Principles Flashcards
Name the proteins which make up microtubules.
Alpha and Beta Tubulin
Name the membranes of the Golgi apparatus
Cisternae
What submembranous filaments do Adherant junctions and desmosomes bind to?
Adherant- Actin filaments (microfilaments)
Desmosomes- Intermediate filaments
Endocrine glands secrete material towards the _______ end of the cell into ____________
Basal end (apical in exocrine) Vascular system (ducts in endocrine)
Name the three types of Cartilage
Elastic, hyaline, fibrocartilage
name the connective tissue covering of the CNS and the PNS
Meninges- CNS
Epineurium- PNS
How many axons does a pseudounipolar neuron possess?
Two
Name the three main salivary glands
Parotid
submandibular
sublingual
Name the three layers of the heart from the external layer to the internal layer
epicardium
myocardium
endocardium
Term used to describe arteries that can connect to each other using a number of alternative blood flow routes
Anastamosis
What are end arteries?
Arteries which are the sole blood supply to a given territory (area of tissue supplied by an artery)
Name the first branches from the aorta
Right and left coronary arteries
What is the difference between feedforward and feedback?
Feedforward- a response is made in anticipation of a change
Feedback- Response made after change detected (either positive or negative)
What is the normal range of the pulse pressure in mm/Hg?
30-50mm/Hg
Carotid and Aortic _________ detect change in blood pressure
Baroreceptors
what is the normal range of the MAP?
70-105mm/Hg
How do you calculate the Cardiac output?
CO= Heart rate x stroke volume
During the body’s cold response skin arterioles ________.
Vasoconstirict
During the body’s fever response macrophages release _________ _________ which stimulate the release of ____________ from the hypothalmus.
Endogenous pyrogens
Prostaglandins
The tunica intima is separated from the tunica media by the what?
Internal elastic membrane
the major arteries possess their own blood supply called the what?
Vaso vasorum
When do capillaries become classified instead as venules?
When the vessels obtain intermittent smooth muscle
Neutophils possess a _______ nucleus and have a ___________ cytoplasm.
multilobed
granular
Basophils have a ______ nucleus which is hidden behind _______
bilobed
granules
Monocytes mature into __________
macrophages
Name the three types of capillaries
Continuous
Fenestrated
discontinuous
Name the three types of joint
Synovial
cartilaginous
fibrous
Axial skeleton consists of:
Bones of the: skull Neck Thorax abdomen Sacrum
Arteries that appear around joints are called what?
Periarticular arteries
Paralysis occurs when what neurones are damaged? does this increase or decrease muscle tone?
Motor neurones
decreased muscle tone
( with spasticity instead the descending controls are damaged and the muscles have increased tone)
What is muscle atrophy and hypertrophy?
Atrophy- cells become smaller
Hypertrophy-cells enlarge
Name the male and female gametes
Spermatozoa
Oocyte
Fertilisation normally occurs in the _______.
Ampulla
What is the name of a pregnancy that occurs outside of the uterine cavity?
Ectopic Pregnancy
Spermatozoa are produced in the __________ _______ within the testis
Seminiferous tubules
In a vasectomy what tube is cut?
Vas deferens
Name the three periods of in utero development and give their timescales
Conceptus/embryo period 0-3
embryonic period 3-8
fetal period 9-40
A morula consists of how many cells? what is the name of the developing fetus after this period
16+ cells
Blastocyst
what is an exergonic reaction?
can they occur spontaneously?
A reaction where the change in free energy is negative and the reaction can occur spontaneously.
what is a Coupling reaction?
One where an exergonic reaction is coupled with an endergonic reaction allowing it to occur spontaneously.
Name the carbon atom at the centre of an amino acid molecule
alpha carbon
What are zwitterions?
molecules which possess a permenant positive and negative charge
What structure does collagen have?
A triple helix which bind together to create superhelix
In which direction does DNA replication occur?
from the 5’ end to the 3’ end
RNA binds to the ________ region of the DNA strand which contains a _______ box using ________ protein.
promoter region
TATA box
TATA box binding protein
Name the three sites on a ribosome
aminoacyl
peptidal
exit site
what is a missense mutation?
A change in the amino acid sequence and therefore the protein produced.
what is an enzyme with a cofactor called?
apoenzyme
what are isozymes?
Isozymes are isoforms of enzymes which catalyse the same reactions but have different properties
what do protein kinases do?
They dephosphorylate ATP phosphorylate proteins.
what are zymogens?
precursors of enzymes which need modified to become active enzymes.
What is the Michaelis constant (Km)?
the substrate concentration when Vmax is at 50%
What proteins do DNA wrap around?
Histones
which is orthosteric? Competitive inhibitors or non-competitive inhibitors?
Competitive inhibitor
Do competitive inhibitors effect the Vmax or the Km?
They increase the Km but have no effect on the Vmax
Do non-competitive inhibitors effect the Vmax or the Km?
they decrease the Vmax
What is an acrocentric chromosome?
A chromosome with virtually no short arm.
What is a translocation?
The rearrangement of chromosome material
What is a robertsonian translocation?
Where two acrocentric chromosomes are fused end to end
Define mosaicism.
Where different cells within an individual have different genetic makeup
Define penetrance.
The likelihood that possessing a certain gene mutation shall result in disease
Define pharmacodynamics
The effect that a drug has on the body
Define pharmacokinetics
The effect the body has on a drug
What is the difference between an agonist and an antagonist
Agonist- bind to receptors and produce a cellular response
Antagonist- bind to same receptor as antagonist and inhibit cellular response
Define affinity and efficacy
Affinity- rate of agonist binding to receptors
efficacy- how effective the agonist is at producing a response
define autocrine, paracrine, endocrine.
all chemical signalling
autocrine-cell to cell
paracrine- to neighbouring cells
endocrine- to another cell/tissue through vascular system
Drugs are often weak acids/bases and exist in ionised/unionised forms. in which form are they most likely to pass through membranes?
unionised
Selectins and Integrins on Leukocytes allow them to bind to VCAMs and ICAMs. What does VCAM and ICAM stand for?
Vascular cell adhesion molecules
Intracellular adhesion molecules
What is chemotaxis?
The movement of cells along a chemotactic gradient
What are the four main clinical features of inflammation?
Rubor, calor, dolor, tumor
Define resolution
The total restoration of tissue to normal after damage
Define suppuration
the collection of pus- collection of dead and dying neutrophils, bacteria and fibrin
What is the main cell type involved in fibrosis?
Fibroblasts
define empyema
A space filled with pus
Define a granuloma
An aggregate of epithelioid histiocytes (effectively a wall of macrophages enclosing a substance).
Name the three types of necrosis
Coagulative
liquefactive
caseous
Define apoptosis
Programmed cell death- either pathological/physiological
what is the difference between incidence and prevelance?
incidence-number of new cases of a disease
prevelance- number of cases at the present time
What is the microscopic difference between Gram positive and gram negative bacteria?
Gram positive bacteria- single thick layer of peptidoglycan
Gram negative- outer and inner membrane with a periplasm containing a thin peptidoglycan layer
What is found on the surface of Gram negative bacteria but not on Gram positive bacteria?
Lipopolysaccharides
pili
Using the crystal violet stain Gram positive bacteria appear ________ while gram negative appear ________.
Violet
pink
What is a serotype?
A strain of a species of a pathogen.
What is virulence?
the capacity of a microorganism to cause disease
Do streptococci form clusters or chains of cocci?
Chains
Do staphlococci form clusters or chains of cocci?
Clusters
What classification of haemolytic bacteria are enterococci?
Gamma haemolytic
what test is used to identify streptococci?
Haemolysis
How do you differentiate between Staphlococcus aureus and staph epidermidis
S.aureus- coagulase positive
S.epidermidis-coagulase negative
name the administration routes of the following penicillins: Benzylpenicillin, phenoxymethyl penicillin, Benzathine penicillin
Benzylpenicillin- intravenous
phenoxymethyl- oral
benzathine- intramuscular
Name the three groups of cell wall antibiotics
Penicillins, cephalosporins, glycopeptides
What does the Beta-lactam ring resemble?
D-alanine which is part of the peptidoglycan structure
what is the advantage of Co-amoxiclav over amoxicilin?
the clavulanic acid inhibits beta-lactamases
Flucloxacillin is the firstline treatment for what pathogen?
Streptococci and staphlococci
Vancomycin is an example of what type of antibiotic? It is bactericidal against what type of bacteria?
glycopeptide
Gram positive bacteria
Gentamicin, Tetracycline and macrolides target what process in bacteria?
they target protein synthesis
Gentamicin is the main antibiotic against which bacteria?
Coliforms e.g. E.coli
which ribosomes do gentamicin and tetracyclines target?
30s ribosomes
Erythromycin is what type of antibiotic
Macrolides
DNA gyrases are targeted by what antibiotics?
Quinolones and fluoroquinalones
trimethroprim targets what?
Folic acid synthesis
what are PAMPs and PRRs?
Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns
Pattern Recognition Receptors
Macrophages and dendritic cells recognise _______ on the surface of pathogens and engulf them by ________. Debris (pathogen derived peptides) are expressed on _______ receptors.
PAMPs
Phagocytosis
MHC-II receptors
Name the three pathways of complement protein cleavage.
Classical pathway
Mannose binding lectin pathway
Alternative pathway
Complement proteins lead to the formation of what complex?
MAC (membrane attack complex)
Name the process by which Neutrophils pass through the vascular endothelium
Diapedesis
Which part of the antibody varies?
Antibodies vary in the variable binding region of the heavy chain
B/T cells enter lymph nodes by what vessels?
High Endothelial Venules
B cells divide within the ________ centre
Germinal
Initially plasma cells secrete _________ antibodies then ______ cells trigger them to produce _______ antibodies
IgM antibodies
T helper cells
IgG antibodies
Which antibody is found in the colostrum?
IgA
T cells only recognise peptides presented to them by ____ ___________ _________
Major Histocompatability Complex molecules (MHC)
MHC I present to ______ cells and MHC II cells present to ______ cells.
CD8+ cells
CD4+cells
Which T cells differentiate into Cytotoxic T cells?
CD8+ cells
Each stage of the cell cycle is dependent on ______ _______ ________.
Cyclin Dependent Kinases
The p53 checkpoint is located between which stages of the cell cycle?
Growth phase 1 and the synthesis stage
What is replicative senescence?
Where a cell is terminally differentiated and shall no longer proliferate
What is meant when it is said that cancers are heterogenous?
When cancers divide new genetic mutations are produced meaning different cancer cells possess different growth advantages
What is the difference between germline and somatic mutations?
Germline mutations are mutations of the gametes (inherited) whereas somatic mutations occur due to carcinogens (acquired).
Define epigenetics.
Changes in gene expression due to environmental factors.
Which process unwinds DNA allowing DNA replication? DNA acetylation or DNA methylation?
DNA Acetylation
Define metaplasia
The differentiation of one cell type to another mature cell type
What is the difference between Grading and staging?
Grading determines the appearance of the cancer cells (well differentiated or poorly differentiated) whereas staging determines the progression of the disease (tumour, node, metastasis).
Define carcinoma in-situ.
Where cell dysplasia effects the whole epithelium and is in the last stage before invasion ( penetrating the epithelium)
What is the ames test used to determine?
whether a compound is carcinogenic
Covering epithelial cancers are called what?
Carcinoma
Glandular epithelial cancers are called what?
Adenoma/ Adenocarcinoma
What is cachexia?
Extreme weight loss and muscle wasting (often due to cancer)
What does the prefix -sarcoma indicate?
that the cancer is malignant.
What is the difference between catabolism and anabolism?
Catabolism- breakdown of molecules yielding energy
Anabolism- assembly of molecules using energy
Place in order the four main compounds in the glycolysis process.
Glucose
Glucose bisphosphate
Glyceraldehyde phosphate
Pyruvate
What is the Warburg effect?
Cancer cells have a high glucose metabolism because they possess low Km hexokinase
NADH is derived from what vitamin?
Niacin
Where does the Link reaction and the Tricarboxylic acid cycle occur?
the mitochondrial matrix
Which enzyme is used in the metabolism of drugs?
Cytochrome P450
In which state are metabolites meaning they cannot be absorbed by the body?
they are polar.
Define Clearance
The volume of blood cleared of the drug per unit time
Doctors try to maintain drug concentrations at a Steady State. What is meant by the term Steady state?
where the rate of drug administration is equal to the rate of drug elimination
What is the difference between primary and secondary Active transport?
Primary- energy from ATP required to move against concentration gradient
Secondary- coupled with the transfer of an ion which provides the energy to move against concentration gradient
sodium ions are found in the __________ fluid and have _____ permeability.
Extracellular
Low
Potassium ions are found in the _________ fluid and have _______ permeability
Intracellular
High
What is the normal resting potential of a cell membrane?
-70mV
What is Depolarisation and Hyperpolarisation?
Depolarization- Becomes more positive
Hyperpolarization- becomes more negative
Sodium ion channels are opened _______ by depolarization whereas with Potassium ion channels opening is ________.
Rapidly
delayed
What is the difference between Absolute and Relative refractory period?
Absolute- all Na+ channels inactivated so cannot carry a second action potential
Relative- some Na+ channels inactivated so can carry a second action potential
Sympathetic neurones originate from the _________ outflow while Parasympathetic neurones originate from the __________ outflow
Thoracolumbar
Craniosacral
NANC transmission in sympathetic neurones involves ____ and __________ ___.
ATP
Neuropeptide Y
NANC transmission in Parasympathetic neurones uses ______ _____ and _______ _______ ________.
Nitric oxide
Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide
Sympathetic neurones possess __________ and _________ receptors. Parasympathetic possess ________ and ___________ receptors.
LGIC-cholinergic
GPCR-Adrenergic
LGIC-cholinergic
GPCR-cholinergic
Name the 5 sections of the spinal chord. Also state the number or spinal nerves in each section.
Cervical -8 (but only 7 cervical vertebrae)
thoracic -12
Lumbar -5
sacral -5
coccygeal -1 (But 4 coccygeal vertebrae fused to form the coccyx)
Name the formaina between the vertebrae
Intervertebral foramina
Name the largest foramin in the skull.
Foramin Magnum
Posterior and anterior ______ supply the dermatomes.
Rami
Efferent neurones move ________ from the CNS whereas Afferent move ________ the CNS
away
towards
