Primary Care Flashcards

0
Q

What is the palmar system?

A

Primary teeth= a-e

Permenant teeth= 1-8

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1
Q

How many teeth are in the primary dentition?

A
  1. 2 incisors, one canine and 2 molars
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2
Q

What is the FDI system?

A

Permanent teeth= 1-8
Primary teeth=1-5
Quadrants numbered 1-8
First 4 are permanent quadrants

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3
Q

What are primary eruption dates?

A
6-9 months= lower then upper As
7-10 months= lower then upper bs 
12-16 months= all ds
16-20 months= lower then upper cs
23-30 months= lower the. Upper es
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4
Q

What is the occlusion at birth?

A

Gum pads occlude distally
Anterior oval opening to allow suckling
Fleshy labial frenum

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5
Q

What is the 6-10 month occlusion?

A

Maxillary incisors erupt labially to the mandibular incisors

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6
Q

What is the 36 months/3 year occlusion?

A
Primary dentition is complete
Incisors vertical and spaced
Deep over bite
Anthropoid spaces mesial to maxillary canine and distal to mandibular canine 
Flush terminal plane
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7
Q

What is the occlusion at 6 years?

A

Overbite decreases
Spaces of anteriors
Attrition of incisors

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8
Q

What are the eruption dates of the permanent dentition

A
6-7 years= lower 6s and 1s, then upper 6s, the upper 1s
7-8= lower 2s
8-9= upper 2s
9-11= lower 3s
10-12=all 4s then all 5s
11-12= upper 3s
11-13= all 7s
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9
Q

What is the mixed dentition occlusion of a 6 year old?

A

Eruption of first permanent molars
Mesial migration of primary molars
Anthropoid spaces close
Permanent molars in class 1 or half class 2 relationship

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10
Q

Occlusion of 7-8 year old?

A

Maxillary incisors erupt spaced and more proclaimed the there primary predecessors
Maxillary lateral incisors are often distally inclined
Maxillary incisors labial to mandibular

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11
Q

What is leeway space?

A

The difference between the combined mesiodistal width of the primary canines and molars, and the permanent canines and premolars

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12
Q

How big is the maxillary arch?

A

1.5mm

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13
Q

How big is the mandibular arch?

A

2.5mm due to larger 2nd molars

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14
Q

Describe the 9-12 year occlusion

A
Primary canines and molars are exfoliated
Permanent molars drift into leeway space and form class 1 occlusion
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15
Q

When can we palpate the upper canines?

A

At 10 years old

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16
Q

Describe the 11-12 year occlusion

A

The Incisal spacing reduces as the maxillary canines erupt

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17
Q

Describe the 11-13 permanent occlusion

A

All primary teeth have exfoliated
First permanent molars I class 1
Second permanent molars erupting

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18
Q

What are the potential consequences of loosing primary teeth early?

A

Delayed or accelerated eruption of the successor

Space loss and crowding in the permanent arch

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19
Q

Should teeth erupt out of sequence?

A

Eruption dates may vary, but sequence should not
A tooth may not erupt at the same time as it’s contralateral counterpart, but you should not be suspicious until a tooth has still not erupted 6 months after it’s counter part

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20
Q

What were the conclusions of the child dental health survey?

A

Overall improvements in decay seen in permanent teeth
No significant reduction in decay experienced in primary teeth
Clear regional differences with no change

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21
Q

What are the high risk categories?

A
Medical history 
Dietary habits 
Clinical evidence
Social history 
Use of fluoride
Plaque control
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22
Q

What are the medical factors of caries risk?

A

Medically compromised
Physical disability
Xeristomia
Long term cariogenic medicine

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23
Q

What are dietary factors of caries risk?

A

Frequent sugar intake

Intake between meals

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24
Q

What clinical signs help determine caries risk?

A
New various lesions 
Premature extractions
Anterior caries/restorations 
Multiple restorations 
No fissure sealants 
Fixed orth
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25
Q

What social signs help determine caries risk?

A
Social deprivation 
High caries in family
Low knowledge of dental disease
Irregular attendance 
Readily available snacks
Low dental aspirations
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26
Q

What fluoride factors help determine caries risk?

A

Fluoridated water
No toothpaste/un fluoridated
No fluoride supplements

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27
Q

What plaque control factors which help determine caries risk?

A

Infrequent or ineffective cleaning

Poor manual control

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28
Q

Prevention strategies of caries

A
Diet
Fluoride
Fissure sealants
Ohi 
Prevention of maternal transmission of s.mutans 
Cpp-acp
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29
Q

What is ecc?

A

Early childhood caries
dmft in primary dentition before 71 months
Commonly seen due to bottle feeding. Lower anterior teeth spared

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30
Q

What are the causes of ecc?

A

Frequent consumption of sugary drinks in a bottle
Longer period of exposure to cariogenic substance
Low salivary flow at night
Parental history of untreated caries

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31
Q

What are the characteristics of ecc?

A

Rampant caries effecting the maxillary anteriors
Lesions appear later on posterior teeth
Canine usually less affected due to later eruption

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32
Q

What are the consequences of ecc?

A

Higher risk of new carious lesions
Increased treatment cost and time
Risk for delayed physical growth and development
Loss of school days and increased days with restricted activity
Diminished oral health related to quality of life
Hospitalisation and a and e appointment risks

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33
Q

How do we try to prevent ecc?

A

Reduce parent and siblings strep mutants levels to decrease over all transmission
Minimise saliva sharing activities
Implement oral hygiene measures
Avoid high frequency consumption of foods contains sugar
Encourage infants to drink a cup by 1 year

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34
Q

How do we manage ecc?

A
Cessation of habit 
Dietary advise 
Fluoride application 
Build up of restorable teeth
Extractions if required 
Appropriate advise, no blame
Possible treatment under GA
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35
Q

How do we know if we have successfully managed ecc?

A
Has the bottle stopped
Have oh practises changed
No progression of the disease
No new lesions
Caries shows signs of arresting
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36
Q

What is the purpose of a caries risk assessment?

A

Helps us treat the risk not the outcome of the disease
Individual selects frequency of protective and restorative treatment
Anticipates progression and stabilisation

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37
Q

Why do we do prevention based on risk?

A

Because decay is unevenly distributed within a population

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38
Q

What are the none fluoride prevention methods?

A
Diet modification
Oho and dental earth education 
Fissure sealants 
Sugar free medicine 
Chewing gum 
Chlorhexadine
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39
Q

What did the coma report 1989 say?

A

Caries is positively related to frequency and amount of non milk extrinsic sugar consumption
Recommended:
Consumption of nmes should be reduced and replaced by fruit, vegetables and starchy food

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40
Q

What is the daily recommended sugar intake according to delivering better oral health?

A

10% of daily energy intake
Less than 60g per day for adults
Less than 33g per day for young children

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41
Q

What did the vipeholm study show?

A

Positive correlation between caries and sugar intake

More frequent sugar intake not at meal times leads to increased caries

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42
Q

What was the message of the hope wood house study?

A

Children ha massively reduced levels of decay compared to the rest of the population due to strict sugar controlled diet
When they left the house and no longer eat the provided diet, levels of decay massively increases

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43
Q

Will toothbrushing help prevent dental decay?

A

Little evidence to support that tooth brushing alone will prevent caries
However, use of fluoride toothpaste is of benefit

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44
Q

What do the cochranne collaboration say about fissure sealants in children and adolescents?

A

Recommended in the occlusal surface of permanent molars
Effectiveness is evident at high caries risk
78% less caries in permanent molar teeth with resin based sealer after 2 years and 60% less after 4 years
Some evidence that sealing is better than fluoride varnishes

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45
Q

Who do we fissure seal?

A

Children and young people with:
Impairments
Caries in primary teeth

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46
Q

Where can we fissure seal?

A

First permanent molars
Palatal pits of permanent lateral incisors
Second permanent molars and premolars
Primary posterior teeth in children at high risk of caries
Teeth must be erupted enough for good moisture control

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47
Q

How do we etch for fissure sealants?

A

With 30-40% phosphoric acid for 20-40 seconds

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48
Q

What materials can we use to fissure seal?

A

Resin
GIC
Compomer
Fluoride contains sealants

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49
Q

Can chewing gum prevent caries?

A

Xylitol and sorbitol have anti caries properties through saliva stimulation.
Xylitol is more effective than sorbitol
Should encourage patient use
According to sign 47

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50
Q

What does sign 47 say about chlorhexidine?

A

Can be used prophylactic in the form of rinse, gel or pasteand can achieve a substantial reduction in caries
Can also consider chlorhexidine varnish as prevention

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51
Q

What do cochrane say about fluoridated milk?

A

Insufficient evidence

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52
Q

What do cochrane say about topical fluoride?

A

Used in addition to fluoride toothpaste show a modest reduction in caries compared to fluoride toothpaste alone

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53
Q

What prevention should we consider for all children?

A

Diet diary and sugar reducing advise
Fissure sealants for first permanent molars
Evaluation of fluoride sources
Twice daily toothbrushing, supervised under sevens

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55
Q

What toothpaste should 3+ children be using?

A

1350-1500 ppm, a pea sized amount

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56
Q

What should we be doing for all high risk children?

A

1350-1500 ppm toothpaste
Duraphat varnish 3-4 times yearly
Also add ether mouthwash or prescribed higher fluoride toothpaste

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57
Q

How do we prescribe high fluoride toothpaste?

A

10+ 2800 ppm

16+ 5000 ppm

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58
Q

What mouthwash can we give children able to rinse and spit (6+)?

A

Sodium fluoride mouth was daily 10ml= 0.05%

Sodium fluoride mouthwash weekly 10ml= 0.2%

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59
Q

What are the benefits of water fluoridation?

A

1ppm
50% overall reduction in caries. Particularly on interproximal and smooth surfaces
30% reduction in pits and fissure
Minimum amounts of mottling

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60
Q

How does fluoride work?

A

Low concentrations of fluoride in the saliva
Creation of fluorapatite crystals instead of hydroxyapatite
Reduces critical ph from 5.5 to 3.5
Resistance to acid dissolution
Reduces demineralisation
Predominant effect is topical

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61
Q

What’s in our fluoride toolkit?

A
Toothpaste
Mouthwash
Varnish 
Drops
Tablets
Gel
Foam
Glass beads
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62
Q

What did cochrane say about toothpaste?

A

Fluoride toothpastes are effective at preventing caries
Benefit only shown at 1000ppm and above
Dose response relationship
Potential for fluorosis i under 12

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63
Q

What did cochrane say about fluoride supplements?

A

Reduction in caries increment when compared to no supplement in permanent teeth
Effect unclear on primary teeth
Evidence overall is weak

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64
Q

When should we not use duraphat topical varnish?

A

Ulcerative gingivitis
Stomatitis
History of hospital admissions due to allergy, including asthma

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65
Q

What do cochrane say about topical fluoride varnish?

A

When used twice yearly:
DFMT prevented 46%
dmft prevented 33%

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66
Q

What is a toxic dose of fluoride?

A

Approx 1mg F/kg body weight causes gi upset

32-64 mg F/kg causes lethal poisoning

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67
Q

What happens with to much fluoride?

A

Blocks cell metabolism
Interferes with calcium metabolism
Nerve impulses and conduction

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68
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of fluoride over dose?

A

Nausea/vomiting/diarrhoea
Excessive salvation/tears/mucus/sweat
Headache
Generalised weakness

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69
Q

How do we deal with a fluoride overdoes?

A

Get a clear history
Check dose of fluoride against packet and see how much is left
Support vital signs
Management depends on dose. 5mg/kg+ send to a and e
As much milk as possible

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70
Q

What do we do with 5-15mg/kg overdose?

A

Send to a and e
Observe, support vitals, milk
Gastric lavage

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71
Q

What do we do with +15mg/kg over dose?

A

Send to a and e
Calcium gluconate Iv
Activated charcoal 1g/kg ever 4 hours and gastric lavage
Life support and cardiac monitoring

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72
Q

What is the mechanism of fluorosis?

A

Affect on enamel maturation by impairing mineral mineral acquisition
Greatest risk for centrals at 15-30 months
Coronal development completed at 6 years

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73
Q

How do we prevent fluorosis and overdoes?

A
Good history
Examine packaging carefully
Aim for topical not systemic 
Avoid critical age 0-6 
Targeted use 
Good education for parents
Prescribe maximum of 120mg of supplements at a time
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74
Q

Describe the anatomy of primary molars?

A
Thin, uniform thickness enamel 
Smaller crowns with marked constrictions
Narrow occlusal table
Broad contact areas
Large pulps 
Large mesio buccal horn
Thin pulpal floor 
Early radicular pulp involvement
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75
Q

What are the implication of primary molar anatomy on restorative dentistry?

A

Rapid caries progression
Short clinical crown makes matrix bands difficult
Need to restore broad contact point
Thin enamel with less tooth structure protecting the pulp
Mesio buccal pulp horn easily exposed
Long flared roots make pulp extinct difficult

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76
Q

Is ionisation radiation risk greater I’m children?

A

Yes. Below 10 the risk is 3x higher. Therefore radiation should be alarp

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77
Q

What is the first choice radiograph in children with both deciduous or mixed dentition?

A

Intra-orals

Oblique laterals and dpts may be needed in some situations

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78
Q

Do radiographs in children improve diagnostic yield?

A

Yes. 2-8x more than clinical examination alone

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79
Q

What are the radiographic recommendations for high caries risk children?

A

6 monthly bitewings until no new active lesions are apparent and the individual has entered another category

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80
Q

What are the radiographic guidelines for a moderate caries risk child?

A

Annual bitewings

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81
Q

What are the radiographic guidelines for a low caries risk child?

A

Bitewings every 12-18 months in the primary dentition and every 2 years in the permanent. More extended intervals can be used if there is explicit evidence of low risk

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82
Q

What percentage of children have radiographs with there GA referral?

A

10-12%

100% need them

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92
Q

What toothpaste should 0-3 year olds be using?

A

1000 ppm, a smear

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93
Q

What are the limitations of radiographs in children?

A

Cooperation issues
Anatomical difficulties: narrow arch, shallow palate
Occlusal caries may not be visible
May have overlap

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94
Q

What size film should be used I under 10s?

A

Size zero

With a tab not holder in under 7s

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95
Q

What is the distribution of disease in 5year olds?

A

70% have caries free dentition
Average dmft is 1.1
More than 86% of those with caries are untreated

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96
Q

What is the most frequent are of decay in 10year olds?

A

60% is interproximal

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97
Q

Wha are the factors influencing the choice of restorative material?

A

Patient factors: caries status, general health, para function, age, diet, cooperation
Tooth factors: teeth location, cavity design, pulp involvement, dentition, occlusal load, tooth quality

Operator factors: material properties, quality of finish, moisture control, expertise, anaesthesia

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98
Q

How do you manage approximal surface caries which is confined to enamel?

A

Encourage to arrest: topical fluoride, prevention advise, monitor

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99
Q

How do you manage approximal caries which is into dentine?

A

Restore: inter coronal/extra coronal restorations

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100
Q

What are Fuji 2 lc, Fuji 8, vitremer, photic fil?

A

Resin modified cement

Lower viscosity but similar strength to compomer

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101
Q

What are the advantages of resin modified GIC?

A
Adhesive 
Aesthetic
Leach fluoride potentially
Light cured
Radioopaque 
Wear resistant
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102
Q

What are the disadvantages of resin modified cement?

A

Limited data
Leach fluoride?
Need good moisture control

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103
Q

What is poly acid modified resin?

A

Compomer

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104
Q

What are the advantages of compomer?

A
Adhesive
Aesthetic
Leach fluoride?
Light cured 
Radiopaque
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105
Q

Disadvantages of compomer?

A

Multistage technique
Leach fluoride?
Moisture control

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106
Q

What are the advantages of GIC?

A

Adhesive
Aesthetics
Fluoride leaching
Good temporary

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107
Q

What are the disadvantages of GIC?

A
Long set
Brittle 
Poor resistance to wear and erosion
Radiolucent 
Moisture damage
Only useful for less than 2 years in class 2
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108
Q

What is the evidence for amalgam in class 2s in primary molars?

A

A systematic review shows they would survive a minimum of 3.5 years.
However concerns over safety and aesthetics are making them less popular, despite a lack of evidence

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109
Q

What does the evidence say about GIC and rmgic in class 2 cavities in primary molars?

A

A systematic review says that GIC should not be used. There is evidence that rmgic is successful in small to moderate cavities. There is some evidence that conditioning dentine improves the success of rmgic

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110
Q

Which dental material would we temporise with in child dentition?

A

Conventional GIC= triage/Fuji 7

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111
Q

What permanent restorations would we consider in the primary dentition?

A

If a rubber dam can be placed we would use composite. If not we would place rmgic (Fuji 2) or compomer (dyract)

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112
Q

Indications for a ssc in the primary dentition?

A

Most interproximal cavities
2 or more carious surface
All pulp ally involved primary molars
Young children

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113
Q

What are the contraindications of ssc in the primary dentition?

A

Non-vital
Small occlusal cavity
Tooth soon to exfoliate
Parental preference

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114
Q

What are the frankl behaviour ratings?

A

1=definitely negative

4=definitely positive

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115
Q

Is there a difference between pulp regeneration in primary and permeate teeth?

A

Not really

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116
Q

Is there a difference between reparative potential of dentine pulp complex in primary or permed any teeth?

A

Reparative potential is greater than anticipated in primary teeth, if caries progression can be haunted before the pulp is overwhelmed

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117
Q

What is pulpal inflammation like in primary teeth?

A

Occlusal less so than proximal

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118
Q

What are the symptoms of a reversible pulpitis?

A
Provoked
Disappears on removal of stimulus
Shorter duration
Relieved by analgesia 
Sharp pain
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119
Q

What are the symptoms of irreversible pulpitis!

A
Spontaneous
Constant
Long duration
Not always relieved by analgesics
Dull throbbing 
Sleep disruption
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120
Q

Do we vitality test primary teeth

A

No

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121
Q

Do we use ttp in primary teeth?

A

Yes. Distinguish food impact ion from peri-radicular pathology

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122
Q

When debating restore vs extract, what factors do we consider?

A

Medical
Social
Dental
Pulp status

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123
Q

What are some medical reasons we would retain a primary molar rather than extract?

A

Bleeding disorders

Patient at risk of GA

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124
Q

What are some medical reasons we would extract a primary molar rather than restore?

A

Immune compromised

Cardiac disorder such as ie risk

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125
Q

What pulp therapy would we consider in a vital pulp?

A

Pulp capping

Pulpotomy

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126
Q

What pulp therapy would we consider in a non-vital primary pulp?

A

Pulpectomy

Extraction

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127
Q

What is pulp capping?

A

A method of maintaining the vitality of the pulp by placing a dressing either directly on to an exposed pulp or onto residual dentine over nearly exposed pulp. Aims to protect pulpal health

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128
Q

What medicaments is commonly placed in a direct pulp cap?

A

Calcium hydroxide

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129
Q

What are the aims of a direct pulp cap?

A

To promote dentine bridge formation over exposure and to preserve vitality

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130
Q

Is direct pulp camping successful?

A

In permanent teeth yes

Not recommended in primary molars as treatment is rarely iatrogenic

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131
Q

What are the aims of an indirect pulp cap?

A

Arrest caries
Allow for formation of reactionary dentine and remineralisation of dentine
Promote pulp healing and preserve vitality

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132
Q

What are the indications for an indirect pulp cap?

A

deep carious lesion
No signs/symptoms of pulpal pathosis
No radiographic pathology

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133
Q

What is a pulpotomy?

A

The removal of the coronal part of the pulp tissue, assuming this part is irreversibly inflamed
Done in vital, asymptomatic/transient pain, no radiographic pathology

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134
Q

Does pulpotomy use a rubber dam?

A

Yes

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135
Q

What are potential pulpotomy medicaments?

A

Ferric sulphate- haemostatic agent. Agglutination I blood proteins .Reaction with blood forms a barrier

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136
Q

Why don’t we use calcium hydroxide in pulpotomy?

A

High failure rate

Internal resorption

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137
Q

Why don’t we use formocresol in pulpotomy?

A

Safety concerns

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138
Q

Why don’t we use MTA in pulpotomy?

A

Expensive and not readily available

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139
Q

What is mih?

A

Hypo mineralisation of systemic origin of one or more of the four permanent molars, as well as any associated or affected incisors

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140
Q

What is the prevalence if mih?

A

3.6-25%

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141
Q

How does mih present?

A
Affects one or more of permanent molars 
Demarcated patches 
White-brown, cream 
Post eruptive breakdown 
Missing sixes 
Heavily restored abnormal restorations
Calculus
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142
Q

What are the differential diagnosis’s of mih?

A

Fluorosis
Ameligenesis imperfecta
Turner tooth
Idiopathic hypo mineralisation

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143
Q

What happens in amelogenesis?

A
Odontoblasts secrete type 1 collagen 
Ameloblasts differentiate 
Secrete enamel proteins 
Change shape 
Cause mineralisation
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144
Q

What happens during the secretory phase of amelogenesis?

A

Defines the form of the tooth
Deposition of organic matrix plus small thin crystals
Incremental growth in thickness
Not a continuous process

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145
Q

What causes enamel hypoplasia?

A

Disruption in secretory phase
Early in development
Small pits and grooves
Gross enamel surface defect

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146
Q

What is the maturation phase of amelogenesis?

A
Establishes the quality of the tooth
Degradation of the organic matrix 
Mineralisation 
Ameloblasts move ca2+ and po4
Process continues post eruption
Apoptosis of the ameloblasts
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147
Q

Describe enamel hypomineralisation

A
Disruption in the maturation phase 
Poor mineralisation of matrix
Later in development 
White/brown opacities 
Normal thickness but more quality
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148
Q

How does enamel hypo mineralisation appear down the microscope?

A

Altered ca/p ration
Less distinct enamel rods
Bacterial penetration of enamel
Lower hardness

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149
Q

Is mih linked to chemical exposure?

A

Evidence for exposure to environmental chemicals is weak
It is connected with breast feeding
Weak evidence of an association with fluoride

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150
Q

Do peri-natal problems increase mih prevalence?

A

Malnutrition, maternal health, birth problems
Many confounding factors
Weak evidence

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151
Q

Do common childhood illnesses implant on mih?

A

No clear evidence

Weak evidence for chronic problems

152
Q

What are the options for repairing the aesthetics on mih incisors?

A
Micro abrasion 
Etch bleach seal
Bleach
Composite
Bleach and composite
153
Q

What do we do in etch bleach seal?

A

60s etch
Bleach 5% NaCL, 5-10 mins
Reetch and fissure seal

154
Q

Is caries in the first permanent molars common?

A

Yes, over 50% of children over 11 have it

Occlusal surface 6s accounts for 90% of caries in children

155
Q

When managing first permanent molars we consider what?

A

Patient factors
Dental factors
Orthodontic factors

156
Q

What radiographs do we need to assess patient factors I. The management of permanent molars?

A

Dpt to examine the other teeth, some yet to come through

157
Q

When is the best time to extract a first permanent molar?

A

Root bifurcation of the 7 forming

8-10 years

158
Q

Which is worse, late extraction of 6 or early?

159
Q

What is the preferred restorative technique in a fpm which is vital but with deep caries?

A

Indirect pulp capping

Not direct or pulpotomy due to long term prognosis

160
Q

What are the issues with ssc in fpm?

A

Technically more challenging
La often required
Monitor eruption of 7s as potential for impact
Occlusion

161
Q

What anatomy will affect an idb in a child?

A

Children’s ascending Ramus is shorter and narrower anterior posteriorly
Decreases depth of needle penetration

162
Q

Describe articane

A

4%

1:100000 adrenaline

163
Q

Which teeth are used for a grubby score?

A

Upper right six
Upper left one
Lower left six
Lower right one

164
Q

What are the gum scores?

A
0= healthy pink and stippled 
1= marginal reddening, no swelling
2= red with swelling
3= bleeding on gentle probing
165
Q

What are the signs of a faint?

A
Nausea
Pallor
Thready pulse
Loss of consciousness 
Cyanosis
Fits
166
Q

How do we manage a faint?

A

Supine
Maintain airway
Give oxygen

167
Q

What are the signs of hypoglycaemia?

A
Trembling 
Sweating
Hunger 
Truculence 
Disorientation
Slurring 
Loss of consciousness
168
Q

How do we treat hypoglycaemia?

A

Conscious= glucose drink 10-20g
Unconscious= glucagon 1mg intra muscularly
Airway and oxygen
Transfer to hospital

169
Q

How do we manage an epileptic fit?

A

Protect from injury during
Maintain airway and oxygen
In status epilepticus give midazolam buccal liquid 10mg/ml

170
Q

What kind of la is articaine?

A

Ester, processed by plasma cholinesterases

171
Q

In what form is la active?

A

Hydrophilic ionised form

172
Q

What’s the half life of lidocaine?

A

90mins

45-60 min pulpal duration

173
Q

What’s te half life of articaine?

A

20mins

Pulpal duration 75mind

174
Q

Which areas will be innervated by the posterior superior alveolar nerve?

A

All of the 8 and 7

May not get the mesio buccal root of the 6

175
Q

What does the nasopalatine nerve innervate?

A

Palatal gingival 3-3

176
Q

What does the greater palatine nerve innervate?

A

Palatal gingival 8-4

177
Q

What are the landmarks for an idb?

A

Thumb on the coronoid notch

Pterygomandibular raphe

178
Q

What is alveolar osteitis?

A

Dry socket
Usually post extraction
Inflammation of the alveolar bone
Thought to be loss of blood clot leaving alveolar bone exposed to the oral environment

179
Q

What is the incidence of dry socket?

A

1-20% of routine extractions

Up to 30% of third molar extractions

180
Q

What are the symptoms of dry socket?

A
Occurs a few days after extraction
Painful
Bad taste and odour 
Not relieved with analgesics 
No pyrexia 
No swelling or infection
181
Q

What factors influence dry socket?

A
Smoking
Oral contraception
Local infection 
Compromised patient 
Altered bone metabolism 
Excessive trauma
182
Q

How do you manage dry socket?

A

Examination - consider X-ray for retained root
Irrigation of socket with saline or chlorhexidine
Obtudant pack=
Alveogyl resorbable
Zinc oxide eugonol pack requires removing
Bismuth sub nitrate and iodoform paste bipp
Lidocaine based gels

183
Q

What is alveogyl?

A

A brown fibrous paste which contains the following per 100g
25.7g butamben
15.8g iodoform
13.7g eugenol
Also includes other ingredients like olive oil, spearmint oil and sodium lauryl

184
Q

What are the signs of adrenal insufficiency?

A

Pallor
Rapid thready pulse
Decreased bp
Loss of consciousness

185
Q

How do we manage adrenal insufficiency?

A

Supine
Maintain airway and oxygen
Hydrocortisone 100mg Iv/Im
No improvement then call ambulance

186
Q

What are the signs of anaphylaxis?

A
Sob 
Flushing
Itching
Pallor
Loss of consciousness 
Cyanosis
Very weak pulse 
Decreased bp
Oedema
187
Q

How do we manage anaphylaxis?

A
Supine
Airway and oxygen 
999
Adrenaline 0.5mls 1:1000 Im 1mg/ml
Repeat at 5minute intervals
188
Q

How do we manage mi?

A
Airway and oxygen
Aspirin 300mg orally
Gtn
999
Bls if needed
189
Q

How do we manage asthma?

A
Maintain airway and oxygen
Salbutamol inhaler 100 micrograms per puff
Salbutamol nebuliser 5mg 
Hydrocortisone 100mg Iv im
Repeat as required 
Consider adrenaline
190
Q

What rate of chest compressions are needed?

A

100-120/min

191
Q

What’s the molecular structure of la?

A

Aromatic ring - lipophillic
Intermediate linkage - ester or anise
Terminal amine - hydrophilic portion

192
Q

What kind of la is lidocaine?

A

Amide, processed by the liver

193
Q

Does dry socket need antibiotics?

A

Not thought to influence
Some evidence they may work prophylacticly
Evidence to support use in the immunocompromised patient

194
Q

What local measures do we use for bleeding?

A
Move to suitable clinical area
Good light
Auction
Assistance
La with vasoconstrictor
Sutures 
Haemostatic acids e.g. Surgicel/fibrin blocks 
Bone wax
195
Q

What are the adult doses of amoxicillin for dental infections?

A

500mg every 8 hours

Double in serve infections

196
Q

What is the amoxicillin does in children following a dental infections?

A

1-1 year old= 62.5mg every 8 hours
1-5 years= 125mg every 8 hours
5-18 = 250g every 8hours

197
Q

What do we need from a radiograph pre endo?

A

At least one good peri apical
Treatment tooth centrally located
At least 3-4mm peri radicular tissue visible
Taken with a film holder to minimise distortion

198
Q

Why do we need straight line access to root canals?

A

Because without it the files will deflect and a groove will be filled down the labial wall of the canal

199
Q

Should an access cavity be undercut?

200
Q

What shape should the access cavity be?

A

Dependant on the tooth.
Incisors have three pulp horns so have a triangular access cavity
Canines and premolars have 2 horns so an oval access cavity

201
Q

How can we locate root canals?

A
Knowledge of pulpal anatomy
Information from radiographs 
Magnification techniques
Transillumination with white light
Canal probe e.g. Dg explorer 
Fine endodontic hand instruments
202
Q

When do we apply rubber dam in endo?

A

Once the pulp chamber is breached

203
Q

What do we do in decayed teeth where isolation can’t be achieved for endo?

A

Restore them for efficient isolation

204
Q

How can we improve a rubber dam seal?

A

Ultradent oraseal caulking agent

205
Q

What shape canal do we want in endo?

A

Narrowest apically
Widest part coronally
Gradual outward flare

206
Q

How do we measure working length?

A

Tables of averages
Apex locator
Radiography

207
Q

How does an apex locator work?

A

Measures electrical resistance with direct alternating and high frequency currents
Measuring voltage gradients
Calculating ratio between impedances

208
Q

What are the problems with apex locators?

A

Wet canals in absolute al machines:
Hydrochloride
Pus
Tissue exudate

Heavily restored crowns:
Amalgam
Gold inlay

Poor contact with lip electrode

209
Q

How do we measure a radiographic working length?

A

Measure from fixed reference point to radiographic apex, then minus 1mm

210
Q

What is the design of k files?

A

Tapering square cutting from the corners
Steel
Square on top

211
Q

What is the design of hedstrom files?

A

Christmas tree shaped. Tapering circle
Steel
More aggressive than k files

212
Q

What is the design of pro taper files?

A

Nickel titanium with elastic memory
Spongy grip
More expensive

213
Q

What is the diameter of a gates gladden but in hundredth of a mm?

A

20 (gg+1) +10

214
Q

How do we do orifice enlargement?

A

A size 10k file is passed gents to apical constriction to check patency
Using the largest hedstrom which will pass 3mm of the canal orifice is used circumferentially around the canal periphery, cutting on the out stroke
Progressively smaller headstrong are used to penetrate further down the canal
Instruments should only be taken to te beginning of the curve

215
Q

Why do we do orifice enlargement?

A

Removes heavily infected materials
Improves access to apical third of the canal
Improves irrigation
Reduces effective curvature of the canal

216
Q

What is ISO?

A

International standards applied to endodontic files
Standardised sizing related to diameter 1mm from tip.
Standardised length of working part
Standardised taper

217
Q

What are the three available file lengths?

A

21, 25, 31

218
Q

What is the cutting length on a file?

219
Q

What is the standard instrument taper?

220
Q

What is the width at the tip of a file?

A

The number on the file divided 100

E.g. Size 25= 0.25

221
Q

What are the endodontic instrument techniques?

A

Step back and crown down

222
Q

What are the endodontic filing techniques?

A

Watch winding
Balanced force
Longitudinal circumferential

223
Q

What is the main use of a modified step back technique?

A

Large canals

Most often anterior teeth

224
Q

What is a modified step back technique?

A

The coronal aspect is opened up first before creating an apical terminal stop and flaring backwards to original flare

225
Q

What is a crown down technique?

A

The canal is instrumented from the coronal aspect to the terminus

226
Q

How do we create an apical stop?

A

Using successively larger instruments

Use balanced force and anticurvature filing

227
Q

How many instruments are required to make an apical stop?

A

9

Need to recapitulate with a smaller file to clear debris

228
Q

How do we step back?

A

Step back at 1mm intervals with each a successively larger file
Recapitulating in-between with the master file

229
Q

How many instrument changes are required to step back?

230
Q

What are the advantages of balanced force technique?

A

Superior shaping
File remains central within the canal
Less debris pushed apically

231
Q

What cautions need to be taken with balance force?

A

Flute cleaning
Copious irrigation
Disregard damaged instruments

232
Q

What is phase one of balanced force filing?

A

Power
Place file until it binds
Advance file by clockwise rotation of 60 degrees

233
Q

What is phase two of balanced force?

A

Control
Apply apical pressure
Rotate file by 120 degrees in anticlockwise direction

234
Q

What are some errors relating to canal preparation?

A

Incomplete debridement
Lateral perforations
Apical perforations
Blockage of canals
Ledging
Apical zipping due to inappropriate rotations of instruments
Elbow formation due to inappropriate precurving of instruments

235
Q

When would we use longitudinal circumferential filing in step back?

A

For large irregular shaped canals

When balanced force is inappropriate as files would be to loose

236
Q

What are the advantages of an anticurvature filing technique?

A

Avoids strip perforations
Uses a 3:1 filing ratio
Precurved k type files

237
Q

How do we do a anticurvature filing technique?

A

Files are bent around mirror handle
Use push pull longitudinal filing technique
Never rotate

238
Q

What are the ideal properties of a canal irrigant?

A
Non irritant 
Bacteriacidal 
Dissolve organic material
Remove inorganic material 
Non staining to dentine 
Lubrication of instruments
239
Q

Describe sodium hypochlorite as an irrigant

A

0.5-5% solution
Antibacterial
Dissolves organic
Non irritant to vital tissues at low concentrations

240
Q

What is a chelating agent?

A

EDTA
Breaks down inorganic debris
Lubricant
When used with sodium hypochlorite causes effervescence which assists cleansing of those parts of the canal which are u instrumented. This is due to nitrogen, hydrogen and oxygen release

241
Q

What are the advantages of chlorhexidine as a canal medicament?

A

Low toxicity
Broad spectrum if activity
Substantivity due to bicationic

242
Q

What is the cutting length on a pro taper file?

243
Q

What are the advantages of pro taper files?

A

Better in right canals
Fewer files needed
Engage a smaller area of dentine which reduces torsional loads, file fatigue and potential for separation
Balanced pitch and helical angle

244
Q

Describe the design of a pro taper file

A
Convex triangular cross section
Nickel titanium 
Stress induced phase change
3-5 times the elastic flexibility of stainless steel 
Decreased ledging and transportation
245
Q

Describe sx alternative orifice enlargement

A

Enlarge dentine by gently turning clockwise until file is snug
Disengaged by rotating counterclockwise 45-90 degrees with pressure I ensure the file doesn’t wind out of the canal
Re establish patency with size 10k file and watch winding. Repeat with size 15k and size 20, using balanced force with size 20
Rotate the handle clockwise whilst withdrawing to ensure removal of debris

246
Q

Following orifice enlargement, what are the next steps of crown down?

A

Using s1 file to full length of the canal
Use s2 to the full length of canal
Check patency with 20k
Use f1 and reinstrument with 20k. Stop if snug

247
Q

What precautions do we take between endodontic appointments?

A

Place a medicament and a temporary restoration to prevent reinfection

248
Q

What does ledermix contain?

A

Demethylchlorotetracyxline

Triamcinalone acetonide

249
Q

When should we use ledermix?

A

Acutely inflamed vital pulp where analgesia can’t be obtained
In pulpal exposure with insufficient time for root canal

250
Q

What is the usual interappointment medicament?

A

Calcium hydroxide

251
Q

How does the hydroxide in calcium hydroxide work?

A
Ph 12.5
Bacteriacidal 
Effective solvent to organic material
Premises connective tissue repair 
Promotes hard tissue genesis 
Neutralises acids in areas of resorption
252
Q

What are options for an interappointment temporary restoration?

A

GIC

Zinc oxide eugenol

253
Q

What does it mean if the gp cone is too long?

A

Incorrectly calculated working length

Gp is to small and has pushed through he terminus

254
Q

What does it mean if the gp come is too short?

A

Incorrectly calculated working length
Debris is blocking the terminus
To large of a master point

255
Q

Why do we obturate?

A

Prevent microorganisms from entering and reinfecting the root canal
To prevent tissue fluids from percolating back into the canal system and acting as a culture medium for residual bacteria
Produce a 3d hermetic seal to prevent microleakage
Apical seal and coronal seal

256
Q

What are the ideal requirements prior to filling a canal?

A

Dry canal
Absence of pain and other symptoms
Signs of resolution of infection -reducing Radiolucency
Absence of signs of residual infections - fistula or sinus
Reduction in mobility

257
Q

In rct, what are the potential problems with a smear layer?

A

May harbour microorganism
May create an avenue for leakage of microorganism
May act as a substrate for proliferation

258
Q

How do we remove a smear layer?

A

EDTA and sodium hypochlorite

10-55% citric acid followed by rinsing with sodium hypochlorite

259
Q

What are the functions of a root cabal sealer?

A
Cements the core material into the canal
Helps fill voids 
Lubricant 
Bacteriacidal 
Thermal insulator on placement if gp
260
Q

What are the ideal characteristics if a sealer?

A
Non irritating to peri apical tissues
Hermetic seal
Insoluble in tissue fluids
Dimensionally stable
Radiopaque 
Bacteriostatic 
Non staining to dentine 
Sticky with good adhesion to canal walls 
Easily mixed and removed
261
Q

Discuss zinc oxide eugenol sealers

A
Form a weak porous material when set
Decompose in tissue fluid
Cytotoxic 
Extended working time available 
Most popular 
92-95% success
262
Q

Describe calcium hydroxide sealers

A

Developed on the assumption that they would stimulate healing and hard tissue formation
Setting ability similar to Zoe

263
Q

Discuss resin sealers

A

Good sealing and adhesive properties
I ritual inflammatory reaction
Antibacterial properties
Less popular due to expense and poor handling properties

264
Q

Discuss GIC sealers

A

Ability to adhere to dentine
Initial inflammatory response which subsides
Patch sealing

265
Q

What length should the finger spreader be?

A

2mm short of working length

266
Q

What are common errors in obturation?

A
Inaccurate placement of master point 
Lack of snug fit at the apex
Use I incorrect spreaders or points 
Extrusion of file or sealant through apex 
Use of excessive condensation pressure
Inadequate coronal seal
267
Q

Why might la fail in an infected patient?

A

Increased vascularity removes the solution
Acidic conditions impedes active component
The prostaglandins increase the threshold of nerves

268
Q

How do we manage la problems in an infected patient?

A

Give block injection
More la or more concentrated solution
Intraligamental
If none of the above work prescribe antibiotics and wait 3-4 days for acute inflammation to become chronic

269
Q

What do upper straight forceps look like?

A

Two arms

Not bent at the neck

270
Q

What do upper premolars forceps look like?

A

Two arms
Bent, but not left or right
Fairly thin

271
Q

What upper molar forceps look like?

A

Like premolars, but thicker and less bent

Left and right differ - beak to cheek

272
Q

What do lower root forceps look like?

A

Bent to the side
Two arms with no grooves
Narrow

273
Q

What do lower molar forceps look like?

A

Bent to the side
Grooved beaks
Thick

274
Q

What do lower cow horns look like?

A

Similar to lower molars

Much thinner, have point not beaks

275
Q

How many contact points are needed during an extraction?

A

2 points of contact between root and forceps blades

276
Q

How do forceps enable delivery?

A

Expanding the socket

Wedging blades of the forceps between the root and bony socket causing displacement of conical root from socket

277
Q

Due to forcep design, where is the force delivered to the tooth?

278
Q

Where are the blades of upper forceps?

A

Inline with the handle

279
Q

Where are the blades in lower forceps?

A

At right angles to the handles

280
Q

What movement do you do to extract upper incisors?

A

Rotation due to conical root

281
Q

What movement do you do to extract upper 3-8?

A

Bucco palatal

282
Q

What movement do you do to extract lower incisors and canines?

A

Labial then rotations

283
Q

What movement do you do to extract premolars?

A

Rotations, and where roots curved addition buccal and lingual movements

284
Q

What movement do you do to extract lower molars?

A

Buccal lingual pressure

Deliver buccally

285
Q

In what order should we do multiple extractions?

A

Start with lowers, and more posteriorly
Unless we need to extract a more anterior tooth to get better access
Extract painful tooth first

286
Q

What is the difference between a liner and a base?

A

A liner is applied in a thin layer into dentine. A base is thicker and used to replace some missing dentine

287
Q

What is the purpose of a liner?

A

Mainly used to seal dentine tubules to reduce pulpal injury due to microleakage
Thermal barrier especially in metallic fillings
A chemical barrier
An electric barrier

288
Q

What is a luting material?

A

Used to retain or hold restorations in place

289
Q

What properties should a luting material have?

A

Low initial viscosity to allow flow and proper seating

Low solubility

290
Q

Describe the composition of zinc phosphate?

A

Powder: zinc Oxide and other metallic oxides
Liquid: phosphoric acid 45-64%

291
Q

What is de trey zinc?

A

Zinc phosphate cement

292
Q

How do we mix zinc phosphate?

A

No set ratio

Mixed on cooled slab

293
Q

What are the properties of zinc phosphate?

A

No bonding affinity do tooth, metal or ceramic
Phosphoric acid roughens surface providing some microretention
Okay working time
Film thickness suitable for luting
Small be significant water solubility
May irritate pulp if used as a limit due to low ph (2-4)
Set material is opaque

294
Q

What is poly f?

A

Zinc poly carboxylate

295
Q

What is the presentation of poly f?

A

Powder and liquid
Powder: zinc oxide
Liquid: poly acrylic acid

Or

Powder:zinc oxide and freeze dried poly acrylic
Mix with water

Mix one scoop to two drops for luting
2:2 for temp

296
Q

What are the properties of zinc polycaroxylate?

A

Acidic, but less so than zinc phosphate
Adhesive bond with enamel, dentine and non-precious metal
Weak bond with gold and no bond with porcelain
Strong bond with ss

297
Q

What is aqua cem?

A

GIC cement

298
Q

What is the composition of GIC luting cement ?

A

Powder: glass (sodium aluminosilicate glass) and 20% caF
Liquid: poly acid
2 scoops:4 liquid

299
Q

Are particles of GIC bigger or smaller for luting and lining?

300
Q

What are the properties of GIC?

A

Same adhesive properties as poly f
More translucent than zinc oxide
Can withstand amalgam condensing
Thermal diffusivity close to that of dentine

301
Q

What are resin luting cements?

A

Lightly filled composites with small sized filler particles to ensure thin film thickness
Strong, less soluble and more aesthetic than other cements

302
Q

What is panavia f?

A

Resin Luton cement

303
Q

What is kalzinol?

A

Zinc oxide eugenol

304
Q

What is the composition of zinc oxide eugenol?

A

Powder: zinc oxide and zinc acetate
Liquid: eugenol and olive oil
5:1 mixed in glass slab

305
Q

What are the properties of kalzinol?

A
Adequate working time and rapid setting 
Eugenol has soothing effect on the pulp 
High solubility so not suitable for luting unless temp
Effective thermal barrier
Thermal diffusivity similar to dentine
306
Q

What is life?

A

Calcium hydroxide cement

307
Q

What is the composition of calcium hydroxide?

A

The base is calcium hydroxide (50%), zinc oxide (10%) and sulphonamide (40%)

The catalyst is 40% glycol salicylate with varying amounts of titanium dioxide and calcium sulphate

308
Q

What are the properties of life?

A

Weak
High solubility
Difficult to apply in thick sections so only used as lining
Highly alkaline so antibacterial and stimulates reparative dentine

309
Q

What four things does caries need to develop?

A

Bacteria
Substrate
Tooth
Time

310
Q

What kind of caries does actinomyces cause?

A

Root caries

311
Q

What kind of caries does lactobacillus cause?

A

Progression of deep lesions

312
Q

Where is the translucent zone in an early caries lesion?

A

The outer most later surrounding the body of the lesion.

313
Q

Where is the dark zone in an early caries lesion?

A

Just before the translucent zone

314
Q

Which is the most porous are of an enamel caries lesion?

A

Centre of body is 25% pore volume

315
Q

What is happening at te advancing front of dentine caries?

A

Demineralisation but not infection yet

316
Q

What is happening in the zone of penetration in dentine caries?

A

Tubules penetrated by bacteria

317
Q

Describe the appearance of an arrested carious lesion

A

Matt due to porosity

Soft and leathery texture

318
Q

What are the defence mechanisms of the dentine pulp complex

A

Tubular sclerosis
Reactionary dentine
Inflammation of the pulp
Pulpitis symptoms

319
Q

What are the ideal characteristics of a restorative material?

A
Radio-opaque 
Tooth coloured
Adhesive to tooth
No volume change on setting
Provide protection from
Recurrent caries
Have adequate strength 
Insoluble and non-corrodible 
Non toxic and non irritant 
Resist plaque formation
Wear rate similar to enamel 
Coefficient of thermal expansion similar to tooth structure 
Thermal diffusivity similar to tooth
Have low water absorption
320
Q

What is a class 1 cavity?

A

Caries affecting pits and fissures

321
Q

What is a class 2 cavity?

A

Posterior interproximal

322
Q

What is a class 3 cavity?

A

Anterior interproximal

323
Q

What is a class 4 cavity?

A

Caries affecting the approximal surface of anterior teeth and the Incisal edge

324
Q

What is a class 5 cavity?

A

Caries effecting the cervical surfaces

325
Q

Other than caries, why might we do a restoration?

A

Trauma
Erosion/abrasion
Enamel hypoplasia
Masking discolouration

326
Q

What is an e1 lesion?

A

Caries confined to outer 1/2 of enamel

327
Q

What is an e2 lesion?

A

Caries confined to inner 1/2 of enamel

328
Q

What is a d1 lesion?

A

Caries 0.5mm into dentine

329
Q

What is a d2 lesion?

A

Caries more the 0.5mm into dentine but more than 0.5mm from the pulp

330
Q

What is a d3 lesion?

A

Caries within 0.5 mm of pulp

331
Q

Are bite wings useful to diagnose class 2 lesion?

A

Increase diagnosis of interproximal lesions 4 fold when compared to clinical examination alone

332
Q

Are laser fluorescence machines used?

A

Only for occlusal lesions with visual inspection

333
Q

How long does it take for an interproximal lesion to reach the adj?

A

3-4 years in children

Maybe as long as 6years in adults

334
Q

When do we recommend interproximal intervention?

A

When lesions extend more than 0.5mm into dentine

335
Q

Indications for posterior composites?

A

Small-moderate class 2
Metal allergy
Where unsupported enamel may be strengthened
Where it’s not possible to obtain retention for a non-adhesive material

336
Q

What are the contraindications to posterior composite restorations?

A
High caries activity and poor oh
Inadequate isolation
Multiple large restorations with cuspal contact 
Bruxism 
Allergies to resin
337
Q

What is the survival are of a gold inlay after 25 years?

338
Q

What do ears involve?

A

The rebuilding of cusps
Provision of auxiliary retention
Postpone cast restoration

339
Q

What are the advantages of ears over cast restorations?

A

Less invasive
Less expensive
Less time

340
Q

How do we provide auxiliary retention?

A

Cavity design features
Pins
Adhesives
Posts

341
Q

What is retention?

A

Features of a cavity preventing withdrawal of the restoration in the long axis of the prep

342
Q

What is resistance?

A

Features preventing dislodgement of the restoration under other forms of loading

343
Q

How should we create slots?

A

A depth no greater than 1mm
A width no more than the instrument used
Sharp internal form which increase stresses within the tooth material- for resistance form

344
Q

Do pins provide retention or resistance?

345
Q

What are the types of pins?

A

Cemented pins
Friction grip pins
Self threading pins- more retentive

346
Q

What influences pin retention?

A

Larger diameter pins are more retentive
Depends on resilience and firmness of dentine
Only place in healthy dentine

347
Q

What are the disadvantages of pins?

A

Pulp exposure
Root perforation
Cause stresses in the tooth - except cemented
Cracks I’m dentine surrounding the pins

348
Q

What is the evidence for adhesives used with amalgam?

A

There isn’t evidence for or against them

349
Q

In what type of patient are ears likely to fail?

350
Q

What are the technical failures of ears?

A

Defective contact point/over hangs
Non retentive
Fractured restoration - doesn’t necessarily come out. Could stay and facilitate secondary caries

351
Q

What are inlays/onlays made from?

A

Gold alloys
Composites
Ceramics
Zinconium oxide

352
Q

What are the indications for an inlay/onlay?

A
Large restoration
Endodontic tooth
Teeth at risk of fracture
Wide open contacts and occlusal plane correction
Prosthodontic abutment 
Dental rehabilitation 
Sub gingival lesion
353
Q

Contraindications of an inlay/onlay?

A
Young dentition with large pulp chambers
Developing and deciduous teeth
Aesthetics 
Poor oh
Small restorations
354
Q

What are the advantages of inlay/onlays?

A

Strength
Biocompatibility
Low wear
Control of contours and contacts

355
Q

What are the disadvantages of inlays/onlays?

A
Extensive tooth prep
Cemented restoration, discrepancy and microleakage 
Abrasive and slitting forces on natural teeth 
Galvanic currents
Number of appointments
Cost 
Temporary required
Techniques sensitive
356
Q

What are the feature of an inlay/onlay prep?

A

Undercut free
Maximum height
Minimum taper
Single path of insertion

357
Q

How much chlorhexidine is in corsodyl?

358
Q

How much fluoride is in duraphat varnish?

359
Q

What are the 4 safety benefits of rubber dam?

A

Control root canal irrigants
Barrier between operator and oral fluids
Control and protection of soft tissues
Prevents inhalation or swallowing

360
Q

What the advantages of rubber dam for patient management?

A

Avoids need for continued rinsing
Improves access and vision
Provides gingival retraction
reduces operating time

361
Q

What are the disadvantages of rubber dam?

A
Gingival damage
Fractures porcelain restorations
Fractured heavily restored teeth
Inhalation of clamps
Contact allergy
362
Q

What’s the difference between bland and retentive claps?

A

Bland claps grab teeth above the gingival margin

Retentive claps grasp below, they are angled downward accordingly

363
Q

What is the correct placement of a rubber dam clamp?

A

The bow of the clamp is distal
The clamp has 4 anchorage points
The clamp grips below the maximum bulbosity