Prescribing in Medical Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

COVID-19 pathophysiology

A

Can cause lung injury > direct pathological inflammatory insult to cells in the lung resulting in diffuse damage of the small airsacks > ARDS and hypoxaemic resp failure

Second effect on body is cytokine storm which is massively overexaggerated inflammation reaction in the body. Cardinal features include persistent fever, cytopenias and hyperferritinaemia.

ARDS and shock are the 2 main causes of death from COVID.

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2
Q

COVID-19 risk factors

A
  • Older people with comorbidities more likely to present with symptomatic covid
  • Patients with cardiovascular disease are more liekly to suffer with severe disease
  • NHS identified these patient groups as high risk and require “shielding”: organ transplant, certain types of cancer treatment, have blood or bone marrow cancer, severe lung condition such as CF/asthma/copd, taking immunosuppressants, are pregnant or have serious heart condition.
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3
Q

COVID-19 presentation

A
  • Incubation period: symptoms tend to occur around 5-11 days after first exposure to the virus
  • Median time to recovery from symptom onset: 14 days
  • Median onset between symptoms and critical care admission is 9-10 days
  • Median time of death 18 days after symproms or recovery to discharge 22 days
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4
Q

Case definition of covid-19

A

Requiring admission to hospital (AND)
Have clinical or radiological evidence of: Pneumonia/ARDS/Influenza-like illness + one acute resp symptom/persistent cough/hoarseness/nasal discharge or congestion/SOB/sore throat/change in taste or smell

Patients who have symptoms that meet above criteria should be tested regardless of contact or travel history

It is a notifiable disease - should be reported to Public Health England.

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5
Q

Signs/symptoms of covid

A

Symptoms:
- Pyrexia ≥ 37.8oC (most but not all cases present with a fever)
- Constitutional symptoms (e.g. fatigue, myalgia, anorexia)
- Lower respiratory symptoms (e.g. cough with or without sputum, dyspnoea)
- “Silent hypoxia”—a respiratory compromise without shortness of breath. This is particularly true in older adults
- Gastrointestinal symptoms (e.g. nausea, diarrhoea)
- Atypical presentations, particularly in patients who are immunocompromised
Signs:
- Pharyngitis or tonsil enlargement
- Lower respiratory signs: e.g. crackles, pleural rub

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6
Q

Inpatient investigations for covid

A
  • U+Es: calculate CURB score (high creatinine)
  • Other biochemistry (high CRP, high ferritin, high trop, high LDH)
  • FBC (lymphocytopenia, low platelets)
  • Clotting: PT time and INR, D-dimers, Fibrinogen (high PT/INR)
  • LFTs (high billirubin, ALT/AST)
  • ABGs (hypoxia, high lactate)
  • Blood cultures and microbiology
  • Imaging: CXR +/- CT thorax (local consolidation, ground glass opacity, bilateral pulmonary infiltrate)
  • Coronavirus swabs
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7
Q

Virological testing for covid

A

Diagnostic samples for suspected cases include:

  • Nasopharyngeal swabs +/-
  • Sputum (if obtainable)

Upper resp tract samples are as follows:

  • Individual nose and throat swabs in separate collection tubes; OR
  • Combined nose and throat swab in one collection tube containing universal transport medium; OR
  • Single swab used for throat then nose

*do not send the sample through a pneumatic tube system

~75% sensitive, however highly specific

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8
Q

Principles of care provision: general issues (covid)

A
  • Isolation/cohort wards/transmission based precaution
  • Communication - restricted access to relatives
  • PPE - plastic apron, surgical mask, eye protection, disposable gloves. AGPs require surgical gown and FFP3 respirator
  • Ceiling of care decisions: ensure DNACPR in place, advanced directive, use of clinical frailty score (CFS) in those >65
  • Death: medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD) must be provided by a practitioner that has seen deceased alive in last 14 days
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9
Q

Principles of care provision: medical issues (covid)

A
  • Oxygenation: hypoxia associated with poor outcomes
  • Fluid management: patients rarely shocked on admission (advice oral rehydration), if shocked AVOID vigorous fluid resus use conservative fluid strategy to avoid ARDS, crystalloids should be used.
  • Thromboprophylaxis: LMWH unless contraindicated
  • Antibiotics (SMART/FOCUS/Sepsis)
  • Monitoring: regular documentation of RR, SaO2, temp, HR, BP, mental state, pain scale
  • Allied health issues: physiotherapy, dietician
  • Underlying disease management: ensure ongoing monitoring and management of any chronic disease issues
  • Critical care: required for up to 5% of patients, consider early invasive ventilation
  • Other complications: coagulopathy, DIC, acute myocarditis, heart failure
  • Delirium: provide regular orientation for patient, avoid constipation, treat pain, maintain oxygenation, identify and treat infections early, avoid urinary retention, review meds
  • Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
  • Palliation: restlessness and agitation - MIDAZOLAM 2.5-5mg SC
  • Treatment: corticosteroids (DEXAMETHASONE PO 6mg OD
    for 7-10 days or IV 5.94 mg OD for 7-10days / HYDROCORTISONE IV 50mg TDS for 7-10days
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10
Q

Features of deterioration/concern (covid) - mild/moderate/severe

A

Mild: sats >92% OA, RR<20, normotensive, usual cognition
Moderate: oxygen requirement of >4L per min, inspired oxygen >25%
Severe: unable to maintain target sats (92-96% or 88-92% in type 2 resp failure.), inspired oxygen of >50% to maintain target sats., RR > 30 despite oxygen, pH < 7.2, systolic BP <90, other organ failure, decreased conscious state

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11
Q

Classic signs of type 1 (IgE) allergic drug reaction

A

Urticaria, itching, angiooedema, bronchospasm, wheeze, hypotension

Symptoms typically occur within 30 mins of drug administration but not necessarily with first dose. Patient should continue to be observed for 6-12 hours following recovery.

ACE inhibitors can cause a pure angiooedema reaction - potentially many years after taking the medication

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12
Q

What to do in case of e.g. sepsis and unknown drug history?

A
  • Phonecall to GP or review of summary care record
  • Main concern whether patient has penicillin allergy which would mean they cannot be offered Tazocin
  • Essential however that antibiotics are initiated asap given sepsis
  • Severe allergies to gentamicin is rare (though not impossible). In this case still give and have emergency meds prepared in case.
  • If details cannot be confirmed, you may need to select second line alternative to Tazocin
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13
Q

Who can an allergy history be reliably obtained from?

A
  • Patient
  • Carer
  • GP
  • Community pharmacist
  • Care home
  • Medical notes
  • Summary care record
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14
Q

Taking an allergy history

A
  • All current and any recent drugs, including any over-the-counter medicines, herbal preparations and injections (including vaccines or contrast media).
  • The generic (non-proprietary or approved) name for the drug suspected of causing a reaction(s).
  • The exact signs, symptoms and severity of the allergic reaction.
  • When the reaction occurred.
  • How long the drug was taken before the reaction occurred.
  • Whether the allergy is a first-hand recollection
  • Document allergy status on drug chart, patient notes,, electronic systems and give wrist band
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15
Q

Non-allergic drug reactions

A

Common non-allergic drug-induced rashes:

  • MORBILLIFORM RASH > resemble urticaria but the lesions expand and become confluent unlike urticaria
  • ERYTHEMA MULTIFORME > may arise secondary to infection, or drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin and statins. Can rarely progress to SJS and potentially fatal Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)
  • FIXED DRUG ERUPTIONS > erythematous plaques that recur in the same place when the same drug is taken e.g. paracetamol, tetracyclines and NSAIDs
  • PHOTOSENSITIVITY
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16
Q

Cross-reacting drugs

A

PENICILLINS and CEPHALOSPORINS

  • Individuals with allergic history to penicillin are at risk of reacting to cephalosporins and other beta-lactam antimicrobials (both contain beta-lactam ring) so these should be avoided.
  • 3rd generation cephalosporins (e.g. ceftriaxone), however, can be used in these patients but with caution

CARBAPENAMS and MONOBACTAMS

  • Carbapenems include Doripenam, Meropenam, Ertapenam etc.. also contain beta-lactam ring. Patients allergic to peniccilin should also have high degree of sensitivity to Carbapenems however in practice only 1% show this.
  • Aztreonam (monobactam) can be safely prescribed to penicillin-allergic patients

**Hypersensitivity testing and specialist advice should be sought for patients where the use of penicillin and cephalosporin are clinically required

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17
Q

Risk factors for drug-induced allergic reactions

A
  • Atopic individuals (more likely to react to radiocontrast media)
  • Co-existing conditions: e.g. HIV/EBV/CMV/CF
  • Chronic urticaria or mastocytosis: may be sensitive to NSAIDs and opioids
  • Drug-dependant factors: e.g. beta-lactams, neuromuscular blocking agents/muscle relaxants, NSAIDs, chlorhexidine
  • Frequent and prolonged doses
  • Gender: women more at risk
  • Topical applications of drugs: cause more sensitisation than parenteral or enteral therapy. Altho parenteral administration causes a more rapid/severe reaction.
18
Q

Suspected drug allergy for drugs with known risk

A
  • Administer drug slowly
  • Sometimes a test dose is required before remaining dose is administered
  • Observe response
  • Observe injection site
  • Ensure adequate facilities to treat anaphylaxis at hand: adrenaline, corticosteroids, antihistamines.
19
Q

Assessment of severity of allergic reaction

A

Resuscitation Council UK criteria / (Sampson grading - should be used for organ system most affected)

  • Mild and moderate reactions > no evidence of systemic reaction - oral Chlorphenamine should be enough.
  • Severe reaction > hypotension, laryngeal oedema, wheeze, SpO2<92, impaired consciousness - IM adrenaline first line
  • Df Anaphylaxis: a severe, life-threatening, generalised or systemic hypersensitivity reaction
20
Q

Administration of adrenaline (allergic reaction)

A
  • Adult and child >12: 500 micrograms IM
  • Child 6-12: 300 micrograms IM
  • Child <6: 150 micrograms IM

You can repeat the IM dose of adrenaline if there is no improvement in patients condition. Further doses can be given at 5 min intervals according to response.

IV adrenaline may cause life-threatening arrhythmias and hypertension. Should only be prescribed and administered by specialist physicians. Pulse oximetry and ECG monitoring is essential.

Epipen contains 300 micrograms of adrenaline.

21
Q

Administration of antihistamines (allergic reaction)

A

Initial treatment with adrenaline should be immediately followed by administration of IV CHLORPHENAMINE and IV HYDROCORTISONE.

  • Adult and child >12: 10mg (slow IV or IM)
  • Child 6-12: 5mg
  • Child 6 months - 6 years: 2.5mg
  • Child <6 months: 250 micrograms/kg
22
Q

Administration of corticosteroids (allergic reaction)

A
  • Adult and child >12: 200mg (slow IV or IM)
  • Child 6-12: 100mg
  • Child 6 months - 6 years: 50mg
  • Child <6 months: 25mg
23
Q

Bronchodilators (allergic reaction)

A
  • Not referred to directly in Resuscitation Council algorithm
  • Inhaled or IV SALBUTAMOL can be used in management of anaphylaxis
  • Other bronchodilators include: ipratropium, aminophylline, magnesium
24
Q

Patient follow-up (anaphylaxis)

A
  • Prescribe PREDNISOLONE for up to 3 days
  • Prescribe a non-sedating anti-histamine for up to 3 days
  • Prescribe 2 adrenaline auto-injectors (i.e. Epipen)
  • Issue or recommend a medical alert band if reexposure if possible
  • Ensure allergy is documented
  • Communicate info to GP
  • Warn patient if drug or related drug can be bought as OTC meds
  • Provide structured written info to patient
  • Report adverse drug reaction to Yellow Card scheme
  • Refer patients to specialist center for further advice and possible investigation
25
Q

NICE guidelines for patients with suspected drug allergy

A
  • Determine reaction type - immediate rapidly evolving, non-immediate reaction without systemic involvement, non-immediate reaction with systemic invovlement
  • Document the features of the new reaction - generic and propriety name of drug, description of reaction, indication of suspected drug, date/time of reaction, number of days/hours taken before onset of reaction, route of administration etc.
  • In patients >16yrs, take timed blood samples dor mast cell tryptase as soon as possible after emergency treatment and 1-2 hours (but no later than 4 hours) following onset of symptoms
  • Document drug allergy status separately from adverse drug reactions
  • Refer to a specialist allergy service if appropriate
26
Q

Investigating allergic reactions

A
  • IgE assays > poor sensitivity (unreliable), however a positive result is usually indicative of a true allergy
  • Skin prick testing > gold standard really… usually to a parenteral preparation is undertaken using positive (histamine) and negative (saline) controls. This test is possible as long as drugs that prevent its effects have not been recently administered, examples include: antihistamines, H2 receptor antagonists, tricyclic antidepressants, systemic/topical corticosteroids.
  • Challenge > not advisable if a severe drug reaction has occurred and not appropriate for drugs such as NMBA
  • Mast cell tryptase > useful in suspected reaction during anesthesia. Samples should be taken immediately after patient stable, at 1-2 hours, and at 24 hours.
27
Q

A nurse asks you to prescribe fluids to a patient. How do you approach the situation?

A
  • Obtain history of how much they have been drinking/eating past few days. Corroborate with clinical monitoring (e.g. fluid balance chart)
  • Determine urine output
  • Check vital parameters such as temp, BP, pulse and RR and what trend has been over past few days
  • Check latest lab results (e.g. FBC, U+Es, creatinine)
  • Check if they have any extra sources of fluid loss (e.g. stomas or drains, vomiting)
  • Underlying rationale is that you need to work out what EXTRA losses this patient is having, over and above his maintenance requirements
28
Q

Fluid compartments

A

70kg man will have 42L of water in body overall.

  • Intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment - approx 65% (28L). High K+ concentration.
  • Extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment - approx 35% (14L). Can be further divided into intra and extravascular fluid. High Na+ concentration.
29
Q

Starling’s hypothesis

A

Fluid movement due to filtration across the wall of a capillary is dependant on the balance between the hydrostatic pressure gradient and the oncotic pressure gradient across the capillary.

Districution of water between intra and extracellular fluid compartments is determined largely by the extracellular sodium ion concentration.

30
Q

Oncotic pressure + Hydrostatic pressure

A

The osmotic pressure gradient between 2 compartments is provided mainly by large molecular weight proteins. This gradient is referred to as oncotic pressure. In a healthy individual the protein concentration is much lower in the interstitial fluid.

Hydrostatic pressure gradient is affected by circulatory and other pressures in tissues such as oedema, plaster casts or bandaging.

31
Q

Maintenance fluids

A

In average healthy adult, maintenance fluids are about 2-2.5L of fluid per day (e.g. 1.5L to replace fluid lost in urine and extra 500-800mL to replace insensible losses)

NICE Guidelines:

  • 25-30mL/kg/day of water
  • Approx. 1mmol/kg/day each of sodium, chloride and potassium
  • 50-100g/day of glucose to limit starvation ketosis
32
Q

Sources of fluid loss

A
  • Urine: 1ml/kg/day. In fluid replacement you should aim for a min urine output of 0.5ml/kg/day
  • GI losses: normally minor (about 100ml per day), however can be substantial in someone with diarrhoea. GI losses are usually a source of sodium, potassium and bicarbonate losses. Vomiting may cause a loss of potassium, chloride and hydrogen ions - hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.
  • Insensible losses: i.e. via skin (causes sodium loss mainly), breathing etc. Approximates 500-800ml/day
  • Miscellaneous: surgical (e.g. biliary drains), bleeding, burns
33
Q

Hypovolaemia and Hypervolaemia clinical signs

A

HYPOVOLEMIA

  • absent/low JVP on lying flat
  • decreased skin turgor
  • dry mucous membranes
  • low BP
  • oliguria/anuria
  • orthostatic hypotension
  • prolonged CRT
  • shock
  • tachycardia

HYPERVOLEMIA

  • cough +/- white frothy sputum
  • fluid accumulation within pleural cavities
  • hypertension
  • peripheral oedema
  • pulmonary oedema
  • SOB
  • S3/S4 heart sounds
  • tachycardia
34
Q

Fluid replacement

A

The fluid and rate you choose to prescribe to a patient should take into account: type of fluid loss, renal function, cardiac function, concomitant electrolyte abnormalities

Assessing dehydration: BP, CRT, fluid balance charts, response to straight leg raise - increases CO by increasing pre-load, skin turgor, weight, iatrogenic causes of dehydration e.g. kidney failure/diuretics

Fluid loss (sensible + insensible) - fluid intake = fluid deficit.

35
Q

Fluid types

A

CRYSTALLOIDS: essentially solutions of mineral salts

  • ISOTONIC > stays almost entirely in ECF compartment, e.g. NaCL 0.9%, commonly used –> 75% will go into extravascular (interstitial) space; 25% will go into intravascular space. So if patient loses 1L of blood from intravascular compartment, 4L of NaCL 0.9% should be administered.
  • Hypertonic > increase plasma tonicity and draw fluid out of cells. E.g. NaCl 3%, Mannitol
  • Hypotonic > not commonly used, lowers serum osmolarity. E.g. NaCl 0.45%
  • GLUCOSE 5% > fluid distributes across all body compartments i.e. 2/3 go to ICF and 1/3 go to ECF. So 25% of 1/3 will be going to intravascular compartment.

COLLOIDS: contain large molecules that could not readily transverse the capillary membrane owing to their size. These include blood, dextrans, gelatin (gelofusine), human albumin solution (used in pts with severe sepsis). Stays in the intravascular compartment 100% of 1L will go straight into vessels - so in emergency with volume depleted shocked patient, give whatever is available to maintain haemodynamic stability.

36
Q

Distributive and Hypovolemic shock

A

Distributive shock results in relative hypovolemia. Causes include sepsis, anaphylaxis and neurogenic shock.

Hypovolemic shock is the most common form of shock encountered. Causes include haemorrhage, burns or any cause of substantial fluid loss.
Shock owing to volume loss progresses in stages:
- Grade 1 - 15% - 750ml
- Grade 2 - 15-30% - 750-1500ml
- Grade 3 - 30-40% - 1500-2000ml
- Grade 4 - 40-50% - 2000-2500ml

37
Q

Cardiogenic and Obstructive shock

A

Cardiogenic shock is a relative or absolute reduction in CO due to a primary cardiac disorder. Circulatory collapse occurs as a result of pump failure.

Obstructive shock results when there is a physical impedance to the flow of blood. Causes include a massive PE and cardiac tamponade.

38
Q

Resuscitation
Maintenance
Replacement…fluids

A

RESUS: 500mL of 0.9% NaCl administered <15mins. Always in addition to maintenance. During this you should check MAP, UO and CRT.

MAINTENANCE: should be matched to the patients ideal body weight (IBW). Total volume required over a single day needs to be divided by 24 to calculate hourly rate. Consider prescribing less fluid for patients who are older adults and/or frail, have renal/cardiac failure, malnourished, and at risk of re-feeding syndrome.

REPLACEMENT: adjust the patients’ IV fluid prescription (add or subtract from calculated maintenance requirements) to account for existing fluid and/or electrolyte deficits or excesses, ongoing losses (e.g. diarrhoea) or abnormal distribution.

39
Q

Complications of fluid overload

A
  • Dilutional hyponatraemia
  • Pulmonary oedema

Tx is stop IV fluids, Furosemide, Sublingual/IV nitrate, CPAP

40
Q

Pitfalls of fluid replacement

A
  • Wrong rate of administration
  • Failing to account for unrecorded fluid losses
  • Failing to assess the pt before prescribing
  • Failing to consider comorbidities before prescribing
  • Hypernatraemia in the euvolemic patient following continuous administration of NaCl without adequate review
  • Dilutional hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia
  • Failure to consider potassium loss
  • Failure to monitor U+Es

**4 Ds of fluid therapy > Drug, Dose, Duration, De-escalation > have they all been considered??