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first year revision > principles > Flashcards

principles Flashcards

1
Q

4 basic tissue types

A

epithelium, connective tissue, muscle, nervous tissue

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2
Q

description of the epithelium

A

cover inner surfaces of body
line hollow organs
form glands
non-vascular

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3
Q

functions of the epithelium

A

mechanical and chemical barrier
absorption and secretion
containment
locomotion

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4
Q

cell shapes of the epithelium

A

squamous: flatted
cuboidal: cube
columnar: tall and thin

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5
Q

name of epithelium with different number of layers

A

simple- one layer

stratified: two or more
pseudostratified: multiple layers

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6
Q

cell surface features of epithelium

A

prominent microvilli
cilia
keratinized

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7
Q

two types of glandular epithelia

A
  1. endocrine: product secreted towards basal(blood) end of cell: distributed by vascular system, ductless glands
  2. exocrine: product secreted towards apical(in lumen) end of cell: ducted glands
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8
Q

three types of connective tissue

A

soft connective tissue
hard connective tissue
blood and lymph

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9
Q

3 types of soft connective tissues

A

loose
dense regular if fibres aligned
dense irregular if fibres run in many direction

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10
Q

examples of soft connective tissue

A

tendons & ligaments(fibrous connective tissue)
mesentery
stroma of organs
dermis of skin

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11
Q

description of hard connective tissue

A

strong
flexible, compressible
semi-rigid

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12
Q

examples of hard connective tissue

A

bone and cartilage

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13
Q

3 types of cartilage

A

hyaline
elastic
fibrocartilage

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14
Q

description of muscle

A

generate force of contraction by movement of actin fibres over myosin fibres

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15
Q

3 types of muscle

A

smooth
skeletal
cardiac

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16
Q

description of smooth muscle

A

involuntary and non- striated

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17
Q

description of skeletal muscle

A

voluntary and striated, elongated and mutlinucleiated

located at the periphery, internal to cell membrane

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18
Q

description of cardiac muscle

A

intercalated discs

multiple intercellular junctions

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19
Q

loose vs dense connective tissue

A

loose: protein/collagen fibers with spaces
dense: protein/ collagen fibres that are tightly packed

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20
Q

layers of blood vessels

A 
tunica intima (endothelium/epithelium)
----internal elastic membrane 
tunica media (smooth muscle)
----external elastic membrane 
tunica externa
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21
Q

examples of hyaline cartilage

A

tracheal rings
costal cartilage
epiphyseal growth

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22
Q

Gametogenesis

A

oogenesis (oogonia-> secondary oocyte at meiosis 2)

spermatogenesis (spermatogonia->mature sperm cells)

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23
Q

Fertilization

A

sperm attach to ZP2 receptor in ampulla
membrane thickens
sperm receptors shred
zygote with 46 chromosome formed

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24
Q

describe the Cleavage phase of embryo development

A

zygote undergo mitosis to form morula

morula: 16 cell blastomere, hollow structure

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25
Q

blasulation

A

morula-> blastocytes
blastomere in morula differentiate into inner and outer cell mass
1. outer: trophoblast (cytotrophoblast, syncytiotorphoblast)
2. inner: embryo blast (bilmanar disc)

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26
Q

implantation when and where

A

Typically by day 6

On the posterior or anterior uterine wall

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27
Q

gastrulation

A

torphoblast-> attach to uterus (week 1), form connection w/ mom
bilaminar disc-> trilaminar disc (prim streak formed, week 3)

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28
Q

Gastrulation 1: what happens to trophoblast (placenta)

A

syncytiotrophoblast: proliferated out zena pellucida creating outer cytoplasm
(connect to maternal blood vessels for nutrient and oxygen)
cytotrophoblast: inner base lining

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29
Q

Gastrulation 2a. layers of the embryblast

A

amnioc acid
bilamnar disc (epiblast, hypoblast, week 2)
primitive yolk sac

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30
Q

Gastrulation 2b. what happens to epiblast layer/ cells

A

epiblast: prim streak: secrete FGF-R trigger SNAIL-1 inside epiblast cells causing it to detach
prim streak-> prim groove
epiblast-> amniotic ectoderm

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31
Q

Gastrulation 2c. how bilaminar disc becomes trilaminar

A

hypoblast-> endoderm: epiblast cells moved from groove, replacing hypoblast
epiblast cells fill space between endoderm and epiblast layer-> mesoderm

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32
Q

what does ectoderm form into

A

CNS/ spinal chord

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33
Q

what does mesoderm form into

A 
muscle skeleton structure
cardiac muscles (myocardium)
renal system
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34
Q

what does primitive endoderm form into

A

GI/organs/ visceral

thyroid, parathyroid, thymus

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35
Q

organogenesis

A

specialized cells in the 3 germ layers are formed-> organ

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36
Q

briefly explain the process occurring to leukocytes (esp neutrophils) after inflammation

A

inflammation-> increased intracellular fluid and blood flow-> margination -> adhesion-> diapedesis-> chemotaxis-> activation by TNF alpha & PAMP

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37
Q

explain margination in regards to leukocytes

A

leukocytes travelling along endothelial cells

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38
Q

explain adhesion in regards to leukocytes

A

leukocytes binding to adhesion molecules (selectins, ICAM-1) expressed by endothelial cells

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39
Q

explain diapedesis in regards to leukocytes

A

neutrophils migrating across endothelial on the intact walls of the capillary

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40
Q

explain chemotaxis in regards to leukocytes

A

leukocytes travelling to exact side of injury

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41
Q

what activates leukocytes at site of injury

A

TNF-alpha

PAMP

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42
Q

what happens to neutrophils when activated at site of injury

A

phagocytosis
degranulation
NETS

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43
Q

identify metaplasia vs hyperplasia vs dysplasia vs neoplasia

A

“Meta-” different (crudely).

Hyperplasia: refers to tissue growth as a result of cell proliferation.

Dysplasia: change resulting in abnormal proliferation of cells, and is malignant or pre-malignant.

Neoplasia: development of new cells.

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44
Q

where does simple columnar epithelium line

A

the intestines (replaced during Barretts)

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45
Q

where does simple cuboidal epithelium line

A

ducts and secretory portions of small glands and kidney tubules

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46
Q

where does pseudostratified columnar epithelium line

A

trachea and upper Respiratory tract

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47
Q

where does stratified squamous epithelium line

A

esophagus, mouth, vagina

areas subject to traction

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48
Q

where does transitional epithelium line

A

bladder, urethra, ureters

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49
Q

pharmodynamics vs pharmokinetics

A

pharmodynmics: drugs concentration and effect (what drugs does to body)
pharmokinetics: drug concentration and time (what body does to drugs)

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50
Q

four main concepts in pharmokinetics

A

absorption
distribution
metabolism
excretion

51
Q

define drug absorption

A

drug enters the body from its site of administration

52
Q

define drug distribution

A

drug leaves circulation and enters the perfused tissue

53
Q

define drug metabolism

A

tissue enzymes catalyse chemical conversion of a drug to a more polar form that is more readily excreted from the body

54
Q

define drug excretion

A

removing the drug from the body

55
Q

what is bioavalibility of drugs, what type has high availability?

A

extent/ rate at which the active drug or metabolite enters systemic circulation
IV form: 100%
PO form: <100% due to first pass effect

56
Q

what is first pass effect

A

presystemic metabolism of drug decreasing bioavalibity

drug-> intestines-> liver-> hepatocyte metabolism or. bile excretion

57
Q

define volume of distribution

A

theoretical volume occupied by a drug compared to plasma concentration

58
Q

equation for volume of distribution

A

Vd= amount of drug/ plasma concentration

59
Q

difference between low Vd and high Vd

A

low Vd: highly bound to plasma protein (large, charged drugs)
high Vd: highly distributed to tissue (small lipophylic drugs)

60
Q

define half life

A

time required to decrease plasma concentration of drugs in body by half

61
Q

half life difference between zero and first order elimination

A

zero: rate constant
first: rate is proportional to drug concentration, takes about 4-5 half life

62
Q

drug clearance formula

A

rate of elimination/ plasma concentration

63
Q

clearance vs half life effect on steady state

A

clearance effect magnitude/ concentration of steady state but half life effect time it takes to get to steady state

64
Q

half life/ T1/2 formula

A

depends on volume of distribution and clearance

T(1/2)= (0.7 x Vd) / clearance

65
Q

what is phase 1 of drug metabolism

A

right liver: Oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis
Makes a drug more polar, adds a chemically reactive group permitting conjugation

potentially toxic

66
Q

what is phase 2 of drug metabolism

A

left of liver: Conjugation

Adds an endogenous compound increasing polarity

67
Q

what are the four common types of receptors

A

ligand gated ion channels
G-protein coupled receptors
enzyme linked receptors
intracellular receptors

68
Q

describe ligand gated ion channels, with examples

A

ligand bind to site allowing flow to of ions
faster than carrier molecules
ie, Nicotinic ACh cholinergic receptors

69
Q

describe G-coupled protein receptors

A

ligand bind to receptor

activate intracellular G-protein to dissociate and bind to adenyl cyclase

70
Q

what are the conformational changes in G protein subunits once activated

A

inactive: alpha+ beta + gamma+ GDP
active: beta + gamma/ alpha + GTP dissociated and bind with adenyl cyclase

71
Q

what is the function of activated adenyl cyclase

A

convert ATP to cAMP (stimulates protein kinase A)

72
Q

what are the 3 types and functions of G proteins

A

Gs: stimulator G protein activating Adenyl cyclase (increase cAMP)
Gi: inhibitor G protein activating adenyl cyclase (decrease cAMP)
Gq: activates phospholipase pathway (PLC)

73
Q

what happens in activation of phospholipase pathway (PLC)

A

DAG (signalling)

IP3 (increase intracellular Ca2+)

74
Q

define enzyme linked receptor

A

hormone/ growth factor bind to 2 receptors of kinase (ATP-> ADP)
phosphorylated kinase: attracts protein to bind causing cellular response

kinase is usually tyrosine

75
Q

define intracellular receptors and examples

A

ligand needs to first cross membrane to bind to intracellular receptors
ie, thyroid and steroid hormones

76
Q

function of alpha 1 adrenergic receptors

A

vascular smooth muscle contraction

Gq

77
Q

function of alpha 2 adrenergic receptors

A

in brain stem and periphery inhibit sympathetic activity, lower blood pressure.
Gi

78
Q

function of beta 1 adrenergic receptors

A

increased heart rate

Gs

79
Q

function of beta 2 adrenergic receptors

A

smooth muscle dilation, bronchodilation
(could also increase heart rate)
Gs and Gi

80
Q

what is the plane

A

transverse/ axial plane

81
Q
A

coronal plane

82
Q
A

sagittal plane

83
Q

how does agonist + competitive antagonist effect potency

A

decrease potency, more [drug] needs to reach EC50

84
Q

potency vs efficacy

A

more potent= moving to the left of x axis
amount of drug needed to produce a given effect
more efficacy= moving up y axis
ability of a drug-receptor complex to produce a maximum functional response

85
Q

T12 level for aorta

A

coeliac trunk

86
Q

L3 level for aorta

A

inferior mesenteric artery

87
Q

L4 level for aorta

A

bifurcation of abdominal aorta (iliac arteries)

88
Q

antibiotics that inhibit cell wall formation

A

pepitodglycan cross-linking: penicillin, cephalosporins

peptidoglycan synthesis: glycopeptides (vancomycin)

89
Q

antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis/ act on ribosome

A

50s subunits: macrolides, clindamycin

30s: aminoglycosides, tetracyclines

90
Q

antibiotics that inhibits DNA synthesis

A

quinolones (ciprofloxacin)

91
Q

antibiotics that damage DNA

A

metronidazole

92
Q

antibiotics that inhibits RNA synthesis

A

rifampicin

93
Q

what begins G-protetin cycle

A

external signal binding to ligand

GDP bind to G protein subunits-> GTP bind to alpha and dissociates

94
Q

what ends G-protein cycle

A

hydrolysis of GTP back to GDP again at the alpha subunit

95
Q

components of the NEWS score

A 
resp rate, heart rate
O2 saturation 
systolic blood pressure 
temperature 
consciousness
96
Q

what are nicotinic cholinergic acetylcholine receptors

A

ligand gated ion channels at the start of postganglionic receptors for both parasymp and symp stimulations

97
Q

travel route of sympathetic vs parasympathetic

A

parasymp-> ACh Nicotinic-> ACh Muscarinic-> organ

symp-> ACh Nicotinic-> Norepinephrine alpha/Beta-> organ
symp-> ACh Nicotinic-> Norepinephrine-alpha / epin-Beta-> systemic release

98
Q

define sensitivity for screening and formula

A

proportion of people with the disease who are positive to the test
TP/(TP+FN)

99
Q

define specificity for screening and formula

A

proportion of disease-free people who are negative to the test
TN/ (TN+FP)

100
Q

define positive predicted value

A

people who have a disease other than the ones who have tested positive
TP/(TP+FP)

101
Q

define negative predicted value

A

people who don’t have the disease other than the ones who tested negative
TN/(TN+FN )

102
Q

hallmarks of cancer

A 
evading growth suppressors 
resting cell death
enabling replicative immortality 
sustaining proliferative signalling 
initiating angiogenesis 
avoiding immune destruction
103
Q

which cranial nerves only carry parasympathetic nerve fibres

A

cranial nerve 2, 7, 9, 10

104
Q

function of ER, rough vs smooth

A

rough: translate/ fold proteins, manufactor lysosomal enzymes
smooth: synthesize steroid, lipid

105
Q

function of golgi apparatus

A

modifies, sort, package molecules destined for cell secretion

106
Q

function of mitochondria

A

aerobic respiration, power house

107
Q

what is produced and used during glycolysis, and by which chemicals

A 
produced: 
4 ATP (phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase)
2 NADH (Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate)
used: 
2 ATP (hexokinase and phosphofructose kinase )

net gain: 2ATP

108
Q

function of nucleus

A

DNA maintenance
RNA transcription
RNA splicing

109
Q

function of nucleolus

A

ribosome production

110
Q

function of ribosomes

A

translation of RNA into proteins

111
Q

purpose for glycolysis

A

converting glucose into pyruvate

112
Q

4 steps before 6c glucose becomes two 3c triose phosphate

A

begin: glucose
1. passive facilitated diffusion GLUTs / Na+ glucose symptorter
2. hexokinase add phosphate group to glucose
3. glucose-6-p turns into fructose version through phosphohexose isomerase
4. phosphofrutocose kinase adds another phosphate
1/2end: fructose -1,6,-biphosphate

113
Q

4 steps from frutcose diphosphate to pyruvate (these four steps occurs twice)

A

begin: fructose-1,6-biphosphate
1. aldolase form 2x triose phosphate(3c+p)
2. GA3PDH ( also converts NAD+ to NADH ) adds phosphate making p-c,c,c-p
3. a phosphate is taken by phosphoglycerate kinase (ADP-> ATP) making phosphoglycerate
4. structural changes convert phosphoglycerate to pyruvate, pyruvate kinase also takes a phosphate converting (ADP->ATP)
end: pyruvate

114
Q

what occurs to pyruvate during anaerobic conditions

A

pyruvate is converted into lactic acid when NADH unloads on pyruvate and converted back to NAD+ through oxidation
high lactic acid= metabolic acidosis

115
Q

what are the 3 irreversible steps of glycolysis

A

hexokinase; phosphofructokinase; pyruvate kinase

116
Q

product of TCA cycle from each acteyl-coA

A

3 NADH +
2 CO2
1 FADH2
1 GTP

117
Q

where are the enzymes in TCA cycle located

A

All enzymes of the TCA cycle are located in the matrix, apart from succinate dehydrogenase which is integrated into the inner mitochondrial membrane

118
Q

describe the conversion of pyruvate into acetyl-CoA in the beginning to TCA cycle

A
  1. Catalysed by PDC

2. Allosterically regulated by phosphorylation

119
Q

how does TCA cycle end

A

One GTP formed and C4 recreated

120
Q

how does oxidative phosphorylation end

A

Flow of H+ back into the matrix through ATP synthases (following concentration gradient) phosphorylates ADP → ATP

121
Q

total product from glycolysis, TCA, oxidative phosphorylation

A

From 1 molecule of glucose

30-32 ATP molecules are produced

122
Q

what are defensins

A

cysteine rich cationic anti-microbial protein secreted by epithelial cells at mucosal surfaces

123
Q

4 c antibiotic

A

co-amoxiclav
cephalosporins
fluoroquinolones
clindamycin

124
Q

What is inside the femoral triangle

A

Femoral nerve, artery, vein

first year revision (5 decks)

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