Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

PVM > Preventative Medicine > Flashcards

Preventative Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

natural diet of horse (3)

A

grass/forage
salt
water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

dietary needs and options influenced by (3)

A

geographic location
stabling environment
athletic discipline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

horses consume what percent of body weight in feed per day

A

1.5 - 3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

horses consume what percent of body weight in water per day

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

equine diseases caused by OR controlled/fixed by diet (6)

A

laminitis
obesity/insulin resistance
white muscle disease
hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
polysaccharide storage myopathy
osteochondrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what kind of teeth do horses have

A

hypsodont

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hypsodont teeth

A

continuously erupt throughout life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how many teeth horses have

A

36-44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

most commonly affected bad cheek teeth (2)

A

109
209

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which tooth is the wolf tooth

A

205

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how often should oral exams be

A

every 6-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how much do horses teeth erupt per year

A

4 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

anisognathic jaw: purpose, predisposes to

A

figure of 8 grind
sharp points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

dental pathologies (3)

A

malalignment
tooth root infections, sinus infections
developmental disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

is a rotational approach for dewormers effective

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

why is rotational approach for anthelmintics ineffective (4)

A

age
immune status
geography and climate
population density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

relevant parasite: foals

A

ascarids = parascaris equorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when is it important to start deworming foals

A

6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what do weanlings develop if not dewormed

A

ascarid impactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

relevant parasites: adults (5)

A

large strongyles
small strongyles
tapeworms
bots
pinworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

large strongyles: requires what to climb, effect, treatment

A

needs grass to limb
thromboembolic colic
ivermectin once a year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

is there any resistance to ivermectin from large stronglyes

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

small strongyles aka

A

cyathostomes

24
Q

small strongyles: need what to climb, effects, level of resistance

A

grass to climb
diarrhea and weight loss if encysted
some resistance to all anthelmintics
widespread resistance to benzimidazole

25
which parasite do we measure to determine shedding status
small strongyles
26
what is the only way to remove encysted small strongyles
moxidectin or power pack
27
small strongyles have widespread resistance to
benzimidazole
28
tapeworms: where found, effect
baled hay typhilitis
29
do tapeworms show up in a fecal
no
30
which parasites don't show up in fecal (3)
tapeworms bots pinworms
31
bots eggs laid where
on hair of limbs
32
pinworms: source, clinical sign
environmental contamination excoriation of tail and anus
33
first step to parasite control
fecal egg counts to determine type of shedder 3-4 months past last deworming
34
lower shedder: number of eggs per gram, treatment, monitor protocol
0-200 epg avermectin 2x a year, praziquantel 1x a year, larvicidal 1x a year fecal egg count 2x a year before deworming
35
moderate shedder: number of eggs per gram, treatment, monitoring protocol
200-500 epg avermectin 2x a year, praziquantel 1x a year, larvicidal 1x a year fecal egg count 2x a year before deworming
36
high shedder: number of eggs per gram, treatment, monitoring protocol
>500 epg avermectin 2x a year, praziquantel 1x a year, larvicidal 1x a year deworm additional 4 times with other dewormer classes fecal egg count 2x a year before deworming
37
what measure do we use to determine parasite resistance
fecal egg count reduction test
38
fecal egg count reduction test: how used, what parasites to use for, formula
just prior to and 10-14 days following dewormer only on ascarids and strongyles % FECR = [(FEC pre - FEC post) / FEC pre) x 100]
39
benzimidazoles: mode of action, examples, when used, resistance in
act upon fumarate reductases to interfere with carbohydrate metabolism fembendazole, oxibendazole ascarid infections in foals resistant cyathosome
40
macrocyclic lactones: mode of action, examples, when used, resistance in
increase cell permeability to chloride = flaccid paralysis and death avermectin = ivermectin and moxidectin/quest strongyles resistant ascarids
41
tetrahydropyrimidines: mode of action, examples, when used, resistance in
cholinergic agonist pyrantel = pyrantel pamoate paste, pyrantel tartrate pellet adult strongyles and tapeworms resistant ascarids and cyathostomes
42
prazinquantel: mode of action, when used, how used
spastic paralysis, disrupts tegument tapeworms additive --> formulated with macrocyclic lactone
43
criteria for identifying core vaccines (4)
public health risk/legally mandated endemic disease severe disease favorable risk/benefit
44
initial vaccination of foals occurs at what age
3-6 months
45
core vaccines for horses (3)
rabies tetanus viral encaphilitides (WEE, EEE, west nile)
46
top recommended vaccines for horses (3)
influenza equine herpesvirus types 1 and 4 streptococcus equi (strangles)
47
rabies: agent, vector, when to vaccinate, type of vaccine
rhabdoviridae mammals vaccinate annually single or multi component inactivated
48
tetanus: agent, when to vaccinate, type of vaccine
clostridium tetani yearly vaccine single or multi component inactivated
49
does the tetanus disease vaccinate
no
50
why doesn't the tetanus disease vaccinate
dose causing clinical signs too small for good immune response
51
EEE and WEE: agent, vector, what kind of vaccine, vaccination protocol
togaviridae mosquitos multivalent = attack 2 strains initial dose and booster 3-4 week later annually vaccinate 1 month prior to mosquito season
52
west nile virus: agent, vector, vaccination protocol, main vaccine type
togaviridae mosquitos initial dose and booster 3-4 week later annually vaccinate 1 month prior to mosquito season killed intramuscular vaccine
53
2 types of vaccine for west nile
monovalent multivalent
54
influenza: agent, vector, vaccine protocol, type of vaccines offered
influenza A genus, subtype H3N8 other horses 2-3 booster series 3-4 weeks apart then yearly intramuscular killed or live intranasal vaccines
55
equine herpes virus 1 and 4: agent, vector, vaccination
alphaherpesvirus latent infection, reactivation, horse to horse transmission vaccine only for protection against respiratory disease/abortion
56
streptococcus equi equi (Strangles): agent, vector, vaccination protocol, vaccine types
streptococcus equi equi inapparent carriers (guttural pouch chondroids) live or killed intramuscular live = intranasal 2 weeks apart then annually killed intramuscular = 3-4 injections at 3 week intervals then annualls

PVM (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions