Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

review > PRETEST > Flashcards

PRETEST Flashcards

1
Q

Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to smooth muscle (ASMA)?

a. atrophic gastritis
b. chronic active hepatitis
c. myasthenia gravis
d. sjogren’s syndrome

A

b. chronic active hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An RPR card test performed on CSF was nonreactive. The physician was skeptical and asked for a repeat test. The RPR result was reactive 1:1 dilution. The result:

a. Should be reported as nonreactive
b. should be reported as reactive dilution 1:1 dilution
c. is nonconclusive, and should be repeated in a new CSF sample
d. is unreportable, the RPR test should not be performed on CSF

A

d. is unreportable, the RPR test should not be performed on CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the titer in tube No. 8 if tube No. 1 is undiluted and dilutions are doubled?

a. 64
b. 128
c. 256
d. 512

A

b. 128

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The H antigen is found in lowest concentration on what phenotype of red blood cell?

a. group B
b. group A1B
c. group A2B
d. group O

A

b. group A1B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following could be the possible cause of the given ABO discrepancy?

Anti-A: 0
Anti-B: 0
A1 cells: 0
B cells: 0
O cells: 0
Autocontrol: 0

a. acquired B phenomenon
b. subgroup of A or B
c. immunodeficient patient
d. polyagglutination

A

c. immunodeficient patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is most helpful to confirm a weak ABO subgroup?

a. adsorption-elution
b. testing with A1 lectin
c. neutralization
d. use of Anti-A1B

A

a. adsorption-elution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following could be the possible cause of the given ABO discrepancy?

Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 0
A1 cells: 0
B cells: 4+
O cells: 3+
Autocontrol: 0

a. acquired B phenomenon
b. A1 subgroup
c. A2 subgroup
d. polyagglutination

A

b. A1 subgroup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following could be the possible cause of the given ABO discrepancy?

Anti-A: 4+
Anti-B: 0
A1 cells: 1+
B cells: 4+
O cells: 0
Autocontrol: 0

a. acquired B phenomenon
b. A1 subgroup
c. A2 subgroup
d. polyagglutination

A

c. A2 subgroup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The results of D typing on a patient using a high protein anti-D reagents are:
RT 37℃ AHG CC
(patient cells 0 2+ not prfrmed
+ anti-D)

(patient cells 0 2+ not prfrmed
+ Rh control)

Which of the following is the correct interpretation of these results?

a. Rh negative, weak D positive
b. Rh positive, weak D postive
c. Rh negative, weak D negative
d. Invalid Rh typing

A

d. Invalid Rh typing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Glycophorin A and glycophorin B possess antigen sites for which blood group system?

a. duffy
b. kidd
c. lewis
d. MNS

A

d. MNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

All of the following exhibit dosage effect, EXCEPT:

a. duffy
b. kidd
c. lewis
d. MNS

A

c. lewis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An antiglobulin crossmatch is performed with a donor red blood cell unit. The antiglobulin crossmatch result is a 2+ agglutination reaction. What is the most likely explanation for this result?

a. recipient’s rbc are demonstrating polyagglutination
b. recipient’s rcbs have a low-frequency antigen
c. recipient possesses an IgG alloantibody
d. recipient possesses a cold autoantibody

A

c. recipient possesses an IgG alloantibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A blood supplier ships 3 units of pooled cryoprecipitate. Each pool consists of 5 units of cryoprecipitate. If one unit is thawed at 5 pm, when must it be dispensed from the blood bank?

a. before 9 pm
b. before 11 pm
c. before 12 am
d. before 5 pm on the next day

A

a. before 9 pm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is NOT a step in platelet production?

a. soft spin to sediment red blood cells
b. hard spin to separate platelets from platelet-rich plasma
c. resting phase at 1 to 6 degrees celsius
d. resting phase at 20-24 degrees celsius

A

c. resting phase at 1 to 6 degrees celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Intraoperative autologous blood stored at 1 to 6 degrees celsius should be administered within:

a. 4 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours

A

d. 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Antibody screen and antibody identification cells are group

a. A1 and B
b. A and O
c. O only
d. AB only

A

c. O only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Group O, Rh- positive cells are used for antibody screening tests because:

a. anti-A and anti-B do not react with O cells
b. anti-A1 is detected using O cells
c. most recipients are O and Rh positive
d. weak A or B subgroups react with O cells

A

a. anti-A and anti-B do not react with O cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A DAT result is as follows:
Polyspecific AHG= 1+
Anti-IgG = negative (Check cells = 3+)
The most etiology of this positive DAT is:

a. anti-IgG
b. anti C3
c. anti-I
d. anti-A1 in an A1 individual

A

b. anti C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) should be cultured immediately, but if delayed the specimen should be:

a. frozen at -20 degrees celsiuss
b. incubated at 37 degrees celsius and cultured as soon as possibe
c. refrigerated at 4-6 degrees celsius
d. stored at room temp for no longer than 24hrs

A

b. incubated at 37 degrees celsius and cultured as soon as possibe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Furazolidone (furoxone) susceptibility is a test used to differentiate:

a. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.
b. Staphylococcus spp. from Pseudomonas spp.
c. Streptococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.
d. Streptococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp.

A

a. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following sugars is fermented by a. Staphylococcus spp.?

a. glucose
b. lactose
c. maltose
d. sucrose

A

a. glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following sugars is fermented by N. gonorrheae?

a. glucose
b. lactose
c. maltose
d. sucrose

A

a. glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following characteristics can differentiate Y. enterocolitica from Y. pestis?

a. motility at 25 degrees celsius
b. motility at 37 degrees celsius
c. fermentation of glucose
d. hydrogen sulfide production

A

a. motility at 25 degrees celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following Pseudomonas species is able to grow at 42 degrees celsius?

a. P. aeruginosa
b. P. fluorescens
c. P. putida
d. P. veronii

A

a. P. aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Gram-negative straight rods associated with gastroenteritiis:
TSI: A/A or K/AG
Oxidase: positive

a. E. coli
b. Y. enterocolitica
c. Citrobacter spp.
d. Aeromonas

A

d. Aeromonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A 50 yr old nonimmunized male with a persistent cough, fever, and flulike symptoms was admitted to the hospital. Nasopharyngeal swabs were cultured on15% blood, chocolate, Bordet-Gengou, and Regan-Lowe agars. All media grew gram-negative coccobacillus. Carbohydrate and biochemical tests were negative. What is the most likely identification?

a. Bordetella brochiseptica
b. Bordetella pertussis
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Haemophilus parainfluenzae

A

b. Bordetella pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is a gram-positive bacilli most frequently associated as an occupational disease of butchers?

a. Bacillus cereus
b. Bacillus subtilis
c. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
d. Listeria monocytogenes

A

c. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following rapid assay for Legionella spp.?

a. antibody detection
b. culture on special media
c. direct examination on gram stain
d. urine antigen detection

A

d. urine antigen detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Long, thin gram-negative rods that are tapered (pointed) at the ends.

a. Bacteroides
b. Fusobacterium
c. Porphyromonas
d. Prevotella

A

b. Fusobacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the purpose of potassium permanganate when staining acid fast bacilli with Truant auramine-rhodamine stain?

a. decolorizing agent
b. dye
c. mordant
d. quenching agent

A

d. quenching agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following Mycobacterium produces an orange pigment and is most commonly recovered from water?

a. M. intracellulare
b. M. gordonae
c. M. asiaticum
d. M. kansasii

A

b. M. gordonae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following genera requires long chain fatty acids?

a. Klebsiella
b. Neisseria
c. Pseudomonas
d. Treponema

A

d. Treponema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following causes walking pneumonia?

a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Antibiotic inappropriate for K. pneumoniae tested positive for the MODIFIED HODGE TEST?

a. Tobramycin
b. gentamicin
c. Imipenem
d. tetracycline

A

c. Imipenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The yeast form of which dimorphic fungus appears as oval or elongated cigar shapes?

a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Sporothrix schenckii
c. Histoplasma capsulatum
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis

A

b. Sporothrix schenckii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Culture media must contain lipids, usually olive oil?

a. Malassezia furfur
b. Microsporum canis
c. Piedraia hortae
d. Trichosporon beigelii

A

a. Malassezia furfur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A dermatophyte that forms antler-like branching hyphae called favic chandeliers?

a. Microsporum gypseum
b. Microsporum canis
c. Trichophyton schoenleinii
d. Epidermophyton floccosum

A

c. Trichophyton schoenleinii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Rotavirus is present in large number in:

a. CSF
b. sputum
c. stool
d. urine

A

c. stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

An organism was isolated from an eye wash of a patient with a corneal infection who had been wearing contact lenses for the past 2 years. What is the name of the causative agent?

a. Acanthamoeba spp.
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Naegleria spp.
d. Trichomonas vaginalis

A

a. Acanthamoeba spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following exhibit Schuffner’s dots and have a true relapse in the life cycle?

a. P. falciparum and P. ovale
b. P. falciparum and P. vivax
c. P. malariae and P. ovale
d. P. vivax and P. ovale

A

d. P. vivax and P. ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Schizogony does not usually take place in peripheral blood. Young trophozoites and gametocytes are generally the only stages seen on the peripheral blood smear.

a. P. falciparum
b. P. malariae
c. P. ovale
d. P. vivax

A

a. P. falciparum

35
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with monocytosis?

a. infectious mononucleosis
b. lymphoid malignancies
c. tuberculosis
d. whooping cough

A

c. tuberculosis

35
Q

Red cell inclusions associated with moth ball ingestion:

a. basophilic stipplings
b. heinz bodies
c. howell-jolly bodies
d. pappenheimer bodies

A

b. heinz bodies

35
Q

Which of the following contain RNA and are usually identified by staining with brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue?

a. heinz bodies
b. reticulocytes
c. siderotic granules
d. howell jelly bodies

A

b. reticulocytes

35
Q

Which of the following clinical conditions is associated with stomatocytes?

a. abetalipoproteinemia
b. alcoholic cirrhosis
c. renal insufficiency
d. severe burns

A

b. alcoholic cirrhosis

36
Q

Which of the following inclusions is only visible with supravital staining?

a. basophilic stippling
b. cabot rings
c. heinz bodies
d. pappenheimer bodies

A

c. heinz bodies

37
Q

Burr cells are increased in which of the following conditions?

a. abetalipoproteinemia
b. microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
c. myelofibrosis
d. uremia

A

d. uremia

38
Q

Which of the following conditions is characterized with a decreased haptoglobin concentration?

a. acute inflammation
b. chronic inflammation
c. extravascular hemolysis
d. intravascular hemolysis

A

d. intravascular hemolysis

39
Q

Which of the following is likely to occur first in iron deficiency anemia?

a. decreased serum iron
b. increased TIBC
c. decreased serum ferritin
d. increased transferrin

A

c. decreased serum ferritin

40
Q

Storage pool deficiencies are defects of:

a. platelet adhesion
b. platelet aggregation
c. platelet granules
d. platelet production

A

c. platelet granules

41
Q

Lupus anticoagulants are risk factors of:

a. fibrinolysis
b. hemolysis
c. hemorrhage
d. thrombosis

A

d. thrombosis

42
Q

The JAK2 mutation may be positive in all of the following chronic myeloproliferative disorders except?

a. essential thrombocythemia
b. myelofibrosis
c. polycythemia vera
d. CML

A

d. CML

42
Q

A 28-year old female patient presented to the emergency department with symptoms suggestive of DIC. A CBC and coagulation studies were ordered. The peripheral smear showed blasts and immature cells with heavy granulation and Auer rods. Which of the following disorders would be most likely?

a. ANLL with t(9;11)
b. ANLL with t(15;17)
c. ALL with t(12;21)
d. ALL with t(9;22)

A

b. ANLL with t(15;17)

42
Q

Oral anticoagulants can reduce the level of:

a. fibrinogen and calcium
b. fibrinogen and factor V
c. factors V and VIII
d. protein C and S

A

d. protein C and S

43
Q

Which mutation is shared by a large percentage of patients with polycythemia vera, essential thrombocythemia and primary myelofibrosis?

a. BCR/ABL
b. JAK2/V61F
c. PDGFR
d. RUNX1

A

b. JAK2/V61F

43
Q

The genetic mutation associated with CML:

a. t(15;17)
b. t(11;14)
c. t(9;22)
d. t(8;21)

A

c. t(9;22)

44
Q

Only 2 mL of blood is collected in a vacuum tube containing EDTA that is designed for 7 mL draw, which of the following result can be:

a. falsely lowered RBC count
b. falsely elevated hemoglobin
c. erroneously decreased hematocrit
d. ESR is of expected value

A

c. erroneously decreased hematocrit

44
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is characterized by flow cytometry results that are:

a. negative for CD55 and CD59
b. positive for CD55 and CD59
c. negative for CD4 and CD8
d. positive for all normal CD markers

A

a. negative for CD55 and CD59

45
Q

A patient’s hemoglobin level is 12.3 g/dL. The erythrocytes appear normochromic on the Wright-stained smear. The hematocrit value that correlates with these data:

a. 0.34 L/L
b. 0.37 L/L
c. 0.40 L/L
d. 0.43 L/L

A

b. 0.37 L/L

46
Q

Which of the following is considered an artifact on drying of blood film?

a. acantbhocytes
b. echinocytes
c. spherocytes
d. stomatocytes

A

b. echinocytes

47
Q

The area in the automated cell counter histogram represents the RBC distribution curve:
insert pic

45-450 fL WBC
36-360 fL RBC
2-20 fL PLT

A

B

48
Q

Which of the following will cause a decrease in ESR reading

a. delay in testing
b. high room temp
c. tilted ESR tube
d. vibration

A

a. delay in testing

48
Q

The area in the automated cell counter histogram represents the platelet distribution curve:
insert pic

A

C

49
Q

Cushing’s syndrome is associated with:

a. hyperglycemia
b. hypoglycemia
c. normal blood glucose
d. variable blood glucose

A

a. hyperglycemia

50
Q

A 62-year old patient presents to the physician with report of increased thirst and increased urination, particularly at night. The physician requests a series of tests over the next few days. The following data are received:

Random glucose: 186 mg/dL
Fasting glucose: 114 mg/dL
2-hour OGTT: 153 mg/dL
HbA1c: 5.9%

Which of the following conclusions may be made regarding these data?

a. data represents normal glucose status
b. data represents an impaired glucose status
c. data represents the presence of insulinoma
d. data represents diagnosis of diabetes

A

b. data represents an impaired glucose status

50
Q

Turbidity in serum suggests elevation of:

a. cholesterol
b. total protein
c. chylomicrons
d. albumin

A

c. chylomicrons

51
Q

Which of the following lipoproteins is the smallest of all the lipoproteins and is composed of 50% protein?

a. HDL
b. chylomicrons
c. LDL
d. triglyceride

A

a. HDL

52
Q

Which of the following renal conditions is associated with recent group A β-hemolytic streptococcus infection?

a. kidney obstruction
b. acute renal failure
c. uremic syndrome
d. acute glomerulonephritis

A

d. acute glomerulonephritis

52
Q

In which of the following disease states, would you see an elevation in total bilirubin and conjugated bilirubin only?

a. hemolysis
b. neonatal jaundice
c. hepatitis
d. biliary obstruction

A

d. biliary obstruction

53
Q

Adrenal cushing’s syndrome:

a. increased cortisol and ACTH
b. decreased cortisol and ACTH
c. increased cortisol, decreased ACTH
d. decreased cortisol, increased ACTH

A

c. increased cortisol, decreased ACTH

54
Q

Which of the following tests may be ordered to assess the toxic effects of acetaminophen?

a. amylase and lipase
b. AST and ALT
c. BUN and creatinine
d. CK and LD

A

b. AST and ALT

54
Q

Levels of this analyte rises rapidly after myocardial infarction buy this finding is relatively nonspecific:

a. myoglobin
b. troponin
c. creatine kinase
d. lactate dehydrogenase

A

a. myoglobin

54
Q

Phenobarbital is a metabolite of:

a. amobarbital
b. phenytoin
c. primidone
d. secobarbital

A

c. primidone

54
Q

The drug procainamide is prescribed to treat cardiac arrhythmia. What biologically active liver metabolite of procainamide is often measured simultaneously?

a. lidocaine
b. N-acetyl procainamide (NAPA)
c. phenobarbital
d. quinidine

A

b. N-acetyl procainamide (NAPA)

55
Q

The TROUGH level for the therapeutic drug monitoring is collected:

a. 30 mins after the medication is administered
b. 30 mins before the medication is administered
c. at the time specified by the manufacturer
d. after the patient has fasted for 8 hrs

A

b. 30 mins before the medication is administered

55
Q

If the total bilirubin is 3.1 mg/dL (53.0 umol/L) and the conjugated bilirubin is 2.0 mg/dL (umol/L), the unconjugated bilirubin is:

a. 0.5 mg/dL (8.6 µmol/L)
b. 2.2 mg/dL (3.76 µmol/L)
c. 1.1 mg/dL (18.8 µmol/L)
d. 5.1 mg/dL (87.2 µmol/L)

A

c. 1.1 mg/dL (18.8 µmol/L)

56
Q

When measuring serum bilirubin, the purpose of adding caffeine-sodium benzoate or methanol the reaction mixture:

a. accelerate the reaction with conjugated bilirubin
b. accelerate the reaction with unconjugated bilirubin
c. destroy excess diazo reagent
d. shift the wavelength absorbed by azobilirubin

A

b. accelerate the reaction with unconjugated bilirubin

56
Q

Which of the following compounds can interfere with the coulometric chloride assay?

a. acetoacetate
b. ascorbate
c. bromide
d. nitrate

A

c. bromide

57
Q

Hepatocellular damage may be best assessed by:

a. serum AST and ALT
b. GGT and ALP
c. bilirubin, GGT, and ALP
d. ammonia and urea

A

a. serum AST and ALT

58
Q

Which of the following analytes is the best indicator of hepatobiliary damage:

a. AST
b. ALT
c. ALP
d. bilirubin

A

c. ALP

59
Q

The highest serum ALP activities (10 to 25x the URL) are found in patients with:

a. hyperthyroidism
b. osteomalacia
c. paget/’s disease
d. rickets

A

c. paget/’s disease

59
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism:

a. increased calcium and phosphate
b. decreased calcium and phosphate
c. increased calcium, decreased phosphate
d. decreased calcium; increased phosphate

A

c. increased calcium, decreased phosphate

59
Q

Increased calcium and phosphate:

a. malignancy
b. hyperparathyroidism
c. multiple myeloma
d. all of these

A

c. multiple myeloma

59
Q

Which set of results is consistent with uncompensated metabolic acidosis?

a. pH 7.25 HCO3- 15 mmol/L pCO2, 37 mm Hg
b. pH 7.30 HCO3- 16 mmol/L pCO2, 28 mm Hg
c. pH 7.45 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2, 40 mm Hg
d. pH 7.40 HCO3- 25 mmol/L pCO2, 40 mm Hg

A

a. pH 7.25 HCO3- 15 mmol/L pCO2, 37 mm Hg

60
Q

Valinomycin enhances the selectivity of the electrode used to quantitate

a. calcium
b. chloride
c. potassium
d. sodium

A

c. potassium

60
Q

Increased in pCO2 in a patient most commonly results in which of the following primary acid-based abnormalities?

a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis

A

a. respiratory acidosis

60
Q

Which salts are frequently administered to patients with pre-eclampsia?

a. chloride
b. iron
c. magnesium
d. sodium

A

c. magnesium

61
Q

What is the effect of oral contraceptives on iron?

a. high
b. low
c. normal
d. variable

A

a. high

61
Q

Most reference electrodes contain a high concentration of ________ internal solution used to produce the reference potential.

a. KCl
b. KOH
c. NaCl
d. NaOH

A

a. KCl

62
Q

Which set of results is consistent with uncompensated respiratory alkalosis?

a. pH 7.70 HCO3- 30 mmol/L pCO2, 25 mm Hg
b. pH 7.66 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2, 20 mm Hg
c. pH 7.46 HCO3- 38 mmol/L pCO2, 55 mm Hg
d. pH 7.36 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2, 38 mm Hg

A

b. pH 7.66 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2, 20 mm Hg

63
Q

A patient’s blood gas results are:
pH= 7.50
pCO2= 55 mm Hg
HCO3-= 40 mmol/L

a. respiratory acidosis
b. metabolic alkalosis
c. respiratory alkalosis
d. metabolic acidosis

A

b. metabolic alkalosis

63
Q

Comparing two (2) methods for identification of an analyte. By the standard test, 100 patients test positive.
METHOD 1 METHOD 2
positive 80 70
negative 20 30

Which is true?

a. same sensitivity
b. same specificity
c. method 1 is more sensitive
d. method 1 is more specific

A

c. method 1 is more sensitive

64
Q

If a test has a specificity of 98%, it results in approximately:

a. 98% false positives
b. 98% false negatives
c. 2% false positives
d. 2% false negatives

A

c. 2% false positives

64
Q

Acidic urine

a. vomiting
b. vegetarian diet
c. high protein diet
d. renal tubular acidosis

A

c. high protein diet

64
Q

Which of the following reagents is used in the mucin clot test:

a. acetic acid
b. potassium iodide, iodine
c. sodium hydroxide
d. trichloroacetic acid

A

a. acetic acid

64
Q

Urine of a patient with orthostatic proteinuria:
Specimen 1: first-morning urine
Specimen 2: after remaining in a vertical position for several hours

Which is true?

a. both specimens will yield positive results for urine protein
b. both specimens will yield negative results for urine protein
c. specimen 1 positive; specimen 2 negative
d. specimen 1 negative; specimen 2 positive

A

d. specimen 1 negative; specimen 2 positive

65
Q

Xanthochromic CSF is an indicator of:

a. bacterial meningitis
b. increased pressure of CSF
c. increased protein of CSF
d. cerebral hemorrhage

A

d. cerebral hemorrhage

65
Q

Which of the following is a test for fetal lung maturity?

a. acetylcholinesterase
b. alpha-fetoprotein
c. phosphatidylglycerol
d. optical density at 450 nm

A

c. phosphatidylglycerol

(acetylcholinesterase & alpha-fetoprotein- neural tube defects)

65
Q

Very viscous synovial fluid may be pretreated with:

a. acetic acid
b. alpha-chymotrypsin
c. hyaluronidase
d. normal saline

A

c. hyaluronidase

65
Q

Amniotic fluid from expectant mother in the 39th week of gestation gives these laboratory results:
L/S ratio: 4.0
Creatinine: 2.8 mg/dL
Delta A450: 0.008 (LILEY ZONE I)

a. inadequate fetal kidney function
b. intrauterine hemolysis
c. mature fetal lungs
d. small fetal body size

A

c. mature fetal lungs

review (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions