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First Year Dundee Medicine > Principles > Flashcards

Principles Flashcards

1
Q

Name the proteins which make up microtubules.

A

Alpha and Beta Tubulin

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2
Q

Name the membranes of the Golgi apparatus

A

Cisternae

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3
Q

What submembranous filaments do Adherant junctions and desmosomes bind to?

A

Adherant- Actin filaments (microfilaments)

Desmosomes- Intermediate filaments

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4
Q

Endocrine glands secrete material towards the _______ end of the cell into ____________

A 
Basal end (apical in exocrine)
Vascular system (ducts in endocrine)
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5
Q

Name the three types of Cartilage

A

Elastic, hyaline, fibrocartilage

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6
Q

name the connective tissue covering of the CNS and the PNS

A

Meninges- CNS

Epineurium- PNS

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7
Q

How many axons does a pseudounipolar neuron possess?

A

Two

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8
Q

Name the three main salivary glands

A

Parotid
submandibular
sublingual

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9
Q

Name the three layers of the heart from the external layer to the internal layer

A

epicardium
myocardium
endocardium

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10
Q

Term used to describe arteries that can connect to each other using a number of alternative blood flow routes

A

Anastamosis

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11
Q

What are end arteries?

A

Arteries which are the sole blood supply to a given territory (area of tissue supplied by an artery)

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12
Q

Name the first branches from the aorta

A

Right and left coronary arteries

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13
Q

What is the difference between feedforward and feedback?

A

Feedforward- a response is made in anticipation of a change

Feedback- Response made after change detected (either positive or negative)

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14
Q

What is the normal range of the pulse pressure in mm/Hg?

A

30-50mm/Hg

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15
Q

Carotid and Aortic _________ detect change in blood pressure

A

Baroreceptors

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16
Q

what is the normal range of the MAP?

A

70-105mm/Hg

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17
Q

How do you calculate the Cardiac output?

A

CO= Heart rate x stroke volume

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18
Q

During the body’s cold response skin arterioles ________.

A

Vasoconstirict

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19
Q

During the body’s fever response macrophages release _________ _________ which stimulate the release of ____________ from the hypothalmus.

A

Endogenous pyrogens

Prostaglandins

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20
Q

The tunica intima is separated from the tunica media by the what?

A

Internal elastic membrane

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21
Q

the major arteries possess their own blood supply called the what?

A

Vaso vasorum

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22
Q

When do capillaries become classified instead as venules?

A

When the vessels obtain intermittent smooth muscle

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23
Q

Neutophils possess a _______ nucleus and have a ___________ cytoplasm.

A

multilobed

granular

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24
Q

Basophils have a ______ nucleus which is hidden behind _______

A

bilobed

granules

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25
Q

Monocytes mature into __________

A

macrophages

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26
Q

Name the three types of capillaries

A

Continuous
Fenestrated
discontinuous

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27
Q

Name the three types of joint

A

Synovial
cartilaginous
fibrous

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28
Q

Axial skeleton consists of:

A 
Bones of the:
skull
Neck
Thorax
abdomen
Sacrum
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29
Q

Arteries that appear around joints are called what?

A

Periarticular arteries

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30
Q

Paralysis occurs when what neurones are damaged? does this increase or decrease muscle tone?

A

Motor neurones
decreased muscle tone
( with spasticity instead the descending controls are damaged and the muscles have increased tone)

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31
Q

What is muscle atrophy and hypertrophy?

A

Atrophy- cells become smaller

Hypertrophy-cells enlarge

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32
Q

Name the male and female gametes

A

Spermatozoa

Oocyte

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33
Q

Fertilisation normally occurs in the _______.

A

Ampulla

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34
Q

What is the name of a pregnancy that occurs outside of the uterine cavity?

A

Ectopic Pregnancy

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35
Q

Spermatozoa are produced in the __________ _______ within the testis

A

Seminiferous tubules

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36
Q

In a vasectomy what tube is cut?

A

Vas deferens

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37
Q

Name the three periods of in utero development and give their timescales

A

Conceptus/embryo period 0-3
embryonic period 3-8
fetal period 9-40

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38
Q

A morula consists of how many cells? what is the name of the developing fetus after this period

A

16+ cells

Blastocyst

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39
Q

what is an exergonic reaction?

can they occur spontaneously?

A

A reaction where the change in free energy is negative and the reaction can occur spontaneously.

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40
Q

what is a Coupling reaction?

A

One where an exergonic reaction is coupled with an endergonic reaction allowing it to occur spontaneously.

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41
Q

Name the carbon atom at the centre of an amino acid molecule

A

alpha carbon

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42
Q

What are zwitterions?

A

molecules which possess a permenant positive and negative charge

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43
Q

What structure does collagen have?

A

A triple helix which bind together to create superhelix

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44
Q

In which direction does DNA replication occur?

A

from the 5’ end to the 3’ end

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45
Q

RNA binds to the ________ region of the DNA strand which contains a _______ box using ________ protein.

A

promoter region
TATA box
TATA box binding protein

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46
Q

Name the three sites on a ribosome

A

aminoacyl
peptidal
exit site

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47
Q

what is a missense mutation?

A

A change in the amino acid sequence and therefore the protein produced.

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48
Q

what is an enzyme with a cofactor called?

A

apoenzyme

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49
Q

what are isozymes?

A

Isozymes are isoforms of enzymes which catalyse the same reactions but have different properties

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50
Q

what do protein kinases do?

A

They dephosphorylate ATP phosphorylate proteins.

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51
Q

what are zymogens?

A

precursors of enzymes which need modified to become active enzymes.

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52
Q

What is the Michaelis constant (Km)?

A

the substrate concentration when Vmax is at 50%

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53
Q

What proteins do DNA wrap around?

A

Histones

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54
Q

which is orthosteric? Competitive inhibitors or non-competitive inhibitors?

A

Competitive inhibitor

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55
Q

Do competitive inhibitors effect the Vmax or the Km?

A

They increase the Km but have no effect on the Vmax

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56
Q

Do non-competitive inhibitors effect the Vmax or the Km?

A

they decrease the Vmax

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57
Q

What is an acrocentric chromosome?

A

A chromosome with virtually no short arm.

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58
Q

What is a translocation?

A

The rearrangement of chromosome material

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59
Q

What is a robertsonian translocation?

A

Where two acrocentric chromosomes are fused end to end

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60
Q

Define mosaicism.

A

Where different cells within an individual have different genetic makeup

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61
Q

Define penetrance.

A

The likelihood that possessing a certain gene mutation shall result in disease

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62
Q

Define pharmacodynamics

A

The effect that a drug has on the body

63
Q

Define pharmacokinetics

A

The effect the body has on a drug

64
Q

What is the difference between an agonist and an antagonist

A

Agonist- bind to receptors and produce a cellular response

Antagonist- bind to same receptor as antagonist and inhibit cellular response

65
Q

Define affinity and efficacy

A

Affinity- rate of agonist binding to receptors

efficacy- how effective the agonist is at producing a response

66
Q

define autocrine, paracrine, endocrine.

A

all chemical signalling
autocrine-cell to cell
paracrine- to neighbouring cells
endocrine- to another cell/tissue through vascular system

67
Q

Drugs are often weak acids/bases and exist in ionised/unionised forms. in which form are they most likely to pass through membranes?

A

unionised

68
Q

Selectins and Integrins on Leukocytes allow them to bind to VCAMs and ICAMs. What does VCAM and ICAM stand for?

A

Vascular cell adhesion molecules

Intracellular adhesion molecules

69
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

The movement of cells along a chemotactic gradient

70
Q

What are the four main clinical features of inflammation?

A

Rubor, calor, dolor, tumor

71
Q

Define resolution

A

The total restoration of tissue to normal after damage

72
Q

Define suppuration

A

the collection of pus- collection of dead and dying neutrophils, bacteria and fibrin

73
Q

What is the main cell type involved in fibrosis?

A

Fibroblasts

74
Q

define empyema

A

A space filled with pus

75
Q

Define a granuloma

A

An aggregate of epithelioid histiocytes (effectively a wall of macrophages enclosing a substance).

76
Q

Name the three types of necrosis

A

Coagulative
liquefactive
caseous

77
Q

Define apoptosis

A

Programmed cell death- either pathological/physiological

78
Q

what is the difference between incidence and prevelance?

A

incidence-number of new cases of a disease

prevelance- number of cases at the present time

79
Q

What is the microscopic difference between Gram positive and gram negative bacteria?

A

Gram positive bacteria- single thick layer of peptidoglycan

Gram negative- outer and inner membrane with a periplasm containing a thin peptidoglycan layer

80
Q

What is found on the surface of Gram negative bacteria but not on Gram positive bacteria?

A

Lipopolysaccharides

pili

81
Q

Using the crystal violet stain Gram positive bacteria appear ________ while gram negative appear ________.

A

Violet

pink

82
Q

What is a serotype?

A

A strain of a species of a pathogen.

83
Q

What is virulence?

A

the capacity of a microorganism to cause disease

84
Q

Do streptococci form clusters or chains of cocci?

A

Chains

85
Q

Do staphlococci form clusters or chains of cocci?

A

Clusters

86
Q

What classification of haemolytic bacteria are enterococci?

A

Gamma haemolytic

87
Q

what test is used to identify streptococci?

A

Haemolysis

88
Q

How do you differentiate between Staphlococcus aureus and staph epidermidis

A

S.aureus- coagulase positive

S.epidermidis-coagulase negative

89
Q

name the administration routes of the following penicillins: Benzylpenicillin, phenoxymethyl penicillin, Benzathine penicillin

A

Benzylpenicillin- intravenous
phenoxymethyl- oral
benzathine- intramuscular

90
Q

Name the three groups of cell wall antibiotics

A

Penicillins, cephalosporins, glycopeptides

91
Q

What does the Beta-lactam ring resemble?

A

D-alanine which is part of the peptidoglycan structure

92
Q

what is the advantage of Co-amoxiclav over amoxicilin?

A

the clavulanic acid inhibits beta-lactamases

93
Q

Flucloxacillin is the firstline treatment for what pathogen?

A

Streptococci and staphlococci

94
Q

Vancomycin is an example of what type of antibiotic? It is bactericidal against what type of bacteria?

A

glycopeptide

Gram positive bacteria

95
Q

Gentamicin, Tetracycline and macrolides target what process in bacteria?

A

they target protein synthesis

96
Q

Gentamicin is the main antibiotic against which bacteria?

A

Coliforms e.g. E.coli

97
Q

which ribosomes do gentamicin and tetracyclines target?

A

30s ribosomes

98
Q

Erythromycin is what type of antibiotic

A

Macrolides

99
Q

DNA gyrases are targeted by what antibiotics?

A

Quinolones and fluoroquinalones

100
Q

trimethroprim targets what?

A

Folic acid synthesis

101
Q

what are PAMPs and PRRs?

A

Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns

Pattern Recognition Receptors

102
Q

Macrophages and dendritic cells recognise _______ on the surface of pathogens and engulf them by ________. Debris (pathogen derived peptides) are expressed on _______ receptors.

A

PAMPs
Phagocytosis
MHC-II receptors

103
Q

Name the three pathways of complement protein cleavage.

A

Classical pathway
Mannose binding lectin pathway
Alternative pathway

104
Q

Complement proteins lead to the formation of what complex?

A

MAC (membrane attack complex)

105
Q

Name the process by which Neutrophils pass through the vascular endothelium

A

Diapedesis

106
Q

Which part of the antibody varies?

A

Antibodies vary in the variable binding region of the heavy chain

107
Q

B/T cells enter lymph nodes by what vessels?

A

High Endothelial Venules

108
Q

B cells divide within the ________ centre

A

Germinal

109
Q

Initially plasma cells secrete _________ antibodies then ______ cells trigger them to produce _______ antibodies

A

IgM antibodies
T helper cells
IgG antibodies

110
Q

Which antibody is found in the colostrum?

A

IgA

111
Q

T cells only recognise peptides presented to them by ____ ___________ _________

A

Major Histocompatability Complex molecules (MHC)

112
Q

MHC I present to ______ cells and MHC II cells present to ______ cells.

A

CD8+ cells

CD4+cells

113
Q

Which T cells differentiate into Cytotoxic T cells?

A

CD8+ cells

114
Q

Each stage of the cell cycle is dependent on ______ _______ ________.

A

Cyclin Dependent Kinases

115
Q

The p53 checkpoint is located between which stages of the cell cycle?

A

Growth phase 1 and the synthesis stage

116
Q

What is replicative senescence?

A

Where a cell is terminally differentiated and shall no longer proliferate

117
Q

What is meant when it is said that cancers are heterogenous?

A

When cancers divide new genetic mutations are produced meaning different cancer cells possess different growth advantages

118
Q

What is the difference between germline and somatic mutations?

A

Germline mutations are mutations of the gametes (inherited) whereas somatic mutations occur due to carcinogens (acquired).

119
Q

Define epigenetics.

A

Changes in gene expression due to environmental factors.

120
Q

Which process unwinds DNA allowing DNA replication? DNA acetylation or DNA methylation?

A

DNA Acetylation

121
Q

Define metaplasia

A

The differentiation of one cell type to another mature cell type

122
Q

What is the difference between Grading and staging?

A

Grading determines the appearance of the cancer cells (well differentiated or poorly differentiated) whereas staging determines the progression of the disease (tumour, node, metastasis).

123
Q

Define carcinoma in-situ.

A

Where cell dysplasia effects the whole epithelium and is in the last stage before invasion ( penetrating the epithelium)

124
Q

What is the ames test used to determine?

A

whether a compound is carcinogenic

125
Q

Covering epithelial cancers are called what?

A

Carcinoma

126
Q

Glandular epithelial cancers are called what?

A

Adenoma/ Adenocarcinoma

127
Q

What is cachexia?

A

Extreme weight loss and muscle wasting (often due to cancer)

128
Q

What does the prefix -sarcoma indicate?

A

that the cancer is malignant.

129
Q

What is the difference between catabolism and anabolism?

A

Catabolism- breakdown of molecules yielding energy

Anabolism- assembly of molecules using energy

130
Q

Place in order the four main compounds in the glycolysis process.

A

Glucose
Glucose bisphosphate
Glyceraldehyde phosphate
Pyruvate

131
Q

What is the Warburg effect?

A

Cancer cells have a high glucose metabolism because they possess low Km hexokinase

132
Q

NADH is derived from what vitamin?

A

Niacin

133
Q

Where does the Link reaction and the Tricarboxylic acid cycle occur?

A

the mitochondrial matrix

134
Q

Which enzyme is used in the metabolism of drugs?

A

Cytochrome P450

135
Q

In which state are metabolites meaning they cannot be absorbed by the body?

A

they are polar.

136
Q

Define Clearance

A

The volume of blood cleared of the drug per unit time

137
Q

Doctors try to maintain drug concentrations at a Steady State. What is meant by the term Steady state?

A

where the rate of drug administration is equal to the rate of drug elimination

138
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary Active transport?

A

Primary- energy from ATP required to move against concentration gradient
Secondary- coupled with the transfer of an ion which provides the energy to move against concentration gradient

139
Q

sodium ions are found in the __________ fluid and have _____ permeability.

A

Extracellular

Low

140
Q

Potassium ions are found in the _________ fluid and have _______ permeability

A

Intracellular

High

141
Q

What is the normal resting potential of a cell membrane?

A

-70mV

142
Q

What is Depolarisation and Hyperpolarisation?

A

Depolarization- Becomes more positive

Hyperpolarization- becomes more negative

143
Q

Sodium ion channels are opened _______ by depolarization whereas with Potassium ion channels opening is ________.

A

Rapidly

delayed

144
Q

What is the difference between Absolute and Relative refractory period?

A

Absolute- all Na+ channels inactivated so cannot carry a second action potential
Relative- some Na+ channels inactivated so can carry a second action potential

145
Q

Sympathetic neurones originate from the _________ outflow while Parasympathetic neurones originate from the __________ outflow

A

Thoracolumbar

Craniosacral

146
Q

NANC transmission in sympathetic neurones involves ____ and __________ ___.

A

ATP

Neuropeptide Y

147
Q

NANC transmission in Parasympathetic neurones uses ______ _____ and _______ _______ ________.

A

Nitric oxide

Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide

148
Q

Sympathetic neurones possess __________ and _________ receptors. Parasympathetic possess ________ and ___________ receptors.

A

LGIC-cholinergic
GPCR-Adrenergic
LGIC-cholinergic
GPCR-cholinergic

149
Q

Name the 5 sections of the spinal chord. Also state the number or spinal nerves in each section.

A

Cervical -8 (but only 7 cervical vertebrae)
thoracic -12
Lumbar -5
sacral -5
coccygeal -1 (But 4 coccygeal vertebrae fused to form the coccyx)

150
Q

Name the formaina between the vertebrae

A

Intervertebral foramina

151
Q

Name the largest foramin in the skull.

A

Foramin Magnum

152
Q

Posterior and anterior ______ supply the dermatomes.

A

Rami

153
Q

Efferent neurones move ________ from the CNS whereas Afferent move ________ the CNS

A

away

towards

First Year Dundee Medicine (4 decks)

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