Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

pediatrics > preptest1 > Flashcards

preptest1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 main goals in neonatal resuscitation?

A

Warmth & Stimulation
Oxygenation & Ventilation
Circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name the 5 parameters scored with APGAR

A 
Muscle tone
Respirations
Reflex
Color
HR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When are the APGAR scores assessed? What intervals

A

1 min after birth, then 5 min

If still below 7, every 5 min until reaches 7 for 20 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T or F: APGAR is not as reliable in VLBW infants

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Muscle tone, respiratory effort & reflexes can be important indicators of what two statuses?

A

Neurological & Cardiovascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T or F: Sodium Bicarb, as similar to adult resuscitation care, is very seldom used in post resuscitation care in neonates:

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
What is the major item of concern in  neonates when experiencing respiratory arrest?
A. Heart function
B. Warming & drying
C.  Opening airway
D.  Sepsis
E.  All of the above
A

C. Opening Airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
What is the major item of concern in adults when experiencing respiratory arrest?
A.  Heart function
B.  Hydration
C.  Opening airway
D.  Septic shock
E.  All of the above
A

A. Heart Function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the order of the ABC’s of resuscitation in adults?

A

C A B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the order of the ABC’s in neonates?

A

A B C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you address the A of resuscitation in neonates?

A

Airway: Position & Clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do you address the B of resuscitation in neonates?

A

Breathing: Stimulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you address the C of resuscitation in neonates?

A

Circulation: assess HR, oxygenation: oxygen, PPV, intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can you determine if apnea is primary vs secondary?

A

If baby responds to stimulation, then primary apnea, if not then secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What items should be part of resuscitation care monitoring?

A

BP & Vitals
Chest x-ray
Glucose level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Respiratory rates that exceed 60 bpm but normalize over next several hours may indicate

a. RDS
b. not abnormal
c. delayed closing of foramen ovale
d. transient tachypnea of newborn

A

D. transient tachypnea of newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T or F: all newborns display an irregular breathing pattern.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in premature neonates is characterized by irregular patterns of intermittent respiratory pauses longer than 5 seconds.
A. Primary apnea
B. Secondary apnea
C. periodic breathing
D. Late decelerations
A

C. periodic breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Apnea is a condition in which breathing ceases for longer than _______.

A

15-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many vessels are present in umbilical cord?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When resuscitation is needed & HR does not improve & you see no chest rise what steps of corrective actions can you take?

A 
(MRSOPA)
M= Mask Adjustment; R=Reposition Airway
as seal may be problem
S= Suction mouth, then nose
O= Open mouth slightly
P= Pressure increases
A= Alternative Airway (ET tube, LMA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
What type of PPV may be useful in delivery room during mild to moderate respiratory distress?
A.  BIPAP
B. CPAP
C. Only blow-by
D. HFNC
A

B. CPAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
Indications for assisted ventilation include:
I. Apnea
II. Gasping after stimulation
III HR less than 120
IV Irregular breathing pattern
A. I & II
B. I, II, & III
C. I, III, IV
D.  All of the above
A

I & II= apnea or gasping after stimulation

HR must be less than 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
What devices/or apparatus can be used to deliver positive pressure breaths in neonates with mask ventilation?
I Blender
II. Self inflating Bag
III. T-piece resuscitator
IV. Oxyhood
A.  II & III
B.  I, II, III
C. II, III, IV
D.  All of the above
A

A. Self inflating bag, flow inflating bag, & T piece resuscitator can all provide PPV with mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T or F: Self Inflating Bags cannot deliver high concentrations of O2

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If a pop off valve is present what is the typical preset limits?

A

30-35 cmH2o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How can you monitor pressure with a self inflating bag?

A

Attach a manometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
What must you do to deliver high concentrations of O2 with self inflating bags?
I. Add manometer
II. Remove pop off valve
III.  Add O2 source
IV. Add an O2 reservoir
A. I, III, IV
B. II, III, IV
C. III, IV
D.  All of the above
E. None of the above, only flow inflating bags or T-piece can deliver high concentrations of Oxygen
A

C. Add O2 source & reservoir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the correct technique for holding a mask to the face of a newborn?
A. Fingers are placed touching neck & soft tissue to hyperextend the neck
B. Fingers placed on anterior margin of mandible, lifting face into mask, not touching neck or soft tissue under chin
C. Placing finger under the chin gently, & hyperextending neck to clear airway
D. Fingers placed at bottom of mask, & top making no contact with neonatal skin

A

B. Not touching neck or soft tissue under chin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q 
What is an appropriate pressure range for pre-term infants?
A. 35-40 cmH2O
B. 25-30 CmH2O
C. 20-25 cmH2O
D. 35-45 cmH2O
A

C. 20-25 cmH2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q 
What is an appropriate pressure range for unresponsive, term infant?
A. 20-40 cmH2O
B. 15-20 cmH2O
C. 30-50 cmH2O
D. 30-60 cmH2O
A

A. 20-40 cmH2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

______ inflates only with pressure and flow from compressed gas source of air, O2 or both.

A

Flow inflating bag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q 
With a flow inflating bag how do you prevent over or underdistention & bag nor bag deflation in resuscitation efforts?
I. Use correct gas flows (8-10 lpm)
II. Add peep valve
III. Monitor for tight seal
IV. Correct adjustment of flow control valve
A. I, II, III
B. I, IV
C.  II, III, IV
D. All of the above
A

B. Use correct flow, adust flow control valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which resuscitator can offer reliable control of PIP & PEEP

A

T piece resuscitator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which device can deliver free flow O2 the best?

A

Flow inflating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which device best delivers consistent breath to breath pressures?

A

T piece

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When intubation is needed with diaphragmatic hernia what else should you do?

A

Add nasogastric tube to decompress bowel & allow lungs to inflate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is your dose of blood volume expanders?

A

10 ml/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T or F: Blood expanders can be given via umbilical vein

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a scoring system used to assess degree of respiratory distress.
A.  APGAR
B. Ballard Score
C. Silverman Score
D. Dubouitz Score
E. FBP Score
A

C. Silverman score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a scoring system to assess fetal well being & placental function
A. APGAR
B. Ballard Score
C.  Silverman Score
D.  Dubouitz Score
E. FBP Score
A

E. Fetal Biophysical profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_ is a scoring system to assess gestational age based on 6 neurological & 6 physical parameters & is most reliable if performed within hours after birth.
A. APGAR
B. Ballard
C. Silverman Score
D. Dubouitz Score
E. FBP Score
A

B. Ballard Score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a scoring system to assess gestational age based on 11 physical & 12 neurological parameters & most reliable when performed within 1st 5 days of life & can be accurate up to 2 weeks.
A. APGAR
B. Ballard
C. Silverman Score
D. Dubouitz Score
E. FBP Score
A

D. Dubouitz Score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a scoring system to assess status of newborns immediately following birth.
A. APGAR
B. Ballard
C.  Silverman
D. Dubouitz Score
E. FBP Score
A

A. APGAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Name 4 types of heat loss

A

Convective: Object transfers heat to surrounding air
Conductive Heat: Direct contact with body
Evaporative Heat Loss: Via energy when liquid transfers to gas
Radiation Loss: No medium of heat transfer, done via vacuum or electromagnetic waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The use of Warmed blankets is an example of preventing which type of heat loss?

A

Conductive due to direct contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Control of room temperature & preventing drafts would be an example of preventing what type of heat loss?

A

Convective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Drying the neonate is a form of preventing what type of heat loss?

A

Evaporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

In neonate CPR compressions & PPV must be coordinated with a ratio of?

A

3:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How many chest compressions should occur in 1 min?

A

90 compressions in a minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are two methods for delivering compressions?

A

Two finger technique

Thumb technique

52
Q

How often should HR be assessed when performing neonatal CPR?

A

every 30 seconds

53
Q

What dose of epinephrine can be administered?

A

0.1-0.3 ml/kg of 1:10,000 solution repeated every 3-5 minutes during pulseless arrest

54
Q

The use of epinephrine in neonates especially poses what hazard?

A

intracranial bleeding

55
Q

After ______ minutes of resuscitation if no responses discontinuation may be justified if no sign of life

A

10 min

56
Q

Which of the following is the initial step in stabilizing an infant?
A. proper positioning under radiant warmer
B. Suctioning of mouth and nose with bulb syringe
C. Determining HR
D. Determining APGAR score

A

A. radiant warmer

57
Q

What is the proper procedure to implement for an infant known to have experienced meconium aspiration?
A. OB should suction the mouth, nose, and pharynx after delivery of head but before delivery of shoulders.
B. Intubate immediately & aspirate trachea, using meconium aspirator regardless of whether infant is vigorous
C. Treat infant exactly as if meconium not present
D. Intubate & suctin only if infant is not vigorous, follow normal resuscitation procedures

A

D.

58
Q 
Which of the following is an appropriate way to stimulate an infant
I. Flicking bottoms of feet
II. Gently shaking shoulders
III. Drying with warm towel
IV. Gently rubbing back
A. I, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. III, & IV
D. All of the above
A

A. I, III, IV

Not shaking

59
Q 
When delivering PPV the recommended breath rate is 
A. 20-40 bpm
B. 40-60 bpm
C. 60-80 bpm
D. at least 100 bpm
A

B. 40-60 bpm

60
Q 
Where can HR be best felt on neonate?
A. Brachial pulse
B. Umbilical cord
C. Pedal artery
D. Cephalic Vein
A

B. umbilical cord

61
Q

T or F: If acrocyanosis if present immediately following birth O2 therapy should be given

A

F: not always required as there is sluggish peripheral circulation immediately following birth

62
Q

T or F: The use of fluid therapy immediately following resuscitation should be avoided due to potential for edema.

A

False: use of fluid therapy is appropriate

63
Q 
Following resuscitation the patient must be monitored especially close for:
A. hypoglycemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hypercalcemia
E. both A & B
F. Both A & D
G. Both C & D
H. All of the above
A

A & B

Hypoglycemia & hypocalcemia

64
Q

What is normal HR in neonates?

A

120-170

65
Q

What is normal BP after 12 hrs of life?

A

75/50

66
Q

What is a normal Mean BP after 12 hrs?

A

60 mmHg

67
Q

Capillary refill on neonate should be less than ____.

A

3 seconds

68
Q 
Skin color is an indicator of 
I. Perfusion
II. intravascular volume
III. HR
IV. Respiratory Rate
A. I, II, III
B. I & II
C. I only
D. All of the above
A

B. I & II

69
Q

Name 5 signs of respiratory distress

A

Nasal flaring, expiratory grunting, tachypnea, & retractions

70
Q

T or F: In respiratory distress, nasal flaring a sign of air hunger occurs during inspiration in an effort to draw in more air whereas grunting occurs in expiration as an effort to maintain lung volume by increasing end expiratory pressure

A

T

71
Q 
Retractions usually:
I occur at inspiration
II occur at expiration
III. Sign of reduced lung compliance
IV. Sign of obstructive airway process
A. I & II, III
B. I, III, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. III only
E. All of the above
A

B. Retractions indicate reduced compliance or normal compliance with obstructive airway, occur at inspiration

72
Q

When comparing the chest wall of neonate with adult, what differences are observed
I. Chest wall & thoracic cage is less flexible
II. Chest wall & thoracic cage is more flexible
III. Retractions are harder to see in neonates due to increased chest wall compliance
IV. Retractions are easier to observe
V. Abdominal & thoracic muscles move in parallel
VI. Abdominal & thoracic muscles move in opposition to each other at inspiration & expiration
A. I, III, VI
B. I & IV
C. II, III, V
D. I, IV, V

A

D. In neonates:

Chest wall is: more flexible, easier to identify retractions, & muscles move in parallel

73
Q

T or F: Paradoxical respirations mean thoracic & abdominal respiratory efforts are synchronous.

A

False: paradoxical respirations mean disynchrony between thoracic & abdominal efforts; this is also seen as a see saw effect & indicates severe respiratory distress

74
Q

T or F: auscultation of the newborn can prove difficult because sounds easily transmit from one lung region to the other as the chest is small & abdominal sounds may be heard as well

A

True

75
Q

Bowel sounds heart in the place of absent breath sounds is an indicator of _____.

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

76
Q

To distinguish stridor vs wheezing in neonate, if you place the stethoscope at neck then
A. If stridor: breath sounds are louder at neck than chest
B. If wheezing, Breath sounds louder at neck
C. If wheezing, breath sounds are lower in chest

A

A. Stridor: breath sounds normally louder at neck than chest; if wheezing then you will probably hear sound louder at chest area then neck

77
Q

If you hear diminished breath sounds this can be caused by:
A. secretions in large bronchi
B. Turbulent air flow from small airway obstruction
C. Pulmonary edema or pneumonia
D. RDS, atelectasis, or pulmonary interstitial edema

A

D. RDS, atelectasis, PIE, Shallow respirations can cause diminished breath sounds

78
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_ breath sounds commonly are heard from bronchoconstriction or secretions.
A. Rhonchi
B. Wheezing
C. Stridor
D. Crackles
A

B. Wheezing

79
Q

This breath sound is most commonly heard at inspiration.
A. Stridor
B. Wheezing

A

A. Stridor normally heard at inspiration & wheezing in expiration in neonates

80
Q 
These breath sounds commonly heard with RDS:
I. Wheezing at expiration
II. Crackles
III. Rales
IV. Diminished breath sounds
A. II, & III
B. II, III, IV
C. IV only
D. All are commonly present
A

B. RDS often occurs with diminished breath sounds, crackles or rales which may be associated with pulmonary edema

81
Q

If you have an infant that has severe tachypnea, normal chest x-ray, & normal chest exam what most likely may be the cause?
A. Cardiopulmonary abnormality
B. Effort to blow off CO2 & increase blood pH
C. PPHN
D. Idiopathic reasons

A

B. since normal findings most likely not cardiopulmonary problem but just an effort to increase pH & remove CO2

82
Q

If you hear bowel sounds in the chest the most likely diagnosis is diaphragmatic hernia, but a differential diagnosis could be?

A

Pneumothorax, especially if scaphoid abdomen is present as this is a sign

83
Q 
When you have the classic signs of meconium aspiration & breath sounds are decreased you should also consider other clinical findings of:
I. Hyperexpansion of chest
II. Atelectasis
III pneumothorax
IV. pneumonia
A. I, II
B. I, II, IV
C. I, II, III
D. any are just as likely
A

C. meconium aspiration: you should also consider hyperexpansion of chest, atelectasis, pneumothorax

84
Q 
If you suspect or diagnose PPHN you may want to rule out a differential diagnosis of?
I. Pneumothorax
II. Atelectasis
III. Polycythemia
IV. Congenital heart defect
A. I, II
B. I, IV
C. III, IV
D. IV only
A

III, IV

PPHN: you should consider polycythemia, hypothermia, hypoglycemia or hypomg, heart defect, right to left shunt

85
Q 
When you suspect RDS another condition commonly associated with this is?
A. PPHN
B. Secondary Apnea
C. Transient tachypnea
D. Diabetic mothers
A

D. Diabetic mothers

86
Q 
What type of breath sounds are associated with apnea of prematurity?
A Diminished or absent
B. Crackles
C. grunting
D. Normal
A

D. Normal breath sounds

87
Q

What is correct about PMI:
I. Position on chest wall in which cardiac impulse seen
II. Viewed easily in newborns due to thin, flexible chest wall
III. Located close to sternal border
IV Pneumothorax will cause a shift in PMI away form affected side
A. I, II
B. I, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. all of the above

A

D. All are correct

88
Q 
In a pneumothorax what finding would you see when using transillumination technique
I. Irregular area of light
II. Glowing area through chest wall
III. Pink on unaffected side
IV. Pink on affected side
A. I, II, IV
B. I, II, III
C. II, IV
D. I, II only
A

A. I, II, iV

89
Q

T or F: Heart murmurs are rare following birth but if present are associated with congenital heart defect

A

F: Heart murmurs are common & normally are transient

90
Q 
A bounding pulse felt on a neonate may mean:
I. Open ductus arteriosus
II. Low cardiac output
III. Shunting
IV. Shock
A. II, III, IV
B. II, IV
C. I, III
D. All of the above
A

C. Bounding pulse: shunting: right to left; patent ductus arteriosus

A weak pulse indicates possibly low cardiac output or shock

91
Q

T or F: Brachial & Femoral pulses should be equal in intensity

A

True

92
Q

When measuring pre-ductal sites vs post ductal with pulse OX when preductal higher can indicate presence of?

A

PPHN, or R-L ductal shunting

93
Q

______ is a bowel infection characterized by sepsis, obstruction, ascites, & significant mortality; abdominal distention may be present

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis

94
Q

_______ is often seen with a scaphoid, hollowed or unusually flattened diaphragm.

A

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

95
Q

The umbilical chord has ___ vessels; ____ umbilical arteries; ______ vein.

A

3 vessels; 2 arteries that are thick walled; 1 vein that is thin

96
Q

What surrounds the arteries & veins of umbilical chord?

A

Whartons jelly

97
Q 
Examining this on the neonates head can indicate genetic abnormalities if posteriorly rotated or low set.
A. Ears
B. Eyes
C. Nose
D. A & B
A

A. Ears

98
Q

T or F: When you alternately occlude each nostril you can check for an incomplete opening into the nasopharynx due to membranous or bony structures.

A

True: this condition is called choanal atresia: if bilateral will need to intubate via oral airway

99
Q

T or F: Variations in patterns of skin folds & palm prints can indicate a disorder such as Down Syndrome & usually observed via the simian crease.

A

True: The Simian Crease is a single transverse crease across palm instead of the two normally seen across the palm. Commonly seen in Down Syndrome but in 5-10% of cases can be seen in normal individuals

100
Q

T or F: Crying in piercing, high pitched way indicates RDS.

A

False: Often in respiratory distress syndrome you may hear grunting cry; piercing, high pitched indicates neurologic injury, drug withdrawal, or increased intracranial pressure

101
Q

T or F: Infants with normal tone will maintain extremities in flat position at rest.

A

False: they maintain a flexed position at rest

102
Q

_____ is a reflex that occurs when head is allowed to fall back slightly, the startle reaction to sound or touch is similar in response.

A

Moro Reflex

103
Q

When you press a finger against the sole of the foot what occurs?

A

Toes curve downward, called plantar grasp reflex

104
Q 
What tests are performed to check for sepsis?
I. Blood culture
II. CBC
III. ABG
IV. Hgb
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, iV
C. I, II
D. II
A

C. I & II blood culture & CBC

105
Q

The WBC of newborn is ______ than adult.
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Same value

A

A. Higher
typical value is 18.1 - 18.9 x 1000 (18,000) cells/mm3
(compared to adult at 4,500 - 11, 500)

106
Q

An elevated WBC greater than 25,000 or lowered below 3500 suggest?

A

Infection

107
Q

Besides the WBC what other lab value may indicate chronic infection?

A

Platelet count: A lowered count (less than 150,000) associated with chronic infection; platelets also decreased in DIC or disseminated intravascular coagulation

108
Q

A normal platelet count in term newborn in first 3 days of life?

A

300,000

Normal range for adult is 150,000-300,000

109
Q

The newborn infant tends to have ______ (increased or decreased) Hgb or Hct at birth.

A

Increased: Hgb at 1-3 days is 18.5 g/dl (normal adult is 12- 15)
Hct= 56% (Hct in adult normally 3 x Hgb around 40-45%)

110
Q

Glucose measurements are typically a routine screening as many newborns are at risk for _______.

A

Hypoglycemia
< 45 or > 125 is abnormal
In adult normal glucose is 70-110

111
Q 
WBC types:
Basophils:  Reduced may indicate?
Monocytes: ?
Eosinophils: ?
Neutorphils: ?
Lymphocytes: ?
A

Basophils: reduced may mean allergic reaction, respond to histamine release; mast cells; decrease in allergic response & stress
Monocytes: Fight chronic infection, bacterial infection
Eosinophils: Allergic disorders, they ingest; common in parasitic infections will increase
Neutrophils: Most common, phagocytosis; acute bacterial infection will increase baby cells or bands
Lymphocytes: Fungal infections; autoimmune will increase

112
Q 
The ideal time to assess gestational age is:
A. first 30 min
B. first hour of life
C. First 12 hours
D. First 24 hrs
A

C. First 12 hours

113
Q

A pale or mottled skin on an infant suggests what condition?

A

Anemia or hypotension; decreased perfusion

114
Q

A skin color that is ruddy, reddish blue may be associated with?

A

Polycythemia, or high HCT

115
Q

The presence of vernix abundantly on the skin indicates?

A

preterm infant or earlier gestational age

116
Q

T or F: Irregular patches of pale blue-black pigmentation over sacrum & buttocks in black & asian infants indicates bruising or trauma.

A

False: this is normal finding

117
Q

Skin that is pale or white may indicate?

A

Hypovolemia or blood loss

118
Q

Which of the following statements is False?
A. Mild to moderate jaundice that appears shortly after birth on first day of life is normal
B. A central Hct of 65% or greater is an indicator of polycythemia or neonatal hyperviscosity syndrom
C. Excessive, abundant vernix caseosa is suggestive of preterm infant.
D. Yellow green staining of skin, nails & umbilical cord is suggestive of meconium staining

A

A. Mild to moderate jaundice is unusual on first day of life; becomes common after first day

119
Q 
An infant whose femoral pulses are weaker than radial or brachial should be evaluated for 
A. patent ductus arteriosus
B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
C. Coarctation of the aorta
D. Tetralogy of Fallot
A

C. Coarctation of the aorta

120
Q

When reading to pulse ox probes on newborn; On the right wrist it shows 95% on room air; On left foot says 84% on room air; this is suggestive of
A. Normal cardiopulmonary function
B. Anemia
C. RDS
D. Significant shunting via a patent ductus arteriosus

A

D. Shunting

121
Q 
A newborn with respiratory distress with profoundly diminished breath sounds on left &amp; a scaphoid or hollow appearance of abdomen; they should be evaluated for:
A. Diaphragmatic hernia
B. Omphalocele
C. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
D. RDS
A

A. Diaphragmatic hernia

122
Q

A newborn is observed to have a small, receding lower jaw, a tongue that seems too large for the mouth, slight cleft palate & is in respiratory distress; the best immediate action is
A. insert appropriately sized oral airway
B. Bag/Mask ventilation with 100% O2
C. Continue to observe & monitor as this type of defect cannot be corrected
D. Place infant in prone position

A

A. Oral airway

123
Q 
The minimal platelet count in newborn is:
A. 25,000
B. 50,000
C 100,000
D. 150,000
A

D. 150,000

124
Q 
When examining the chest wall an increased anteroposterior diameter, abnormal shape, or muscular weakness may indicate?
A. Severe bronchopulmonary dysplasia
B. RDS
C. PPHN
D. Diaphragmatic hernia
A

A. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

125
Q 
Compensatory measures for infants &amp; young children to decrease WOB include:
I. Head bobbing
II. Nasal Flaring
III. Grunting
IV. Hyperventilation
A. II, III
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, IV
D.  All of the above
A

B. head bobbing, nasal flaring & grunting

126
Q

In newborns, FRC or the resting volume of lungs at end expiration is
A. lower
B. higher

A

A. lower frc due to very compliant chest wall; preterm infants with RDS have abnormally low FRC due to alveolar collapse

127
Q 
RDS may result in:
I. low lung volume
II. low compliance
III. increased WOB
IV Lower FRC
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. I, II, III
D. All of the above
A

D. all of the above

pediatrics (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions