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Radiologic Technology > Previous Exam Guides > Flashcards

Previous Exam Guides Flashcards

1
Q

QA program monitors

A

ppl

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2
Q

QC program is for

A

film processors, CT scanners, XR tubes

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3
Q

most QC testing on rad equipment is done

A

annually

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4
Q

all general purpose rad units must have a min. of _____ mm Al filtration

A

2.5

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5
Q

filtration is measured w _______ measurements

A

HVL

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6
Q

focal spot size is measured w

A

pinhole/star/slit camera

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7
Q

it is acceptable to perform a ______ test instead of measuring the focal spot size

A

line pair

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8
Q

the measured kVp should be +/- ____ of the kVp indicated on the console

A

10%

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9
Q

what is the testing device used to measure cassette screen-film contact?

A

wire-mesh

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10
Q

comparing the mR output ay 50 mA @ 0.2 sec, 100 mA @ 0.1 sec, & 200 mA @ 0.05 sec is part of a test for _______

A

linearity

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11
Q

when a light in a viewbox is out, then

A

bulb must be replaced, all bulbs in viewboq must be replaced, all bulbs must match adjacent viewboxes

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12
Q

processor crossover racks should be cleaned out on a _______ basis

A

daily

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13
Q

processors should be monitored every day for

A

densitometric measurements, water/chem temps, & replenishment tank levels

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14
Q

an artifact can be

A

an object that is not part of the XRed anatomy, pt motion, improper grid, or warped cassette

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15
Q

a ________ is an example of an exposure artifact

A

foreign object

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16
Q

a static mark artifact is created during ______ of the film

A

handling

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17
Q

what sort of artifact is a guide-shoe mark?

A

processing artifact

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18
Q

the largest # of repeat exams is generally caused by ________ types of artifacts

A

exposure

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19
Q

misalignment of the processor turnaround assembly can cause?

A

guide-shoe marks

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20
Q

thin lines on the leading/trailing edge of a film are

A

guide-shoe marks

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21
Q

a bi-color chem stain on an XR

A

curtain effect, or dichroic stain

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22
Q

low humidity in the darkroom can cause

A

tree static

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23
Q

a streak of high optical density on the finished XR can be caused by

A

light leaks in the cassette/darkroom

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24
Q

when a QC test for exposure linearity is performed, adjacent mA stations must be w/in this amount of one another

A

10%

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25
Q

when a QC test for exposure reproducibility is performed, successive exposures must be w/in this amount of one another

A

5%

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26
Q

when QC test for collimator accuracy is performed, result must be w/in this amount

A

2% of SID

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27
Q

when a QC test for accuracy of kVp is performed, the result must be w/in _____ of the control panel setting

A

10%

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28
Q

the accuracy of collimation at a 72” SID must be

A

+/- 1.44”

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29
Q

unwanted markings on a XR are called

A

artifacts

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30
Q

small marks on XR about 3.1416” apart are called

A

pi lines

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31
Q

when insufficient light is produced, the img will be grainy, a condition known as

A

quantum noise

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32
Q

the aspect of a film-screen system that may be examined by conducting a wire mesh test is the

A

film-screen contact

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33
Q

what can cause img blur on the finished XR?

A

pt motion

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34
Q

which artifact occurs when the grid lines are II to the laser lines in a CR?

A

Moiré

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35
Q

a math process of assigning a digi value to a dead pixel based on recorded values of adjacent pixel is known as

A

interpolation

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36
Q

the effect or irregular pattern (variations in img brightness) can be minimized by

A

flat fielding

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37
Q

a software correction that is performed to equalize the response of ea pixel to a uniform XR beam is known as

A

flat fielding

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38
Q

what is a histogram?

A

a plot of the frequency of appearance of a given object char.’s; a graph of frequency of occurrence v digital value intervals

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39
Q

about 80% of breast cancer occurs in

A

ductal tissue

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40
Q

it is recommended that women obtain their 1st baseline mammo before the age of

A

40

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41
Q

a target of Mo or Rh is preferable in mammo bc it reduces the?

A

scatter

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42
Q

breast compression has the advantage of lowering

A

pt dose, motion blur, & superimposition

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43
Q

breast compression is used to ____ pt dose, and _____ focal spot blur

A

lower, reduce

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44
Q

breast compression increases

A

contrast & spatial res.

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45
Q

mammograms are taken w _______ cassettes

A

single screen

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46
Q

mammography currently uses ______ film

A

single-emulsion

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47
Q

screening mammo requires _____ view(s) of ea breast, whereas diagnostic mammo requires _______ views

A

2, 2+

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48
Q

the ________ is responsible for supervising QA

A

chief radiologist

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49
Q

the purpose of QA program is to maintain max ________ w min _________

A

quality mammos, pt dose

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50
Q

the avg glandular dose to mammo pt’s must be tested annually by the

A

medical physicist

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51
Q

the team of _________________ is responsible for mammo QC

A

mammographer, radiologist, & medical physicist

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52
Q

the ________ is responsible for selecting the medical physicist & mammographers responsible for QC

A

radiologist

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53
Q

when is the QC eval of the equipment performed?

A

once a year or when major components are replaced

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54
Q

the role of a medical physicist includes

A

performing annual performance evals of equipment, consult w mammographers concerning QC, & review QC records to check for compliance

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55
Q

the mammographer should ________________ on a monthly basis

A

complete a visual checklist

56
Q

how often should mammographer perform the QC test for screen-film contact?

A

semi-annually

57
Q

during tomography the XR tube & IR move around an imaginary pivot point called the

A

fulcrum

58
Q

the tomographic angle determines the

A

section thickness

59
Q

as tomographic angle _______ the tomographic section _______

A

increases, becomes thinner

60
Q

which structures are most blurred in a tomographic img?

A

structures farthest from fulcrum

61
Q

heigh of fulcrum determines the

A

level of object plane

62
Q

thickness of tomo layer is affected by ___________ of the tube

A

multidirectional movement & tomo angle

63
Q

what is the formula for the magnification factor using img & object size?

A

MF = img size/object size

64
Q

if the img size of an object is 3 cm and the MF is 1.5, then what is the actual object size?

A

2.0 cm

65
Q

the radiologist has requested that the img for a cerebro angio be magnified 100%. where would you set the SOD of the head if the SID is set at 20”?

A

10”

66
Q

what is the true size of a lesion if its magnified img measures 3 cm and the MF is 1.5?

A

2.0 cm

67
Q

what is the formula for MF using the SID?

A

MF = SID/SOD

68
Q

it is essential that a ___________ be used in magnification rad to preserve img detail

A

small focal spot

69
Q

Mo produces char XRs w energy of ____ keV

A

19

70
Q

Rh produces char XRs w energy of ____ keV

A

23

71
Q

mammo uses a tube tilt of

A

6º

72
Q

mammo uses an anode angle of

A

23º

73
Q

in mammo, the total beam filtration should not be less than ____ mm of Al equivalent

A

0.5

74
Q

which target material is best for mammo of a pt w thick dense breast tissue?

A

Rh

75
Q

most mammo systems now have a moving grid w ratio of

A

5:1

76
Q

the electronic noise in digital mammo can be reduced by

A

cooling the detector

77
Q

a min of ________ mammon must be included in a repeat analysis

A

250

78
Q

a wire mesh test must be performed

A

semiannually

79
Q

tomo angle & slice thickness are

A

indirectly proportional

80
Q

a tomo w a tomo angle of 10º or less is known as

A

zonography

81
Q

a panoramic tomo is used to XR what structure?

A

mandible

82
Q

which tube trajectory will produce the max blurring of the unwanted structures?

A

spiral

83
Q

where is the AEC located in the mammo unit?

A

underneath the IR

84
Q

which has the highest spatial res.?

A

screen film mammo

85
Q

as the effect focal spot size increases, the spatial res. will

A

decrease

86
Q

mammo uses grid frequencies of?

A

30-50 lines/cm

87
Q

if the pt is halfway btw the IR and the focal spot, then the MF is

A

2

88
Q

the output phosphor of the I.I. is composed of

A

zinc cadmium sulfide

89
Q

the output phosphor of the I.I. converts _____ to _______

A

e-‘s, light

90
Q

photocathode of I.I. convert _______ to _______

A

light, e-‘s

91
Q

brightness of fluoro img depends on the following factors

A

anatomy being examined, kVp, mA

92
Q

scattered rad in the form of XRs, e-‘s, & particularly light can reduce the contrast of I.I. tubes through a process called

A

veiling glare

93
Q

____________ is the reduction in brightness at the periphery of the img

A

vignetting

94
Q

in a 25 cm/17 cm/12 cm I.I. which mode will display max anatomy?

A

25 cm mode

95
Q

in a 25 cm/17 cm/12 cm I.I. which mode will display the highest spatial res.?

A

12 cm mode

96
Q

in a 25 cm/17 cm/12 cm I.I. which mode will cause the highest pt dose?

A

12 cm mode

97
Q

compared to 25 cm fluoro mode; in a 12 cm fluoro mode, the focal point will?

A

move away from the output phosphor

98
Q

how magnified is the img of a 36/25/12 I.I. in the 12 cm mode compared w the 36 cm mode?

A

3 x’s

99
Q

what is the photoconductive layer of the I.I.?

A

target plate

100
Q

what is the material used in the photoconductive layer?

A

antimony trisulfide

101
Q

in DF, the spatial res. is limited by

A

pixel size

102
Q

during DF, the under-table XR tube actually operates in the ________

A

radiographic mode (increased mAs)

103
Q

in DF, the T required for the XR tube to be switched off is called ________

A

extinction T

104
Q

in DF, the fraction of T that the XR tube is energized is called the ________

A

duty cycle

105
Q

img-guided catheter navigation is possible w

A

FPIR

106
Q

the SNR of DF is

A

1000:1

107
Q

what produces a sharper img w less flicker (in fluoro)?

A

progressive mode

108
Q

speed of img acquisition, processing & transfer to the output device is determined by

A

dynamic range of ea pixel, # of pixels, & storage method

109
Q

what is the mA used during conventional fluoro?

A

0-5 mA

≤5 mA

110
Q

ability of the eye to detect the differences in brightness levels is termed

A

contrast perception

111
Q

the ____ in the retina are stimulated by ____ light

A

rods, low

cones, bright

112
Q

XRs that exit the pt & enter the I.I. first interact w the ______

A

input phosphor

113
Q

the input phosphor of the I.I. is composed of

A

cesium iodide (Ce-i)

114
Q

the input phosphor converts _____ to _____

A

XR, light

115
Q

the _______ in the I.I. emits e-‘s when it is stimulated by light photons

A

photocathode (thru photoemission)

116
Q

the # of light photons emitted w/in the I.I. is ______ to the amount of XR photons exiting the pt

A

directly proportional

117
Q

calculate the flux gain of an I.I. that is equipped w a 25 cm input phosphor & 5 cm output phosphor

A

cannot be calculated (need # of light in output and # of XR in input)

118
Q

an I.I. has a 12 cm input phosphor and a 4 cm output phosphor. about 50,000 light photons were produced at the output phosphor when the input phosphor received 100 XR photons from the pt. calculate the total brightness gain.

A

4500

119
Q

e-‘s hit the _____ after exiting the anode

A

output phosphor

120
Q

the ______ is the product of the minification gain & the flux gain

A

brightness gain

121
Q

the ratio of XRs incident on the input phosphor to light photons exiting the output phosphor is called

A

flux gain

122
Q

capability of an I.I. to increase the illumination level of the img is called

A

brightness gain

123
Q

an I.I. tube is identified by the diameter of its _____

A

input phosphor

124
Q

fluoro for an air contrast barium enema is generally done at ___ kVp

A

80-90

125
Q

viewing the fluoro img in magnification mode increases

A

contrast/spatial res. & pt dose

126
Q

ABC maintains the brightness of the img by varying

A

kVp & mA

127
Q

the T it takes to turn on the DF XR tube & reach the selected mA & kVp is the

A

interrogation T

128
Q

a CCD used in DF provides high _______

A

spatial res, SNR, & detective quantum efficiency

129
Q

a principal advantage of DF is the

A

img subtraction capability

130
Q

DF systems w hybrid capabilities use both _______

A

temporal & energy subtraction

131
Q

remasking may be required due to _______

A

noise artifacts, motion artifacts, &/or technical factors

132
Q

the combo of temporal & energy subtraction techniques is called

A

hybrid subtraction

133
Q

the T-interval delay mode is principally used in ____ imaging

A

cardiac

134
Q

DF dose rate is lower than that for continuous analog fluoro (T/F)

A

true

135
Q

the _____ on the retina are stimulated by ______ light

A

cones, bright

rods, low

136
Q

fluoro was invented by

A

thomas edison

Radiologic Technology (5 decks)

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