Prevmed 1 Flashcards
1
Q
who appoints the PIC and how?
A
- The food establishment manager
- in writing
2
Q
what knowledge must the PIC demonstrate?
A
- Food borne disease prevention
- application of HACCP
- requirements of the Tri-service food code
3
Q
who ensures that food operations are not being conducted in a private room or in a room used as sleeping quarters?
A
PIC
4
Q
who ensures that employees are properly cooking TCS foods?
A
PIC
5
Q
what are symptoms that employees are required to report?
A
- vomiting
- diarrhea
- Jaundice
- sore throat with fever
- lesions containing pus
6
Q
what does it mean to Exclude someone?
A
not allowed to work in the food establishment at all
7
Q
What does it mean to Restrict someone?
A
they may not work with food or any clean utensils at all
8
Q
what DIAGNOSED illness do you restrict if they do not serve a highly susceptible population?
A
- Norovirus
- Shigella
- EHEC
- STEC
- Sore throat with Fever
9
Q
you must exclude employees who have what symptoms?
A
- Vomiting
- diarrhea
- jaundice
10
Q
when to reinstate and employee who had Norovirus
A
- written clearance from medical
- 48 hours symptom free
11
Q
when to reinstate an employee who had Jaundice with other symptoms:
A
- written documentation from medical that they do not have Hep A
- 14 days
- regulatory authority approval
12
Q
when to reinstate and employee who had only jaundice as a symptom
A
- written clearance from medical
- 7 days
- regulatory authority approval
13
Q
when to reinstate and employee who had Salmonella Typhi
A
- cleared by medical with 3 negative stool cultures
14
Q
what is the process to clear someone of S. Typhi?
A
- 3 negative stool cultures
- 1 month after onset
- 48 hours after antibiotics finish
- 24 hours apart
- restart if one is positive
15
Q
when to reinstate and employee who had Shigella
A
- 7 days asymptomatic
- 2 negative stool samples (24 hours apart)
16
Q
when to reinstate and employee who had ETEC or STEC
A
- 7 days asymptomatic
- 2 negative stool samples (24 hours apart)
17
Q
when to reinstate and employee who had a sore throat with a fever
A
- antibiotics for more than 24 hours
- negative throat culture for strep
- health practitioner deemed free of strep infection
18
Q
when to reinstate and employee who had a lesion or boil
A
- if on the arm then it must be covered with an impermeable covering
- dry, durable, tight-fitting bandage if on any other part
19
Q
Must be excluded for how long if exposed to ETEC?
A
3 days since last exposure
20
Q
Must be restricted for how long if exposed to Shigella?
A
3 days since last exposure
21
Q
Must be excluded for how long if exposed to STEC?
A
3 days since last exposure
22
Q
Must be excluded for how long if exposed to Salmonella Typhi
A
more than 14 days since they had been exposed last
23
Q
Must be excluded for how long if exposed to Hep A
A
- they are medically immune
- 30 days since last exposure
24
Q
how long must you wash your hands?
A
20 seconds
25
when must employees wash their hands?
- after using the bathroom
- after smoking
- after handling animals
- after using soiled utensils
- before donning gloves
- sneezing, coughing, eating and drinking
26
what requirements must be met to have hand sanitizer in a kitchen
- FDA monogram
| - Be 60% Ethyl Alcohol
27
how do you clean a "Hand dip" soap pump?
with a sanitizer of at least 100Miligrams per liter of chlorine
28
how long may fingernails be for food employees?
1/4 inch past the fingertip
29
what jewelry may be worn by a food employee?
Plain ring such as a wedding band
30
what must an employee ensure when tasting a recipe
- using a clean/sanitized utensil or single use utensil
| - taste away from to food
31
what are the five CDC foodborne risk factors
- Food from unsafe sources
- Inadequate cooking
- Improper holding time/temp
- contaminated equipment/cross contamination
- poor personal hygiene
32
how often must refresher training be conducted?
every 12 months
33
how long must the annual training be?
4 hours total
34
what are the instruction numbers for the PIC certification?
- OPNAVINST 4061.4
| - MCO 4061.1
35
for temporary employees (Less than 30 days) what amount of training is required?
2 hours of initial training
36
how long is the PIC certification good for? (OPNAVINST 4061.4)
5 years
37
how much training should non-food employees receive before assisting in galley operations
4 hour initial training.
38
all food training records should be:
- maintained at the food establishment that employee works at
- available on request
39
who approves game animals ante-mortem and post-mortem?
Vet techs
40
what temperature must PHF be stored at?
41 degrees F
41
raw eggs must be received at what temperature?
45 degrees F or lower
42
Hot PHF foods must be received at what temp?
135 degrees F
43
what information must be on a shellstock tag?
- harvesters ID number
- Date of harvesting
- Most accurate harvesting location
- type and quantity of shellfish
44
how long must you retain shellstock tags?
90 days
45
what must commercially processed juice must be
- obtained from a plant with a HACCP plan
| - be pasteurized and attain a 5-log reduction
46
what foods must employees not touch with bare hands?
RTE foods
47
what strength of bleach is used to wash any FF&V and for how long?
- 5-6%
- 50-200 PPM
- at least 1 minute
48
how often must wet wiping cloths be laundered?
daily
49
how must dry wiping cloths be kept?
Free of food debris and visible soil
50
when must you discard single use gloves?
- soiled
- changing tasks
- break in operations
51
what requirement must all single use gloves meet?
- non latex
| - powder free
52
what requirements must be met for food storeage?
- Clean, Dry location
- not exposed to splash, dust or other contamination
- at least 6" off the floor
53
what specific locations must food NOT be stored in?
- locker rooms
- toilet rooms
- dressing rooms
- garbage rooms
- mechanical rooms
- under sewer lines
- under open stairwells
54
what is the maximum size container of milk that may be provided to a customer?
16floz (1pint)
55
definition of a foodborne illness
illness transmitted to people via food
56
food borne illness outbreak definition:
an incident where 2 or more people experience the same illness after eating the same food
57
foodborne infection definition:
an illness caused by consuming food that contained living disease-causing microorganism
58
foodborne intoxication definition:
illness caused by consuming food containing a toxin or hazardous chemical
59
toxin-mediated infection:
illness caused by consuming food containing a live pathogenic organism that produces a toxin
60
Bacterial characteristics:
- living, single celled organism
- many types, found everywhere
- most are not harmful
- pathogenic typed cause illness
- reproduces under favorable conditions
61
Types of bacteria:
- spore forming
| - non-spore forming
62
Characteristics of spore forming bacteria:
- commonly found in soils
- build a wall to protect themselves
- can survive cooking and freezing
- cannot be destroyed
63
Characteristics of non spore forming bacteria
- vegetative cells
| - easily destroyed with proper cooking
64
illnesses caused by spore forming bacteria:
- Clostridium perfringes
- Bacillus cereus
- Clostridium Botulinum
65
non-spore forming bacteria
- Campylobacter jejuni
- Listeria monocytogenes
- Salmonella spp
- Shigella spp
- Staphylococcus spp
- vibrio
- E.Coli
66
Characteristics of viruses:
- requires a living host
- smallest microbe contaminant
- common cause is poor personal hygiene
- one prevention method is to minimize bae hand and arm contact
67
illnesses caused by viruses
- Hep A
| - Norovirus (Norowalk)
68
types of foodborne parasites:
- Anisakis
| - Trichinella
69
Types of Fungi in food:
- Mold
| - Yeast
70
Characteristics of mold:
- spoiled food
- can cause illness
- not destroyed by freezing
- grows well with low acidity and water
- can produce aflatoxin
71
Characteristics of yeast:
- can spoil food
- appears reddish/pink
- may be slimy and have bubbles
- may smell or taste of alcohol
- grows well in low water activity (jams, jellys)
72
what is the onset time for Cigatoxin?
30 min - 6 hours
73
what does FATTOM stand for?
- food
- acidity
- time
- temperature
- oxygen
- moisture
74
what acidity level do microorganisms best reproduce in?
4.6 - 7.5
75
what are the limits of the temperature danger zone?
41 - 135 degrees F
76
How often can microorganisms double their population?
Every 20 minutes
77
Aerobic:
Needs oxygen to live
78
Anaerobic:
Does not need oxygen to survive
79
what are the two most critical food elements that you can control?
- Time
| - Temperature
80
what ae the 4 phases of bacteriological growth?
- Lag
- Log
- Stationary
- Decline
81
what temperature at a minimum must you cook raw animal foods at?
145 degrees F
82
what temperature do you cook; fish, meat, commercial game animals at?
155 degrees F
83
what temperature do you cook poultry, balut, wild game and stuffed meats at?
165 degrees F
84
When cooking with a microwave what internal temperature must be achieved and for how long?
165 for 2 minutes
85
what temperature do you store something at to destroy a parasite and for how long?
- 4 degrees F for 7 days (168 hours)
| - 31 degrees F for 15 hours
86
when reheating food what temperature must you reach?
165 degrees F
87
what are some signs of refreezing?
- Ice Crystals
- wet packaging
- Product is decolored
88
what are the specifics when thawing PHF in a sink.
- water temp must be 70 degrees or below
| - water must be running
89
how long do you have to cool food down to save as left overs?
6 hours total
90
when cooling down food to be saved as left overs what temperature must you reach in the first 2 hours?
70 degrees F
91
when cooling down food to be saved as left overs what temperature must you reach in the last 4 hours?
70 down to 41 degrees F
92
what are some methods you can use for cooling?
- placing food in a shallow pan
- separating the food into smaller portions
- rapid cooling equipment
- placing the container in an icewater bath
- adding ice as an ingredient
93
what temperature must be maintained for hot holding?
135 degrees F
94
what temperature must be maintained for cold holding?
41 degrees F
95
how long can PHF leftovers be retained and at what temperature?
72 hours
| 41 degrees
96
can you freeze leftovers?
NO
97
what are some characteristics of materials used in a kitchen?
- safe
- durable, corrosion-resistant
- can withstand repeated ware washing
- smooth cleanable surface
- resistant to chipping, scratching and decomposition
98
what is the maximum limit for lead in food contact surfaces?
solder lead must be under 0.2
99
what is the limitation for using copper as a food contact surface?
cannot come in contact with a food that has a ph below 6
100
how accurate must your thermometers be?
within +/- 2 degrees F (+/-1C)
101
what is meant to prevent grease and condensation from dripping onto food
ventilation hoods
102
for manual washing what temp do you need to meet for heat sanitization?
171 degrees F
103
what is considered "alternate manual ware washing"
2 compartment sink
104
what compartments of the 3 compartment sink must be frequently monitored with a thermometer?
wash
| sanitize
105
what do you need when using chemical sanitization?
Test kit or other testing device to measure concentration of sanitizing solutions.
106
how high off the table must table mounted equipment be?
4"
107
how high off the floor must equipment be mounted?
6"
108
who can authorize the use of non NSF authorized equipment?
Regulatory authority
109
when using iodine in a sanitizing solution what temp must the water be?
68 degrees F
110
what must the temperature of the WASH solution be?
110 degrees F
111
what must the temp of the RINSE solution be?
120 degrees
112
what must the concentration and temperature be for chemical sanitization using chlorine?
50-100 PPM
(1oz of bleach per 4 gallons of water)
75 degrees F
113
what specifications do you calibrate thermometers to?
Manufactures specifications
114
how often do you clean ice machines?
30 days
115
how often do you change ice machine filters?
- manufacturer recommendation
| - every 6 months
116
how often must you clean iced tea dispencers?
every 24 hours
117
how often do you change out consumer self service utensils?
every 8 hours
118
how often do you launder wet wiping cloths?
Daily
119
how do you dry equipment and utensils?
Air Dry
120
how do you store equipment and utensils?
- 6" off the floor
- not exposed to dust, splashing, other contamination
- clean, dry location
- covered or inverted
121
what can be an approved water source?
- a public water source
| - a non-public water source that is constructed, maintained and and operated according to law.
122
what can non drinking water be used for?
non culinary uses like air conditioning, fire protection
123
who is responsible for ensuring chlorine bulk potable water is tested daily?
Food service manager
124
what temperature range must hand washing sinks meet?
100 - 120 degrees F
125
how big must an air gap be?
Twice the diameter of the water supply inlet but not less than 1 inch
126
what must waste receptacles be?
- durable
- cleanable
- insect/rodent resistant
- leak proof
- nonabsorbent
127
what kind of hand drying devices are allowed in a food establishment?
- individual disposable towels
| - heated-air hand drying device (if single use towels are also provided)
128
what spaces require a minimum of 108 Lux (10 foot candles)
- walk in refers/freezers
| - dry storage
129
what spaces require 215 Lux (20 foot candles)
- location where food is provided for customer self service
- inside reach-in refers
- warewashing, handwashing and equipment/utensil storage
130
what spaces require 540 Lux (50 foot candles)
- locations where employees are working with PHF, knives, grinders, saws or other equipment where safety is a factor
131
what class of fire extinguisher is required to be in a kitchen
class B
132
what is the preferred method of storing mops?
Head down
133
what are some ways to control pests and prevent them?
- routinely inspect incoming shipments for pests
- routinely inspect spaces for pests
- first in first out method (FIFO)
134
how can you identify a cockroach infestation?
- strong oily odor
- droppings (pepper like appearance)
- egg casings appear brown, black or maroon
135
what is the most common cockroach in food establishments?
German cockroach
136
what fly is most likely to spread disease?
House Fly
137
what fly can be identified by their metallic blue/green bodies?
blow fly
138
what is a container that holds chemicals but it not the original container?
working container
139
what is limiting chemicals in an establishment to only allowing those needed for day to day operations?
Restriction
140
what can be used as a tracking powder in a food establishment?
nontoxic powder such as talcum or flower
141
what is required at a minimum for field galley operations?
Hand washing sink
142
what are some ways to dispose of liquid waste from a field galley?
- soakage
- pit
- trench
- grease traps
143
how do you dispose of solid waste from a field kitchen?
- bury
- incinerate
- return to forward supply point
- dispose per local requirements
144
who will develop the medical screening for foodservice workers in the field?
the senior surgeon/unit surgeon
145
how far must a field serving area be from the toilets/latrines?
100 yards (300 feet)
146
how far must a field galley be from sleeping quarters and bodies of water?
30 yards (90feet)
147
when must field galley employees wear single use gloves and change them after every task?
when only waterless handwashing is available
148
at what locations must medical check residual chlorine in a field galley?
- bulk storage
- furthest point from bulk connection
- ice machine
149
who is responsible for testing water at each bulk water delivery?
food operation manager
150
what is the minimum that field galley water needs to be tested?
daily
| - multiple times daily if in hot climate
151
how often must field food managers inspect for insects?
daily
152
when cleaning FF&V in the field with hot water what temp and time must you submerge them for?
140 degrees F for 1 minute
153
who is considered to be "at risk population"?
- those immunocompromised
- food locations that provide custodial care, health care, assisted living
- military personnel afloat or deployed
154
who is the medical authority?
the commander of the local MTF or tactical unit whos authority is above prevmed/public health
155
DD for m 2972
Food risk assessment survey
156
DD 2973
food operation inspection report
157
DD 2974
Tactical kitchen inspection report
158
DD 2971
conditional employee reporting agreement
159
types of inspections
- pre operational
- routine
- complaint
- follow-up
- walk through
160
inspection ratings:
- fully compliant
- substantially compliant
- partially compliant
- non-compliant
161
what is fully compliant?
No Deficiencies
162
What is Substantially compliant?
- No IHH
- 2 or less Cos critical hits
- 5 or less non critical findings
163
Partially compliant
- no IHH
- 3 or more Cos critical findings
- 6 or more non critical findings
164
non- compliant
- IHH is present
| - any critical findings not Cos
165
what do italicized words mean on a food survey
- not a requirement
| - involve the words; should, except for, may, need not
166
how are critical hits identified on the DD 2973?
marked with an asterisk
167
how are swing provisions marked on a DD 2973?
- with a letter "S"
| - swing hits can be either critical or non critical depending on circumstances
168
what is a vector?
any arthropod or rodent that is capable of transmitting disease
169
what is a host?
individual whos potentially susceptible to illness
170
what is a reservoir?
organism where the agent lives and multiplies
| - acts as an intermediate host
171
what are the functions of a navy entomologist?
- on-site consultation
- technical assistance
- recommendations
- conducts training for certifications
- be weird
- reviews and evaluates shipboard pest management
172
what instruction governs the DOD pest management program?
DOD Directive 4150.07
173
what instruction minimizes the use of pesticides for the navy and MC when non-chemical methods are available?
OPNAVINST 6250.4C
174
shipboard pest manual instruction number:
NAVMED P-5052-26
175
who standardizes the use of pesticides and equipment recommended by BUMED?
NAVSEASYSCOM
176
who monitors and evaluates the shipboard pest management program?
BUMED
177
who Develops and provides shipboard pest management training?
BUMED
178
what role does the SMDR have in the pest management program?
- procure approved pest control supplies/equipment
- record all pest management activities
- report pest management to higher authority
179
what are the three pesticide standards?
- Restricted
- unrestricted
- nonstandard
180
Restricted pesticides:
- used only by trained pesticide applicators
| - all EPA restricted use pesticides
181
Unrestricted pesticides:
- available without control through military supply system
| - does NOT require special training
182
non standard pesticides
- must be approved by local Entomologist prior to use
183
Acaricides control:
- mites
- scorpions
- spiders
- ticks
184
Fungicides control:
fungus
185
herbicides control:
Plants
186
Insecticides control:
insects
187
insecticides can be divided into what categories?
- adulticide
- larvicide
- ovicide
188
Molluscicide controls:
Mollusks (Snails)
189
Rodenticides control:
Rodents
190
what kind of pesticide contains Phosphours?
Organophosphates
191
what are the modes of entry for pesticides?
- stomach poisons
- contact poisons
- fumigants
192
what are the different formulation that pesticides are prepared in?
- oil solution
- emulsions
- suspensions
- dusts
- granules
193
"DANGER" is means what?
- Skull and crossbones
- highly toxic
- antidote statement
194
"CAUTION" means:
- no antidote statement
| - slightly toxic
195
"WARNING" means:
- no antidote statement
| - moderately toxic
196
what words must all pesticides have on them?
"keep out of reach of children"
197
who must approve all respirators?
NIOSH
198
when must respirator filters be changed?
- every 8 hours of use
| - 4 hours of use during heave spraying
199
what eye pro will you wear when using pesticides?
Unvented or indirectly vented goggles
| or a faceshield
200
what head covering do you wear during pesticide application?
- hard hats
| - wide brimmed waterproof hat if drifting is a factor
201
what is required for hand protection when applying pesticides?
Gloves must cover the wrist and be tested for leaks daily
202
what pesticide causes irreversible damage to the nervous system?
Organophosphates
203
what pesticide causes reversible damage nerve damage?
Carbamate Poisoning
204
what do all spill kits include?
- shovel
- absorbent material
- leakproof barrel
- detergent and water
- PPE
205
what is the first thing you need to do when you have a hazmat spill?
Confine the spill
206
who do you report all pest management activities to and how often?
NECE (Navy Entomology Center of Excellence)
| monthly
207
what do you use to report pest management activities?
e-DD1532-1
208
what are the 3 types of lice?
- Body louse
- Head louse
- Crab louse
209
what louse is typically found on pubic hair and eyebrows?
Crab louse
210
what louse attaches its nits to clothing?
Body louse
211
what steps do you need to take to rid yourself of a louse infestation?
- wash cloths in 100 degree water to prevent nits from hatching
- insecticidal ointments such as Elimite
- wash all combs and brushes with hot soapy water
212
what cockroach is identified by two black stripes or "lieutenant bars" on its dorsal plate?
German cockroach
213
brown- banded cockroach characteristics:
- mostly found in hotels and libraries
- has two yellow bands near the base of its adult wings
- female produces 10 egg capsules in a lifetime (15 eggs per)
214
American cockroach Characteristics:
- 35mm long
- anterior dorsal plate has yellow boarder strip
- female produces 34 egg capsules in a lifetime (15 eggs per)
- they live in filthy environments
215
how often must a vector survey be conducted?
every 2 weeks
216
types of Stored product pests:
- saw tooth grain beetle
- confused beetle/red flour beetle
- dermestid beetle
- indian meal moth
- rice weevil
217
indian meal moth characteristics:
- less common than beetles
- females lay 100-300 eggs
- 6 to 8 weeks from egg to adult
- grayish band on upper 1/3 of wing
- larva spin a "web"
218
Dermestid beetle characteristics:
- Medically important
- if found then whole lot must be condemned
larvae are resistant to starvation
219
Rice Weevil
- most destructive pest
- has a long "beak"
- has 2 yellow/red spots on wing casings
220
when under way how often do you inspect for infestation?
every 2 weeks
