Primary FRCA Course Physics Exam Prep Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The following statements apply to equations of lines and curves:

The line y = 3 - 2x meets the y-axis at y = - 3

A

False. It is at y = 3. It meets the y-axis when x = 0, and feeding this into the equation gives y = 3 - 2(0) = 3.

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2
Q

The following statements apply to equations of lines and curves

In the parabola y = 4x2 + 1, y is always positive

A

True. Since x2 is always positive (or zero), y = 4x2 + 1 will always be positive.

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3
Q

The following statements apply to equations of lines and curves

The parabola y = 4x2 + 3 cuts the y-axis at x = 3

A

False. It cuts the y-axis at y = 3, which is the point at which x = 0. See Question A.

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4
Q

The following statements apply to equations of lines and curves

An example of a rectangular hyperbola is Pressure x Volume = constant

A

True. Rectangular hyperbola are drawn when xy = 1

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5
Q

The following statements apply to equations of lines and curves

If y = 2x + 3, then x = (y - 3)/2

A

True. y = 2x + 3, therefore y - 3 = 2x and (y - 3)/2 = x.

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6
Q

More questions on mathematics

A minimum point on a curve y = f(x) is defined by dy/dx = 0

A

True. At both maximum and minimum points, the slope of the curve is 0.

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7
Q

More questions on mathematics

The value of e in y = ex depends on the units used to measure x

A

False. e is a mathematical constant (approximate value 2.71828) and doesn’t change.

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8
Q

More questions on mathematics

The calculation of cardiac output from a thermodilution curve is an application of differentiation

A

False. It is an example of integration

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9
Q

More questions on mathematics

A picofarad is 10-9 Farad

A

False. It is 10^-12

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10
Q

More questions on mathematics
For the exponential function C = Cmax.e^-kt, the time constant (tau) = 0.693/k

A

False. This is the expression for the half-life (t1/2). The time constant (tau) = 1/k.

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11
Q

The following statements apply to units of physical quantities

Velocity is rate of change of distance in m/s^2

A

False. m/s

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12
Q

The following statements apply to units of physical quantities

Force = mass x acceleration

A

True. Newton’s second law of motion

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13
Q

The following statements apply to units of physical quantities

Energy = force x velocity

A

False. Energy = force x distance

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14
Q

The following statements apply to units of physical quantities

Units of work are Joules

A

True

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15
Q

The following statements apply to units of physical quantities

Electrical current I = charge Q x time

A

False. Q = I x t

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16
Q

This question is about pressure

Pressure = force x area

A

False. P = F/A

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17
Q

This question is about pressure

Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure

A

True.

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18
Q

This question is about pressure

Atmospheric pressure at sea level is 1.013 x 10^3 bar

A

False. It is 1.013 bar, or 1.013 x 10^5 N/m^2

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19
Q

This question is about pressure

The Pascal is the unit of pressure

A

True.

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20
Q

This question is about pressure

10 m water pressure is equivalent to 760 mmHg

A

True. They are both the value of atmospheric pressure at sea level. 10 m H2O = 1000 cm H2O.

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21
Q

In considering energy and work

Frictional losses mean that kinetic energy recovered is always less than the original potential energy

A

True

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22
Q

In considering energy and work

The units of energy are N/m

A

False. N.m

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23
Q

In considering energy and work

The kinetic energy contained in 2 kg object moving at a velocity of 4 m/sec is 32 J

A

False.

KE = 1/2mv2 = 16 J

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24
Q

In considering energy and work

The work done in compressing a ventilator bellows of cross sectional area A, through a pressure differential P through a displacement d is Pd/A

A

False. P.A.d

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25
Q

In considering energy and work

The work done in compressing a gas between two pressures and two volumes is proportional to the slope of the P-V curve between those two points

A

False. Area under P-V curve

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26
Q

This question is about heat exchange

Units of heat energy are Joules

A

True. Heat is a form of energy, so the units are those of energy

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27
Q

This question is about heat exchange

When a substance changes state it does so without changing its temperature

A

True. The change of state requires energy, latent heat, without any temperature change, in contrast to energy changes with no change of state

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28
Q

This question is about heat exchange

Condensation is the main form of heat loss in patients

A

False. it is radiation.

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29
Q

This question is about heat exchange

Temperature ˚K = ˚C + 273

A

True. eg 1˚C = 274 ˚K

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30
Q

This question is about heat exchange

The triple point of water occurs at 1 bar pressure and 273.16 K

A

False. It occurs at 0.006 bar and 273.16 K.

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31
Q

More questions on heat and temperature

In adiabatic energy exchange in a gas, the temperature remains constant

A

False. No temperature change is an isothermal process; adiabatic implies no heat supplied or lost.

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32
Q

More questions on heat and temperature

There is a span of 212˚ Fahrenheit between the ice point and boiling points of water.

A

False. Ice point at 32˚F, boiling point at 212˚ F, span 180˚ F.

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33
Q

More questions on heat and temperature

The critical temperature of water is 273.16 ˚C

A

False. It is 364.1˚C

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34
Q

More questions on heat and temperature

Water boils at a temperature which depends on ambient pressure

A

True. As boiling occurs when SVP = ambient pressure.

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35
Q

More questions on heat and temperature

Compression of a gas with work W raises its heat energy content by Q where Q=W

A

False. Second law of thermodynamics suggests Q. A simple statement of the law is that heat always flows spontaneously from hotter to colder regions of matter (or ‘downhill’ in terms of the temperature gradient).

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36
Q

In gases

V directly proportional to T is Charles’ Law

A

True

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37
Q

In gases

The Pressure-Temperature curve for a perfect gas crosses the Temp axis at 273.16˚K

A

False. This occurs at 0˚K [-273˚C].

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38
Q

In gases

Boyle’s Law written as P.V = nRT represents an isothermal energy change

A

True.

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39
Q

In gases

P1 V1 = P2 V2 is a form of Gay-Lussac’s law

A

False. It is a form of Boyle’s law.

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40
Q

In gases

P.Vy = nRT, where y = ratio of specific heat capacities at constant P and at constant V, represents an adiabatic energy change.

A

True. Adiabatic implies a process or condition in which heat does not enter or leave the system concerned.

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41
Q

More on gases

The critical temperature for oxygen is -180˚C

A

False. It is -116˚C

42
Q

More on gases

The kinetic theory of gases takes account of forces of attraction between neighbouring molecules

A

False. It assumes perfectly elastic collisions between molecules.

43
Q

More on gases

A vapour is a substance above its critical temperature

A

False. A substance above its critical temperature can be considered a gas.

44
Q

More on gases

Nitrous oxide can exist as a liquid in temperate climates.

A

True. Its critical temperature is 36.40C

45
Q

More on gases

The critical pressure of a gas is the pressure required to liquefy it above its critical temperature

A

False. A gas must be below its critical temperature to liquefy it.

46
Q

In vapours

Saturated vapour pressure (SVP) is proportional to ambient pressure

A

False. SVP is related to temperature and not pressure

47
Q

In vapours

Boiling of a liquid occurs when SVP = ambient pressure

A

True.

48
Q

In vapours

In an uncompensated vaporiser the output falls with continued use

A

True. Vaporisation requires energy which is drawn from the liquid itself, whose temperature therefore falls.

49
Q

In vapours

The output from a vaporiser at altitude decreases

A

False. The output increases.

50
Q

In vapours

The high SVP of Desflurane makes it a potent agent

A

False. Potency is related to lipid solubility.

51
Q

In considering humidity

Absolute humidity is measured in mg/L

A

True.

52
Q

In considering humidity

Air at 100% humidity carries 47 mg H2O/L

A

False. 44 mg/ml.

53
Q

In considering humidity

Relative humidity is the amount of water carried by a gas sample at temperature T compared to how much it can carry at room temperature

A

False. Relative humidity is amount of water actually carried at temp T compared to the max it could carry at T.

54
Q

In considering humidity

A fall in ambient temperature produces condensation because the air carries more water vapour

A

False. Condensation produced because it carries less water vapour

55
Q

In considering humidity

Fully saturated air at 21˚C has a saturated vapour pressure of 6.3 kPa.

A

False. 2.5 kPa. It is 6.3kPa at body temperature.

56
Q

The following question concerns aspects of partial pressure of gases and vapours and diffusion

If the output from a vaporiser changes due to a change of ambient P it does not need recalibrating because the partial pressure of the volatile from the vaporiser is unchanged

A

True. It is the partial pressure of the agent which is pharmacologically important. If the pressure halves, the amount vaporised will double. This will mean that the partial pressure remains constant.

57
Q

The following question concerns aspects of partial pressure of gases and vapours and diffusion

The partial pressure in the alveolus of nitrous oxide at 50% concentration in a gas mixture is about 70 kPa

A

False. It is about 50% of 101 kPa ie approximately 50kPa

58
Q

The following question concerns aspects of partial pressure of gases and vapours and diffusion

The law by which we may calculate partial pressures from fractional concentrations is Henry’s law

A

False. This is Dalton’s law

59
Q

The following question concerns aspects of partial pressure of gases and vapours and diffusion

Diffusion hypoxia is due to the partial pressure difference of nitrogen between the alveolus and the blood

A

False. While this partial pressure difference plays its part, the real cause of diffusion hypoxia is due to the difference in solubility in plasma between nitrogen and nitrous oxide.

60
Q

The following question concerns aspects of partial pressure of gases and vapours and diffusion

Graham’s law of diffusion states that, for a given partial pressure difference, the rate of diffusion of a substance is inversely proportional to the square root of density

A

True.

61
Q

In considering osmotic pressure

Equimolar solutions of sodium chloride and glucose exert similar osmotic pressure

A

False. Since NaCl dissociates into two osmotically active particles, it exerts twice the osmotic pressure of glucose

62
Q

In considering osmotic pressure

One mole of any substance in 22.4 L water exerts an osmotic pressure of 1 bar

A

True.

63
Q

In considering osmotic pressure

The addition of a solute to a solvent lowers its freezing point

A

True.

64
Q

In considering osmotic pressure

The addition of a solute to a solvent lowers its SVP in relation to its osmotic pressure

A

True.

65
Q

In considering osmotic pressure

The most osmotically active component in plasma are Na+ and Cl -ions

A

False. These cross capillary walls easily and do not act osmotically; albumin stays in the capillaries and exerts significant osmotic pressure.

66
Q

In fluid mechanics

Laminar flow is the most efficient form of fluid transport

A

True. Less energy lost in eddies and noise.

67
Q

In fluid mechanics

Laminar flow is more likely in viscous fluids

A

True. Increased viscosity reduces Reynolds’ number.

Re = ρuL / η

where:
ρ = density
u = flow velocity
L = length
η = viscosity

68
Q

In fluid mechanics

For a given pressure drop, the flowrate in a pipe is more likely to increase if the diameter is doubled than if the length is halved

A

True. The Hagen-Poiseuille equation shows a fourth power relationship to diameter but a linear relationship to length

69
Q

In fluid mechanics

Turbulent flow is less likely in fluids of high density

A

False. Reynolds number shows a direct relationship with density, and as Re increases, so does the likelihood of turbulence

70
Q

In fluid mechanics

A venturi device can be used to measure flow rate

A

True.

71
Q

In a simple electric circuit

Voltage drop is proportional to current flowing

A

True. This is Ohm’s law

72
Q

In a simple electric circuit

In a series circuit, currents add together

A

False. The same current flows all through the circuit, the voltage drops across different elements varies

73
Q

In a simple electric circuit

In a parallel circuit, the total equivalent resistance of the circuit is the sum of all component resistances

A

False. The inverse of the total resistance is the sum of the inverse component resistances.

74
Q

In a simple electric circuit

Bridge circuits are used to amplify currents

A

False. Bridge circuits are used primarily to improve accuracy of current outputs when the inputs might be distorted.

75
Q

In a simple electric circuit

In AC the voltage alternates between + 240V and - 240V

A

False. 240 V is the root mean square value; peak to peak is + 340 V to - 340 V

76
Q

In circuits containing capacitors

In DC, the current initially flows then stops

A

True. A capacitor transmits current across the gap between its plates only when current is changing

77
Q

In circuits containing capacitors

In a circuit containing a R and a C, the characteristic time constant =R.C

A
78
Q

In circuits containing capacitors

Current is proportional to rate of change of voltage

A

True. i = C x dV/dt. Once the capacitor is fully charged, the rate of change of voltage is now zero, so the current flowing will also be zero.

79
Q

In circuits containing capacitors

Current increases with frequency

A

True.

80
Q

In circuits containing capacitors

A capacitor is used to store charge e.g. in a defibrillator

A

True.

81
Q

With regard to inductors

The magnetic field induced in a coil induces a voltage which increases the driving voltage drop the coil.

A

False. The induced voltage opposes the driving voltage.

82
Q

With regard to inductors

The time constant of a circuit containing L and R = L.R

A

False. L/R

83
Q

With regard to inductors

Voltage is proportional to rate of change of current

A

True. V = L x di/dt

84
Q

With regard to inductors

Current is proportional to frequency

A

False. Voltage proportional to frequency.

85
Q

With regard to inductors

In a transformer voltage change between primary and secondary windings is proportional to the windings ratio

A

True. V1/V2 = N1/N2

86
Q

Regarding lasers:

Laser light is incoherent

A

False. It is coherent.

87
Q

Regarding lasers:

Laser safety glasses should be marked with the wavelength and optical density for a specific type of laser

A

True.

88
Q

Regarding lasers:

Laser safety glasses need only be worn by the operator

A

False. Should be worn by all those in the theatre.

89
Q

Regarding lasers:

Helium Neon lasers are infra-red

A

False. It is a red light with a wavelength of 632.8 nm.

90
Q

Regarding lasers:

CO2 laser light can be delivered by a fibre optic cable

A

False.

91
Q

More on lasers:

Laser light is monochromatic

A

True.

92
Q

More on lasers:

A Nd YAG laser is used to coagulate tissue

A

True.

93
Q

More on lasers:

LASER stands for Light Attenuation by Stimulated Emission of Radiation

A

Light AMPLIFICATION by stimulated emission of radiation

94
Q

More on lasers:

All lasers in medical use produce light with wavelengths between 400 and 700 nm

A

False. Many have wavelengths above the visible light spectrum. CO2 lasers for example have wavelengths over 10,000 nm.

95
Q

More on lasers:

Fibre optic cables exploit total internal refraction to transmit light from one end to the other

A

False. Total internal REFLECTION.

96
Q

In operational amplifiers

They are designed to have a high output resistance

A

False. A high input resistance.

97
Q

In operational amplifiers

A high common mode rejection ratio means that all but the smallest input currents are rejected

A

False. High CMRR means a rejection at the input of all signals common to both inputs of a differential input.

98
Q

In operational amplifiers

Can be linked to appropriate R and C components to give suitable bandwidth

A

True.

99
Q

In operational amplifiers

Can be used with single or double inputs

A

False. Single inputs mean the output is prone to noise. The whole point of a op-amp is to use double input to cancel out noise (ie the voltage arriving at both inputs) and amplify what’s left.

100
Q

In operational amplifiers

Similar op-amp circuitry can be used for ECG, EEG and EMG

A

False. These all have different amplitudes and frequencies.