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Y1 Principles > Principles > Flashcards

Principles Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the timeline of foetal development

A

1) Gametogenesis
2) Fertilisation
3) cleavage
4) gastrulation
5) formation of body plan
6) organogenesis

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2
Q

What is gametogenesis

A

Formation of gametes (egg/sperm)

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3
Q

Why does meiosis need to occur

A

To form haploids with half the amount of normal chromosomes so that when the gametes (haploids) join together, they would have a complete chromosome set instead of missing or having extra pairs

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4
Q

When does oogenesis begin

A

During foetal stage

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5
Q

When does oogenesis end

A

After menopause

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6
Q

The number of total oognoia during the female’s whole lifetime is determined

A

During foetal stage

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7
Q

Describe oogenesis

A

1) Primordial germ cell undergoes mitosis to form oogonia
2) oogonia forms primary oocytes
3) Primary oocyte stays dormant till puberty
4) Primary oocyte undergoes 1st meiotic division to form secondary oocyte
5) secondary oocyte undergoes 2nd meiotic division, forming definitive oocyte (haploid)

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8
Q

When does spermatogenesis occur

A

Begins at puberty and continues throughout life

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9
Q

Describe spermatogenesis

A

1) spermatogonia undergoes mitosis
2) one of the cell will be used to replenish spermatogonia the other undergoes mitosis
3) The cell that undergoes mitosis produces primary spermatocytes
4) Primary spermatocytes then undergoes meiosis to form secondary spermatocytes
5) secondary spermatocytes undergo 2nd meiosis -> spermatids
6) Spermatids undergo spermiogenesis to form spern

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10
Q

What happens to the fertilised egg after fusion of sperm and egg

A

Membrane thickens
Sperm receptors are shed

This prevents other sperm from entering

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11
Q

What is cleavage

A

Period of mitotic division to form blastomeres -> forms morula -> forms blastula

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12
Q

Feature of blastomere

A

There is no increase in overall size, the cells become smaller and smaller after each division

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13
Q

When does blastula form

A

When fluid filled blastoceal cavity forms

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14
Q

What happens to the cells in blastula

A

Separated into 2 groups

1) trophoblast: cells that form the placenta
2) Embryoblast: cells that form the embryo

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15
Q

What is gastrulation

A

The process by which 3 different layers are formed in the embryo

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16
Q

What are the 3 different layers formed in the embryo during gastrulation

A

Ectoderm
Mesoderm
Endoderm

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17
Q

Which layer in gastrulation is the outer layer of the embryo

A

Ectoderm

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18
Q

Which layer in the embryo during gastrulation is the inner layer

A

Endoderm

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19
Q

Ectoderm is used to form

A

Skin

Nervous tissue

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20
Q

Mesoderm is used to form

A 
Skeletal muscles
Dermis (middle layer of skin) 
Bone
Heart 
Urogenital system
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21
Q

What happens during formation of body plan

A

Embryonic folding occurs

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22
Q

When does gastrulation occur

A

Week 3

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23
Q

When does formation of body plan occur

A

17 days after fertilisation

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24
Q

What happens in organogenesis

A

The 3 germ layers forms organs as the cells undergo differentiation and become specialized

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25
Q

Where does fertilisation occur

A

Ampulla

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26
Q

What does the penetration of sperm into egg cell trigger

A

The secondary oocyte to undergo 2nd meiosis to form definitive haploid

Cortical granules in the oocyte to release contents to prevent further entry by other sperm cells

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27
Q

What is the layer that surrounds the blastomeres called

A

Zona pellucida

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28
Q

What is considered as morula

A

When there are more than 16 blastomeres

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29
Q

What is blastocyst hatching

A

Blastula hatches out of zona pellucida to allow increase in growth and implantation

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30
Q

Where does the blastula attach to after blastocyst hatching and how

A

Attaches to the posterior or anterior endometrium epithelium by trophoblasts

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31
Q

When does implantation of blastula occur

A

On day 6

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32
Q

What is corpus luteum

A

A temporary endocrine structure that releases progesterone hormone to maintain lining of uterus for implantation

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33
Q

Corpus luteum is developed from

A

Empty follicle (follicle ruptures to release oocyte)

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34
Q

Embryoblast separates into which 2 layer s

A

Epiblast

Hypoblast

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35
Q

Tophoblast separates into which 2 groups

A

Cytotrophoblast

syncytiotrophoblast

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36
Q

Function of syncytiotrophoblast

A

Allows implantation

Secrete hCG to stimulate corpus luteum to release progesterone

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37
Q

What closes the endometrium after implantation has been completed

A

Fibrin coagulum

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38
Q

What are the 2 cavities formed by the 2 layers of embryoblast

A

Primitive yolk sac

Amniotic cavity

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39
Q

Which embryoblast layer forms the primitive yolk sac

A

Hypoblast

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40
Q

What are lacunae

A

Vacuoles in syncytiotrophoblast layer which allows maternal blood to diffuse into the embryoblast

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41
Q

What structure eventually forms the umbilical cord

A

Connecting stalk

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42
Q

How is definitive yolk sac formed

A

When a second wave of hypoblast migrate

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43
Q

What is chorionic cavity and how does it form

A

Chorionic cavity is the cavity surrounding the embryo
It forms as extraembryonic mesoderm develops and degenerates around the bilamnar embryonic disc (epiblast and hypoblast layers)

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44
Q

When does primitive streak form

A

Day 15

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45
Q

What is primitive streak and where is it

A

Primitive streak is thickened epiblast that forms in midline at caudal end.

46
Q

Function of primitive streak

A

Release signaling molecules
Allows movement of epiblast cells to form the 3 germ layers
Determines body axes

47
Q

3 regions of mesoderm

A

Paraxial
Intermediate
Lateral

48
Q

Subregions of lateral mesoderm

A

Somatic layer

Visceral layer

49
Q

What is between the left and right mesoderm layers and what is its function

A

Notochord

Precursor of spinal cord

50
Q

Fate of visceral (lateral) mesoderm

A

Heart
Smooth muscle
Mesothelial covering organs

51
Q

Fate of somatic (lateral) mesoderm

A

Dermis (middle layer of skin)
Lining of body wall
parts of limbs

52
Q

Fate of paraxial mesoderm

A

Axial skeleton
Skeletal muscle
parts of dermis

53
Q

Fate of Intermediate mesoderm

A

Kidney and ureter

Gonads

54
Q

Fate of endoderm

A

Lining of the gut tube
Lining of resp. tract
lining of bladder and urethra

55
Q

What is flucloxacillin prescribed for

A

Cellulitis

Infective endocarditis caused by staphylococcus aureus

56
Q

Flucloxacillin is only used for which 2 bacteria

A

Staphylococcus

Streptococcus

57
Q

Examples of beta lactam antibiotics

A

Penicillin
Cephalosporins
Temocillin

58
Q

Examples of penicillin

A 
Amoxicillin
Penicillin 
Flucloxacillin
Co-amoxiclav 
Piperacillin / tazobactam
59
Q

Example of cephalosporin

A

Ceftriaxone

60
Q

Which penicillin is resistant to beta lactamase

A

Co-amoxiclav

Piperacillin / tazobactam

61
Q

Components of co-amoxiclav

A

Amoxicillin + clavulonic acid (beta lactamase inhibitor)

62
Q

Bacteriostatic antibiotics

A

Macrolides

Tetracyclines

63
Q

How does beta lactam antibiotics work

A

They have similar structure to D-Alanine D-Alanine so can irreversibly bind to PBP (penicillin binding proteins; transpeptidase)
This prevents cross links from forming between new chains formed during cell wall synthesis
Causes a hole in cell wall -> cell lysis

64
Q

Temocillin is only used against

A

Escherichia (e.g. e.coli)
Salmonella
Enterobacter

65
Q

Are cephalosporins narrow or broad spectrum antibiotics

A

Broad

66
Q

Why are cephalosporins not really used anymore

A

Because it is a broad spectrum antibiotic, it can wipe out a lot of bacteria in the gut, reducing competition for C.difficile which allows overgrowth of C.difficile, causing gastroenteritis

67
Q

Examples of glycopeptide antibiotics

A

Vancomycin

Teicoplanin

68
Q

Are glycopeptides beta lactam antibiotics

A

No

69
Q

Mechanism of action of glycopeptide

A

Binds to end of D-Alanine D-Alanine, prevents it from binding to PBP

70
Q

Mechanism of action of macrolides and tetracycline

A

Binds to 30s subunit of RNA (tetracycline) or 50s (macrolide), preventing protein synthesis

71
Q

Why are macrolides and tetracycline bacteriostatic

A

Because protein synthesis can resume after these drugs have been removed

72
Q

Examples of macrolides

A

Clarithromycin

Erythromycin

73
Q

Example of tetracycline

A

Doxycycline

74
Q

Example of aminoglycosides

A

Gentamicin

75
Q

Are aminoglycosides bacteriocidal or bacteriostatic

A

Bacteriocidal

76
Q

Antibiotics that interfere with protein synthesis

A

Macrolide
Tetracycline
Aminoglycoside

77
Q

Effect of high serum level of gentamicin

A

kidney and renal damage (gentamicin toxicity)
A cause of unconjugated hepatic jaundice
CN VIII damage (vestibulocochlear nerve - transmits sound)

78
Q

Where are macrolides excreted

A

Via the liver

79
Q

Tetracycline should not be used in

A

Infants / children / pregnant women

80
Q

Antibiotics that affect the nucleic acids

A

Metronidazole
Rifampicin
Fluoroquinolone

81
Q

What does rifampicin inhibit

A

transcription

82
Q

What does metronidazole cause

A

Loss of helical structure of DNA and strand breakage in DNA

83
Q

How is metronidazole activated

A

Reduction activation by obligate anaerobes

84
Q

Side effect of metronidazole

A

Metallic taste

furred tongue

85
Q

IgA is found in

A 
breast milk
Saliva
Tears 
Sweat
Mucous
86
Q

What is holoenzyme

A

Apoenzyme + cofactors

87
Q

What is apoenzyme

A

An enzyme that requires a cofactor but is not bound by one

88
Q

Immunoglobin responsible for neonatal immunity

A

IgA

89
Q

Immunoglobin responsible for foetal immunity

A

IgG

90
Q

How is IgG transferred to foetus

A

Across the placenta directly into foetal blood circulation

91
Q

Which immunoglobin is the first Ig produced during a humoral immune response

A

Pentameric form IgM

92
Q

2 forms of IgM

A

Monomeric

Pentameric

93
Q

Where is monomeric IgM found

A

on B cells, acting as B cell antigen receptor

94
Q

Most abundant immunoglobin found in blood

A

IgG

95
Q

Which immunoglobin mediates type 1 hypersensitivity

A

IgE

96
Q

Which immunoglobin is dominant in secondary immune response

A

IgG

97
Q

Which immune cells are responsible for killing worms

A

Eosinophils

Mast cells

98
Q

Which immune cells are responsible for killing virus

A

T lymphocytes

B lymphocytes

99
Q

Which immune cells are responsible for killing protozoa

A

T lymphocytes

Eosinophils

100
Q

Which immune cells are responsible for killing fungi

A

phagocytes
T lymphocytes
eosinophils

101
Q

Which immune cell has kidney bean shaped nucleus

A

Monocytes (precursors of macrophages)

102
Q

Which immune cell has irregular shaped nucleus

A

Neutrophil

103
Q

Immune cells that have granules in cytoplasm

A

Neutrophil
Mast cells
Eosinophils
Basophils

104
Q

Which immune cells do not have granules

A

Monocytes

Lymphocytes

105
Q

Which immune cell has bilobed nucleus

A

Basophil

Eosinophil

106
Q

Which immune cell has the highest proportion of total WCC

A

Neutrophils

107
Q

How to differentiate between eosinophil and basophil

A

Both have bilobed nucleus but the bilobed nucleus of basophils is masked by granules

108
Q

Where are MHC class II molecules found

A

Macrophage
Dendritic
B lymphocytes

109
Q

Transendothelial migration

A

1) margination - neutrophils fall out of axial flow of blood due to slower blood flow so neutrophils move towards the periphery (next to endothelium)
2) Pavementing - Neutrophils bind to the endothelial wall by adhesion molecules and flatten against the wall
3) Rolling - neutrophils roll along the endothelium
4) Diapedesis - migration of neutrophils across the endothelium
5) neutrophils move to site of infection via chemotaxis

110
Q

What are the changes to blood flow and vasculature during inflammation

A

Vasodilation -> increases blood flow

Blood flow slows

111
Q

What are the changes in blood flow and vasculature during inflammation

A

Vasodilation - increases blood flow

Blood flow slows down

Y1 Principles (1 decks)

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