA.

Question 30

Which of the following amino acids is classified as a nonessential amino acid?

A. Valine
B. Lysine
C. Glycine
D. Threonine

Answer 30

C. Glycine

Essential amino acids are: histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine.

Question 31

Which of the following foods is the best source of omegan-3 fatty acids?

A. Olive oil
B. Shrimp
C. Avocado
D. Sardines

Answer 31

D. Sardines

Sources of omega-3 fatty acids include fatty fish, such as salmon, tuna, and halibut; some plants; and nut oils.

Question 32

Wheat does not contain enough lysine for humans to synthesize proteins from wheat alone. Thus, in wheat, lysine is considered to be a(n) __________.

A. incomplete protein
B. inadequate protein
C. nonessential protein
D. limiting amino acid

Answer 32

D. limiting amino acid

“Limiting amino acids” refers to essential amino acids in a food protein that fall short of meeting the amino acids required by humans. The limiting amino acids are determined by comparing the amount of amino acids in a gram of protein to the amount of amino acids per gram of protein required.

Question 33

Which might be added to some beverages as a natural stimulant?

A. Vanillin
B. Caramel
C. Sodium benzoate
D. Caffeine

Answer 33

D. Caffeine

Natural caffeine is used as food additive for making energy drinks, colas, and some other food items. It functions as a natural stimulant.

Question 34

Which nutrient are most susceptible to loss in foods?

A. Water-soluble vitamins
B. Fat-soluble vitamins
C. Carbohydrates
D. Proteins

Answer 34

A. Water-soluble vitamins

Water-soluble vitamins are the most susceptible to loss from foods because they migrate from the food to the cooking liquid.

Question 35

A research article describes the number of new and existing cases of obesity in the United States in 2001. This number represents the __________ of obesity.

A. prevalence
B. incidence
C. specificity
D. sensitivity

Answer 35

A. prevalence

Prevalence is a measure of existing numbers. In the case of this example, prevalence is the measure of new and existing obesity cases in 2001.

Question 36

Which of the following is a good indicator of central adiposity?

A. Hip circumference
B. Basal metabolic rate
C. Waist circumference
D. Body weight

Answer 36

C. Waist circumference

Central adiposity is the accumulation of fat in the lower torso around abdominal area.

Question 37

The oils that contain predominantly monounsaturated fatty acids include

A. sunflower oil and canola oil.
B. safflower oil and corn oil.
C. canola oil and olive oil.
D. soybean oil and olive oil.

Answer 37

C. canola oil and olive oil.

Monounsaturated fatty acids include vegetable oils such as olive oil, canola oil, peanut oil, sunflower oil, and sesame oil.

Safflower oil has 10.1 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon.
Olive oil has 9.8 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon.
Canola oil has 8.3 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon.
Sunflower oil has 7.7 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon.
Soybean oil has 5.8 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon.
Corn oil has 3.7 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon.

Question 38

After a meal, most of the fat that travels from the intestine into the lymph system and eventually into the blood is in the form of particles known as:

A. VLDLs
B. HDLs
C. LDLs
D. Chylomicrons

Answer 38

D. Chylomicrons

Chylomicrons are one of the microscopic particles of emulsified fat found in the blood and lymph system that are formed during the digestion of fats.

Question 39

Where does carbohydrate digestion begin?

A. Mouth
B. Stomach
C. Small intestine
D. Pancreas

Answer 39

A. Mouth

Digestion, or the breaking down of food into small molecules that will be absorbed into the bloodstream, begins when a person puts food in the mouth and begins to chew.

Question 40

Approximately how many grams of protein does one cup of raw vegetables contain?

A. 2 grams
B. 3 grams
C. 7 grams
D. 8 grams

Answer 40

A. 2 grams

1 cup raw vegetables has 5 g carbohydrate, 2 g protein, 0 g fat, and 25 kcal.

Question 41

Which set of directives best describes the management process?

A. Controlling, directing, transforming, planning, staffing
B. Planning, staffing, establishing objectives, organizing, directing
C. Planning, staffing, controlling, establishing objectives, transforming
D. Directing, controlling, organizing, staffing, planning

Answer 41

D. Directing, controlling, organizing, staffing, planning

The five management functions are planning, organizing, staffing, directing, and controlling.

Question 42

What name is given to the chronological sequence of activities to carry out organizational behavior?

A. Policy
B. Procedure
C. Method
D. Rule

Answer 42

B. Procedure

A procedure shows chronological sequence of activities.

A policy is a general guide to organizational behavior developed by top-level management. A method is even more detailed than a procedure and is related to only one step of a procedure. Rules specify action by stating what must or must not be done.

Question 43

Which flavor enhancer from seaweed might be included in a recipe to provide “umami”?

A. Monosodium glutamate
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Carrageenan
D. Calcium alginate

Answer 43

A. Monosodium glutamate

Umami is a savory taste that is enhanced by the addition of monosodium glutamate, which has no distinct flavor of its own.

Question 44

In order to be labeled as “pure” vanilla, the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) requires that it

A. be certified as an artificial flavor.
B. contains the small black flecks from the vanilla pod.
C. contains 35% alcohol by volume.
D. contains 200 ppm vanillin.

Answer 44

C. contains 35% alcohol by volume.

Pure vanilla extract is made by macerating and percolating vanilla beans in a solution of ethyl alcohol and water. The FDA requires that the solution contain a minimum of 35% alcohol and 13.35 oz vanilla bean per gallon.

Question 45

Which food is most likely to lose turgor?

A. Milk
B. Celery
C. Frozen peas
D. Broiled pork chops

Answer 45

B. Celery

Turgor is the normal distention or rigidity of plant cells, resulting from the pressure exerted by the cell contents on the cell walls. It would be present in celery.

Question 46

When preparing most vegetables for freezing, it is imperative that you blanch the vegetable first. The primary purpose of this process is to __________ and improve product __________.

A. kill harmful microorganisms, safety.
B. deactivate enzymes, safety.
C. deactivate enzymes, quality.
D. improve texture, palatability.

Answer 46

C. Blanching slows or stops the enzyme action. Enzymes help vegetables grow and mature. After maturation, however, the enzymes cause loss of quality, flavor, color, texture, and nutrients. While blanching will also help to preserve color, its primary purpose is to deactivate enzymes that degrade quality.

Question 47

When pickling foods, the level of brine acidity is critical not only for acceptable flavor and texture, but also for safety of the product. The appropriate acidity level of the vinegar used must be at least

A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%

Answer 47

B. 5%

White distilled and cider vinegars of 5% acidity (50 grain) are recommended for pickling. Vinegar with lower levels of acidity may not provide a high enough acid medium to inhibit unwanted microbial growth and higher levels of acidity may not result in a palatable product.

Question 48

Building an appropriate protein matrix is essential for achieving the proper quality features in baked goods. Increasing the amount of sugar in a recipe will have which of the following effects on gluten development and the mixing process?

A. Added sugar will speed gluten development and require more manipulation
B. Added sugar will slow gluten development and require more manipulation
C. Added sugar will speed gluten development and require less manipulation
D. Added sugar will slow gluten development and require less manipulation

Answer 48

B. Added sugar will slow gluten development and require more manipulation

When sugar is added to a dough or batter mixture, the sugar will compete with the starch for the water in the dough or batter. Reducing the amount of available water will slow gluten development and will increase mixing (manipulation) times for the dough or batter.

Question 49

Which of the following fats/oils have the highest smoke point, making it ideal for high heat cooking?

A. Peanut oil
B. Olive oil
C. Shortening
D. Safflower oil

Answer 49

D. Safflower oil

The smoke point in fats and oils is the temperature at which a fat or oil will begin to smoke. If heated beyond their smoke point, fats can reach their flash point and ignite. Monoglycerides have lower smoke points; diglycerides and triglycerides have higher smoke points. Of the fats/oil listed the smoke points are: safflower oil 513°F, peanut oil 453°F, olive oil 375°F, and shortening 356°F to 370°F.

Question 50

When added to gelatin, fruit containing which of the following substances will keep the gelatin from forming a gel?

A. Sucralose
B. Papain
C. Pectin
D. Sorbitol

Answer 50

B. Papain

Papain is a proteolytic enzyme found in papaya. These enzymes will split the long gelatin molecules into shorter molecules, halting the gelatin’s ability to form a gel.

Question 51

Freezing is both a simple and successful method of food preservation. To ensure high-quality results, it is recommended to keep salt content of prepared foods to a minimum. The reason for this is

A. freezing intensifies flavor and the food will take saltier when reheated.
B. salt accelerates rancidity of fats within the food.
C. salt increases the risk for microbial growth when foods are thawed.
D. salt accelerates the freezing process and reduces the shelf life of the food.

Answer 51

B. salt accelerates rancidity of fats within the food.

Adding salts to foods being frozen causes loss of flavor and has the tendency to increase rancidity of any item containing fat.

Question 52

Which is an example of chemical spoilage?

A. Acidic action of foods with metal-lined containers
B. Metal curls from a worn-out can opener that fall into the food when the can is being opened.
C. Development of an off-flavor due to uncontrolled enzyme reaction
D. Anasakis contamination from fish

Answer 52

A. Acidic action of foods with metal-lined containers

Chemical spoilage occurs in preserved foods, especially canned ones. It is usually the result of interaction between the contents and an imperfect container. There may be gas produced or discoloration of the tin.

Question 53

Achieving the appropriate aw level in dehydrated foods is crucial to ensure food safety and adequate shelf life. Most microorganisms grow well at an aw level of

A. 0.65 to 0.70.
B. 0.91 to 0.99.
C. 0.75 to 0.80.
D. 0.25 to 0.35.

Answer 53

B. 0.91 to 0.99.

The water activity (aw) level that limits the growth of the majority of pathogenic bacteria is 0.70 aw to 0.90 aw. The lower limit for all microorganisms is 0.60 aw.

Question 54

Which of the following is often added to fat-free chocolate milk as a stabilizer and thickener to improve mouthfeel?

A. Methylparaben
B. Lecithin
C. Carrageenan
D. Calcium silicate

Answer 54

C. Carrageenan

Carrageenan is used at very low concentrations to form an imperceptible, weak gel that prevents the large, dense particles of chocolate from sedimenting in fat-free chocolate milk.

Question 55

Which additive used in smoked and cured meats forms a color pigment that may oxidize to an undesirable yellow or greenish color when exposed to oxygen and light?

A. Sodium hydroxide
B. Propyl gallate
C. Potassium alginate
D. Sodium nitrate

Answer 55

D. Sodium nitrate

Sodium nitrate (NaNO3) is a food preservative used for meat. Nitrates are used in curing, which is a broad category of techniques for preserving foods, mainly met and fish, that involve the use of salt, sugar, or some form of dehydration. It may oxidize to a yellow or greenish color when exposed to oxygen and light.

Question 56

Which additive is in baking powder and reacts with the sodium bicarbonate to produce carbon dioxide gas?

A. Sodium aluminum sulfate
B. Sodium alginate
C. Sodium nitrite
D. Sodium propionate

Answer 56

A. Sodium aluminum sulfate

Baking powder usually consists of sodium bicarbonate and another salt such as sodium aluminum sulfate. The sodium bicarbonate releases carbon dioxide at low temperatures.