PrepJet Practice Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The test manual for an academic achievement test indicates that it has an alternate forms reliability coefficient of .80. This means that ____ of variability in test scores is true score variability:

A. 80%

B. 64%

C. 36%

D. 20%

A

A. 80%

Reliability coefficients are interpreted directly as the percent of variability in test scores that is due to true score variability. When the reliability coefficient is .80, this means that 80% of variability in scores is due to true score variability and 20% is due to measurement error.

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2
Q

In the context of test construction, “shrinkage” is associated with:

A. inter-rater reliability.

B. factor analysis.

C. incremental validity.

D. cross-validation.

A

D. cross-validation.

Shrinkage is associated with cross-validation and refers to the fact that a validity coefficient is likely to be smaller than the original coefficient when the predictor(s) and criterion are administered to another (cross-validation) sample. Shrinkage occurs because the chance factors that contributed to the relationship between the predictor(s) and criterion in the original sample are not present in the cross-validation sample.

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3
Q

When conducting a one-way ANOVA, an F-ratio is calculated by dividing the mean square between (MSB) by the mean square within (MSW). The mean square between provides an estimate of variability in dependent variable scores due to:

A. treatment effects only.

B. error only.

C. treatment effects plus error.

D. treatment effects minus error.

A

C. treatment effects plus error.

MSB is a measure of variability due to a combination of treatment effects plus error, while MSW is a measure of variability due to error only. When MSB is divided by MSW, this produces the F-ratio which provides an estimate of treatment effects.

Inferential Statistical Tests

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4
Q

According to Fiedler’s (1967) contingency theory, a low LPC leader is most effective in:

A. moderately favorable situations.

B. very unfavorable situations.

C. very favorable situations.

D. very unfavorable and very favorable situations.

A

D. very unfavorable and very favorable situations.

According to Fiedler, low LPC leaders are most effective in very unfavorable and very favorable situations, while high LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations.

Organizational Leadership

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5
Q

____________ syndrome affects males, is due to the presence of an extra X chromosome, and causes a number of physical abnormalities.

A. Prader-Willi

B. Angelman

C. Klinefelter

D. Turner

A

C. Klinefelter

The symptoms of Klinefelter syndrome vary, but most males with an extra X chromosome have undeveloped testes, breast enlargement, long limbs with a short trunk, less facial and body hair, and a low testosterone level.

Early Influences on Development

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6
Q

An employer is concerned about the low motivation of many of her employees and decides to interview them to obtain information on how to alleviate this problem. Being familiar with Vroom’s (1964) expectancy theory, the employer will ask employees about all of the following except:

A. expectancy.

B. instrumentality.

C. commitment.

D. valence.

A

C. commitment.

Knowing that expectancy theory is also known as VIE theory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: “V” refers to valence, “I” to instrumentality, and “E” to expectancy.

Theories of Motivation

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7
Q

Which of the following has been found to modify the nature of the relationship between message discrepancy and attitude change?

A. the recipient’s sense of self-efficacy

B. the processing channel used by the recipient of the message

C. the credibility of the source of the message

D. the level of fear aroused by the message

A

C. the credibility of the source of the message

In general, the relationship between amount of attitude change and message discrepancy has an inverted-U shape, with the greatest amount of change being produced by a moderate level of discrepancy between the recipient’s attitude and the attitude expressed in the persuasive message. However, when communicator credibility is considered, the relationship for high-credible communicators is linear, with the amount of attitude change increasing as the level of discrepancy increases (Aronson, Turner, & Carlsmith. 1963).

Persuasion

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8
Q

The tendency to attribute all problems experienced by students with learning disabilities to their learning disabilities and overlook other possible explanations is an example of the:

A. fundamental attribution error.

B. halo bias.

C. diagnostic overshadowing bias.

D. base rate fallacy.

A

C. diagnostic overshadowing bias.

The diagnostic overshadowing bias is the tendency to attribute all of a person’s symptoms to one diagnosis (e.g., to a learning disability) and overlook the possibility that they may be due to a comorbid condition.

Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research

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9
Q

For practitioners of Gestalt therapy, a key contributor to neurotic behavior is which of the following?

A. cognitive entanglement

B. exposure to conditions of worth

C. a contact boundary disturbance

D. psychological rigidity

A

C. a contact boundary disturbance

An assumption underlying Gestalt therapy is that contact boundary disturbances underlie neurosis, and it distinguishes between four main types of boundary disturbance: introjection, retroflection, projection, and confluence.

Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies

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10
Q

An advertising agency has been hired by a dog food company to re-design the labels for its products. The agency prepares seven different labels for canned dog food and, to determine which label customers prefer, has a sample of 300 dog owners choose the label they like the most. Which of the following is the appropriate statistical test to use to determine if there’s a significant difference in the number of dog owners who chose each label?

A. single-sample chi-square test

B. multiple-sample chi-square test

C. one-way ANOVA

D. factorial ANOVA

A

A. single-sample chi-square test

The first and second steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are identifying the study’s independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. However, this study has only one variable and, in this situation, it’s just necessary to identify that variable’s scale of measurement: The variable is type of label and it’s measured on a nominal scale. The chi-square test is used to analyze nominal data and, when there’s only one variable, the single-sample chi-square test is the appropriate test. Note that the single-sample chi-square test is also known as the one-sample chi-square test and the chi-square goodness-of-fit test.

Inferential Statistical Tests

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11
Q

Which of the following describes the relationship between a test’s reliability coefficient and its criterion-related validity coefficient?

A. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than its reliability coefficient.

B. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient.

C. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of one minus its reliability coefficient.

D. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square of its reliability coefficient.

A

B. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient.

A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient. For example, if a test has a reliability coefficient of .81, its criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of .81, which is .90.

Criterion-Related Validity

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12
Q

At the beginning of her third therapy session, your new client says she’s “already feeling much better.” According to Howard et al.’s (1996) phase model, the client’s improvement is most likely due to which of the following?

A. the formation of a therapeutic alliance

B. an initial decrease in symptoms

C. the experience of catharsis

D. an increased sense of hope

A

D. an increased sense of hope

According to Howard et al.’s phase model, the effects of therapy change over time and occur in three phases – remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation. Remoralization occurs during the first few sessions and involves an increased sense of hope that a positive outcome is possible.

Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research

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13
Q

Which of the following is a type of counterbalanced design?

A. Solomon four-group

B. Latin square

C. factorial

D. multiple-baseline

A

B. Latin square

Counterbalancing is used to control order effects that may occur when a within-subjects design is used – i.e., when subjects in each group will receive or participate in all levels of the independent variable. The Latin square is a type of counterbalanced design that ensures that the different levels of the independent variable are assigned to the groups of subjects so that each level appears an equal number of times in each ordinal position.

Internal/External Validity

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14
Q

The questions included in ____________ ask experienced job applicants to describe how they handled specific job-related situations in the past.

A. a situational interview

B. a behavioral interview

C. a case interview

D. an informational interview

A

B. a behavioral interview

Behavioral interviews are based on the assumption that past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior. When conducting a behavioral interview, the interviewer asks job applicants with previous job experience how they responded to specific job-related situations in the past.

Employee Selection

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15
Q

The court’s ruling in the 1979 case of Larry P. v. Wilson Riles:

A. prohibited businesses from using IQ tests to make hiring decisions about African American job applicants.

B. prohibited schools from using IQ tests to place African American children in special education classes.

C. granted all children with disabilities the right to be provided with public education in the least restrictive environment.

D. granted businesses the right to use cognitive ability tests to make employment decisions as long as the tests have adequate validity.

A

B. prohibited schools from using IQ tests to place African American children in special education classes.

In the Larry P. case, the court concluded that use of standardized IQ tests to place children in special education classes resulted in a disproportionate number of African American students being placed in those classes and ruled that the tests could no longer be used for that purpose for African American students.

Other Measures of Cognitive Ability

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16
Q

In the context of factor analysis, “oblique” means:

A. statistically significant.

B. statistically insignificant.

C. uncorrelated.

D. correlated.

A

D. correlated.

The factors extracted (identified) in a factor analysis can be either orthogonal or oblique. Orthogonal factors are uncorrelated, while oblique factors are correlated.

Content and Construct Validity

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17
Q

The tendency for people to overestimate the frequency of deaths due to plane crashes and shark attacks and underestimate deaths due to heart disease can be attributed to reliance on which of the following?

A. availability heuristic

B. anchoring and adjustment heuristic

C. counterfactual thinking

D. false consensus effect

A

A. availability heuristic

When using the availability heuristic, people base their judgments about the frequency or likelihood of an event on how easy it is to recall relevant examples of the event. Events that are uncommon but memorable (e.g., deaths due to plane crashes or shark attacks) are more easily remembered than events that are more common but less memorable.

Social Cognition: Errors, Biases, and Heuristics

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18
Q

Ella took Spanish classes in her last two years of high school but decided to learn French in college instead of continuing with Spanish. She found that, even after studying French for two semesters, whenever she tried to recall the French equivalent for an English word, she’d recall the Spanish word instead. Ella’s experience illustrates which of the following?

A. retroactive interference

B. proactive interference

C. the serial position effect

D. the recency effect

A

B. proactive interference

Proactive interference occurs when prior learning (e.g., Spanish) interferes with the ability to learn or recall new information (e.g., French).

Memory and Forgetting

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19
Q

An organizational psychologist is hired by the owner of Best Plumbing Supply to determine why so many of her employees seem to have low levels of job motivation and satisfaction. The owner says she recently gave employees salary increases and bonuses for outstanding performance, but this did not have a noticeable effect. Being familiar with ____________, the psychologist will most likely tell the owner that, to increase motivation and satisfaction, she should redesign the employees’ jobs so they provide opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement.

A. two-factor theory

B. equity theory

C. goal-setting theory

D. situational leadership theory

A

A. two-factor theory

The psychologist’s recommendation is most consistent with Herzberg’s (1966) two-factor theory which predicts (a) that hygiene factors (e.g., pay, benefits, and work conditions) cause dissatisfaction when they’re inadequate but do not contribute to satisfaction or motivation when they’re adequate and (b) that motivator factors (e.g., opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement) do not cause dissatisfaction when they’re inadequate but contribute to satisfaction and motivation when they’re adequate.

Theories of Motivation

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20
Q

Which of the following is most consistent with ethical guidelines for contingent fees?

A. Accepting contingent fees is prohibited under any circumstances.

B. Accepting contingent fees should usually be avoided.

C. Accepting contingent fees is acceptable when all parties voluntarily agree to this arrangement.

D. Accepting contingent fees is acceptable as long as it is not prohibited by law.

A

B. Accepting contingent fees should usually be avoided.

The APA Ethics Code does not refer to contingent fees, but they are addressed in Paragraph 5.02 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology. It states that, “because of the threat to impartiality presented by the acceptance of contingent fees and associated legal prohibitions, forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees.” This answer is also consistent with the requirements of the Canadian Code of Ethics regarding fees for professional services and conflicts of interest (e.g., Standard III.28).

Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6

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21
Q

____________ preventions are aimed at lowering the prevalence of a disorder by identifying individuals who have early signs or symptoms of the disorder and providing them with an intervention to limit its intensity or duration.

A. Primary

B. Secondary

C. Tertiary

D. Quaternary

A

B. Secondary

The goal of secondary prevention is to stop the progression of a disorder by using a screening test or other procedure to identify individuals with early signs or symptoms of the disorder and providing them with an appropriate intervention.

Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research

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22
Q

A young man taking a conventional antipsychotic as a treatment for schizophrenia develops tardive dyskinesia. Of the following, which would be the best course of action in this situation?

A. increase the dose of the conventional antipsychotic

B. replace the conventional antipsychotic with an atypical antipsychotic

C. immediately discontinue the conventional antipsychotic

D. have the patient take a low dose of a dopamine antagonist

A

B. replace the conventional antipsychotic with an atypical antipsychotic

The atypical antipsychotics are less likely to cause tardive dyskinesia and, if a patient’s symptoms require continued treatment with an antipsychotic drug, switching to an atypical drug is an option. The actions described in the other answers would increase the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. (Withdrawing the conventional antipsychotic is also an option but gradual withdrawal is preferred because symptoms may worsen if the drug is abruptly withdrawn.)

Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants

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23
Q

Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic phenomenon to study:

A. psychological reactance.

B. conformity to group norms.

C. compliance with direct requests.

D. counterfactual thinking.

A

B. conformity to group norms.

Sherif used the autokinetic phenomenon (an optical illusion in which a stationary point of light appears to move in a dark room) to study conformity to group norms.

Social Influence – Types of Influence

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24
Q

Donald Super’s life-career rainbow depicts the relationship between which of the following?

A. personality characteristics and characteristics of the work environment

B. career anticipation and implementation

C. life stages and major life roles

D. career maturity and career decisions

A

C. life stages and major life roles

Super (Super, Savickas, & Super, 1996) created several illustrations to depict the relationships between elements of his life-space, life-span career theory. His life-career rainbow depicts the relationship between life stages and major life roles.

Career Choice and Development

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25
Q

You receive a letter from a former client’s current therapist asking you to fax confidential information about the client’s treatment. The request is accompanied by a signed authorization for release of information from the client. You should:

A. ask the therapist to confirm that he received the documents after you send them.

B. mark each page “confidential” before faxing the requested information to the therapist.

C. fax the requested information to the therapist after ensuring that all information that identifies the client has been removed.

D. refuse to fax the information and send a copy of the file by courier instead.

A

C. fax the requested information to the therapist after ensuring that all information that identifies the client has been removed.

This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 6.02(b) of the APA Ethics Code and Standard I.42 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 6.02(b) states that, “if confidential information concerning recipients of psychological services is entered into databases or systems of records available to persons whose access has not been consented to by the recipient, psychologists use coding or other techniques to avoid the inclusion of personal identifiers.” When information is faxed or otherwise transferred electronically, it is not possible to guarantee it will not be accessed by unauthorized individuals. Therefore, removing identifying information is the best course of action.

Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6

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26
Q

As described by Margaret Mahler (1971), _____________ involves four substages: differentiation, practicing, rapprochement, and consolidation.

A. the stage of mature attachment

B. the stage of autonomy

C. deindividuation

D. separation-individuation

A

D. separation-individuation

As described by Mahler, early development involves a predictable sequence of stages: autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. The separation-individuation stage consists of the four substages listed in the question. By the end of this stage, children have developed the capacity for object constancy which allows them to feel both separate from and connected to significant others.

Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies

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27
Q

Which of the following is true about the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?

A. SSRIs have a better tolerability profile than the TCAs and greater safety in overdose.

B. TCAs have a better tolerability profile than the SSRIs and greater safety in overdose.

C. SSRIs have a better tolerability profile than the TCAs, but TCAs have greater safety in overdose.

D. TCAs have a better tolerability profile than the SSRI, but SSRIs have greater safety in overdose.

A

A. SSRIs have a better tolerability profile than the TCAs and greater safety in overdose.

The research has found that the SSRIs and TCAs are similar in terms of effectiveness, especially for moderate depression. However, the SSRIs are generally considered the first-line treatment for depression because of their better tolerability profile (they cause fewer adverse side effects) and greater safety in overdose.

Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants

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28
Q

In a normal distribution of scores, a T-score of _____ is equivalent to a z-score of _____ and a percentile rank of 84.

A. 50; 0

B. 50; 1.0

C. 60; 1.0

D. 70; 2.0

A

C. 60; 1.0

In a normal distribution, a percentile rank of 84 is one standard deviation above the mean. The T-score distribution has a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10, so a T-score of 60 is one standard deviation above the mean. And the z-score distribution has a mean of 0 and standard deviation of 1.0, so a z-score of 1.0 is one standard deviation above the mean.

Test Score Interpretation

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29
Q

Research on medical cost offset has found that:

A. providing appropriate medical care to patients reduces expenditures on psychotherapy.

B. providing appropriate medical care to patients reduces expenditures on psychotherapy only for patients with a chronic psychiatric disorder.

C. providing psychotherapy to patients reduces expenditures on medical care.

D. providing psychotherapy to patients reduces expenditures on medical care only for patients who do not have a chronic medical condition.

A

C. providing psychotherapy to patients reduces expenditures on medical care.

The studies have consistently found that participating in a psychological treatment reduces other health care costs – i.e., that there is a medical cost offset. The size of the offset varies for different medical conditions, type of psychological treatment, and certain characteristics of the patient, but it’s not true that it applies only to patients who do not have a chronic medical condition.

Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research

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30
Q

Therapy based on Boyd-Franklin’s (1989) multisystems model:

A. combines components of the treatment process with levels at which the therapist can provide treatment.

B. includes interventions that target the microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem.

C. combines individual interventions for each family member with group therapy and family therapy.

D. involves progressively intervening at the individual, family, and community levels.

A

A. combines components of the treatment process with levels at which the therapist can provide treatment.

Boyd-Franklin developed the multisystems model specifically for African American families. The model consists of two main axes: Axis I consists of the components of the treatment process (e.g., joining, assessing, restructuring), while Axis II consists of the various levels at which treatment can be applied (e.g., individual, family, nonblood kin, friends, community).

Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts

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31
Q

Research comparing mental health care service utilization rates and premature therapy dropout rates of heterosexual and LGBTQ men and women has found that:

A. heterosexual men and women have higher utilization and dropout rates.

B. LBGTQ men and women have higher utilization and dropout rates.

C. heterosexual men and women have a higher utilization rate, but LGBTQ men and women have a higher dropout rate.

D. LGBTQ men and women have a higher utilization rate, but heterosexual men and women have a higher dropout rate.

A

B. LBGTQ men and women have higher utilization and dropout rates

The studies have consistently found that the rates of mental health service utilization are higher for LGBTQ men and women than for heterosexual men and women. There’s also evidence that LGBTQ men and women have higher rates of premature dropout rates from therapy.

Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research

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32
Q

Erik Erikson (1978) identified a positive outcome (“virtue”) for each of his eight stages of psychosocial development. Which of the following does not accurately match a stage with its positive outcome?

A. generativity vs. stagnation: care

B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt: purpose

C. industry vs. inferiority: competence

D. basic trust vs. mistrust: hope

A

B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt: purpose

Erikson identified will (initiative and self-determination) as the positive outcome of the autonomy vs. shame stage of psychosocial development.

Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality

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33
Q

Dr. Cho has been seeing Mr. and Mrs. Giovanni in therapy for four months. Mr. Giovanni is an insurance salesman and Mrs. Giovanni works part-time for a residential cleaning service company. Mr. Giovanni is suddenly laid off from his job and they ask if Mrs. Giovanni can exchange home cleaning services for therapy until Mr. Giovanni finds another job. Agreeing to this arrangement would be:

A. unethical.

B. ethical since it’s a temporary arrangement.

C. ethical since it involves an exchange of services (rather than goods).

D. ethical as long as Dr. Cho discusses the possible conflicts with the couple.

A

A. unethical.

Standard 6.05 of the APA Ethics Code permits barter in certain circumstances, but this arrangement would not be acceptable because it creates a potentially harmful multiple relationship – i.e., Dr. Cho will be acting as both therapist and employer and, if he’s dissatisfied with Mrs. Giovanni’s work, this could affect his objectivity in therapy. This answer is also consistent with Standards II.1, II.2, and III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6

34
Q

An advocate of leader-member exchange theory is most likely to agree that:

A. leaders have qualitatively different relationships with in-group and out-group subordinates.

B. leaders have qualitatively different relationships with introverted and extraverted coworkers.

C. leaders are most effective when they combine a high degree of consideration with a high degree of initiating structure.

D. leaders are most effective when they tailor rewards and other outcomes to each worker’s needs.

A

A. leaders have qualitatively different relationships with in-group and out-group subordinates.

Dansereau, Graen, and Haga’s (1975) leader-member exchange theory is based on the assumption that leader effectiveness and subordinate outcomes are determined by the nature of the interactions between the leader and the subordinate. It proposes that subordinates are treated as in-group or out-group members based on whether or not the leader perceives them as being competent, trustworthy, and willing to assume responsibility.

Organizational Leadership

35
Q

Dr. Haar is concerned that the statistics tests she uses for her introductory statistics class are too difficult since so few students pass them. To make her tests a little easier, she will want to remove some items that have an item difficulty index (p) of ________ and add some items that have an item difficulty index of ________.

A. +1.0 and higher; -1.0 and lower

B. +.50 and higher; -.50 and lower

C. .85 and higher; .15 and lower

D. .15 and lower; .85 and higher

A

D. .15 and lower; .85 and higher

The item difficulty index (p) ranges from 0 to 1.0, with 0 indicating a very difficult item (none of the examinees answered it correctly) and 1.0 indicating a very easy item (all examinees answered it correctly). Therefore, to make the statistics tests easier, Dr. Haar will want to remove some of the very difficult items (e.g., those with a p value of .15 and lower) and add some easy items (e.g., those with a p value of .85 and higher).

Item Analysis and Test Reliability

36
Q

Moffitt’s (1993) “maturity gap” is most useful for understanding the etiology of which of the following disorders?

A. oppositional defiant disorder

B. late-onset attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

C. intermittent explosive disorder

D. adolescent-onset conduct disorder

A

D. adolescent-onset conduct disorder

T. Moffitt distinguished between two types of antisocial behavior in youth: Her life-course persistent type corresponds to the childhood-onset type of conduct disorder, while her adolescence-limited type corresponds to the adolescent-onset type. According to Moffitt, the life-course persistent type is the more serious disorder and is due to inherited or acquired neurobiological and neuropsychological factors, while the adolescence-limited type is due to a “maturity gap,” which is the gap between an adolescent’s biological and social maturity (Adolescence-limited and life-course persistent antisocial behavior: A taxonomy, Psychological Review, 100, 674-701, 1993).

Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders

37
Q

An advanced sleep phase is most characteristic of:

A. adults deprived of REM sleep.

B. individuals who are blind.

C. older adults.

D. infants.

A

C. older adults

Advanced sleep phase is also known as circadian phase advance and refers to a shift in the sleep-wake cycle that involves falling asleep and waking up earlier than at the conventional times. Many older adults experience an advanced sleep phase.

Memory and Sleep

38
Q

Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies (NCDLB) can be difficult to distinguish, especially in their early stages, but there are differences. Which of the following does NOT accurately describe a difference between the two disorders?

A. Motor disturbances are more prominent in early Alzheimer’s disease than in early NCDLB.

B. Memory loss is usually a more prominent early symptom of early Alzheimer’s disease than of early NCDLB.

C. Nonvisual hallucinations and systematized delusions are more common in early NCDLB than in early Alzheimer’s disease.

D. Orthostatic hypotension and other autonomic disturbances are more common in early NCDLB than in early Alzheimer’s disease.

A

A. Motor disturbances are more prominent in early Alzheimer’s disease than in early NCDLB.

Motor disturbances are a more important cause of disability in the early stages of NCDLB than in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease and include muscle rigidity, tremors, and other motor symptoms associated with Parkinson’s disease. Although motor problems are also associated with Alzheimer’s disease, they usually do not occur until the disease progresses to the middle or late stage. The other three answers accurately describe differences between the two disorders. See, e.g., Alzheimer’s Association website, http://www.alz.org/dementia/dementia-with-lewy-bodies-symptoms.asp

Neurocognitive Disorders

39
Q

At the beginning of the school year, a researcher tells a first-grade teacher that a test had been administered to all students in kindergarten and the results indicated that five of her 22 students – Bob G., Liang C., Ellen A., Isadore R., and Lucia V. – will show significant gains in academic achievement this year. Even though the five children were actually randomly selected, all showed significant gains in academic skills by the end of the school year. Which of the following best explains these results?

A. the Hawthorne effect

B. the Rosenthal effect

C. the positive halo effect

D. the confirmation bias

A

B. the Rosenthal effect

This question describes a study that’s similar to the study conducted by Rosenthal and Jacobson (1968) who found that teachers’ expectations for students identified as academic “spurters” (but who were actually randomly chosen) had a positive effect on the students’ IQ scores and grades. This effect is known by several names including the Rosenthal effect, the Pygmalion effect, and the self-fulfilling prophecy effect.

School and Family Influences

40
Q

A young man complains that “everyone at work hates me.” His therapist says it may be true that his coworkers hate him and asks him to list the ways they have expressed their hate. The therapist is using which of the following paradoxical techniques?

A. reframing

B. prescribing

C. restraining

D. positioning

A

D. positioning

When using positioning, the therapist accepts and exaggerates the client’s concern in order to help the client recognize its absurdity or irrationality.

Family Therapies and Group Therapies

41
Q

According to Carl Rogers (1951), incongruence between self and experience produces anxiety, which a person may respond to defensively by:

A. denying or distorting the experience.

B. adopting an exaggerated sense of self-worth.

C. becoming fixated at the previous stage of development.

D. developing a mistaken style of life.

A

A. denying or distorting the experience.

Rogers proposed that people often respond defensively to incongruence between self and experience with denial or distortion. Denial involves denying the existence of the experience or its significance, while distortion involves altering the meaning of the experience to make it more consistent with one’s perceived self. Although denial and distortion can provide temporary relief, they fail to resolve incongruence and can lead to psychological disturbance.

Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies

42
Q

Samantha, age 16, says that it’s not necessary to use protection when having sex with her boyfriend because “there’s no way I’m going to get pregnant.” According to Elkind (1976), this is an example of which of the following?

A. identity moratorium

B. magical thinking

C. the personal fable

D. the self-serving bias

A

C. the personal fable

Elkind proposed that early formal operational thought is characterized by adolescent egocentrism, and he identified the personal fable as one of its manifestations. As defined by Elkind, the personal fable is the belief that one is unique and not subject to the rules or consequences that apply to other people. An adolescent’s belief that there’s “no way” that having unprotected sex with her boyfriend could lead to pregnancy is an example of the personal fable.

Cognitive Development

43
Q

John Jr. just turned 14 and has started demanding to be allowed to make his own decisions and to have more privileges and independence from the family. In response, John’s parents continue to treat him like a child and have become more punitive in an attempt to keep things the way they were. The parents’ response to John’s demands illustrates which of the following?

A. positive feedback

B. negative feedback

C. reframing

D. restraining

A

B. negative feedback

Negative feedback serves to maintain the status quo (i.e., to keep things the way they were), while positive feedback promotes change. Reframing and restraining are paradoxical techniques used by therapists to alter behavior.

Family Therapies and Group Therapies

44
Q

Studies investigating ____________ often place infants in uncertain situations that include a stranger, a novel toy or other object, or the visual cliff.

A. basic temperament

B. problem-solving

C. social referencing

D. self-awareness

A

C. social referencing

Social referencing refers to the use of the emotional reactions of a parent or other person to determine how to respond in ambiguous situations. Most studies on social referencing in infancy have created an ambiguous situation by presenting the infants with a stranger, a novel object, or the visual cliff while a parent or other caregiver is nearby.

Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationsh

45
Q

Your new client is Maureen, a 21-year-old college junior, who says she’s ordinarily a shy, calm person who doesn’t have trouble getting things done. However, for the last three weeks, she’s been jumping from one project to another without finishing anything, gets irritated by just about everything, is more talkative than usual, and has a lot of energy even though she’s not getting enough sleep. Maureen says that, because of her symptoms, she hasn’t been able to concentrate while studying and she failed an exam last week for the first time in her life. Maureen’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following?

A. bipolar I disorder

B. bipolar II disorder

C. cyclothymic disorder

D. ADHD

A

A. bipolar I disorder

The nature and duration of Maureen’s symptoms are most suggestive of bipolar I disorder, which is diagnosed when a person has had at least one manic episode that lasted for at least one week. Maureen’s increased energy and talkativeness, distractibility, increased goal activity (jumping from one project to another), decreased need for sleep, and impaired functioning at school because of her symptoms are characteristic of a manic episode. Bipolar II disorder isn’t correct because it requires at least one major depressive disorder, which must include a depressed mood or a loss of interest or pleasure plus other symptoms, and the question doesn’t indicate that Maureen has these symptoms.

Bipolar and Depressive Disorders

46
Q

Your new client is Adam, a 19-year-old college sophomore, who says his restlessness, inability to concentrate, and impulsiveness are interfering with his ability to do well in his classes. He tells you that, when he was a child, his pediatrician thought he had attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. However, his symptoms – especially his hyperactivity – started “getting better” when he was in high school. To assign a diagnosis of ADHD to Adam, he must have at least:

A. five symptoms of inattention and/or five symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity.

B. six symptoms of inattention and/or six symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity.

C. a total of five symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and/or impulsivity.

D. a total of six symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and/or impulsivity.

A

A. five symptoms of inattention and/or five symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity.

The DSM-5 diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) requires at least six symptoms of inattention and/or six symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity for children, or at least five symptoms of inattention and/or five symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity for individuals 17 years of age and older.

Neurodevelopmental Disorders

47
Q

You receive a letter from a colleague requesting that you send her a copy of the record of Donald D., a former client of yours. The request is accompanied by an authorization to release information signed by Donald. Donald abruptly ended his sessions with you three months ago, at which time he owed you for his past four therapy sessions. You’ve sent two letters to Donald about his unpaid bill, but he has not responded. To be consistent with ethical requirements, you:

A. must forward the record to the colleague since Donald has signed an authorization allowing you to do so.

B. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague until you and Donald reach an agreement about how he will pay his outstanding fees.

C. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if they are not needed for Donald’s emergency treatment.

D. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if you explained this policy to Donald as part of the informed consent process when he began therapy.

A

C. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if they are not needed for Donald’s emergency treatment.

Ethical requirements for this situation are provided in Standard 6.03 of the APA Ethics Code. It states that “psychologists may not withhold records under their control that are requested and needed for a client’s/patient’s emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received.” This answer is also consistent with the Preamble and Standards II.1 and II.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Note, however, that withholding client records for nonpayment of fees in any situation may be illegal or inconsistent with institutional regulations.

APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6

48
Q

Which of the following is most useful for explaining the results of Schachter’s (1959) “misery loves miserable company” study?

A. gain-loss theory

B. self-verification theory

C. equity theory

D. social comparison theory

A

D. social comparison theory

Social comparison theory (Festinger, 1954) has been used to explain the results of Schachter’s research. It predicts that, in uncertain situations, people often compare themselves to others to obtain information about themselves.

Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy

49
Q

A therapy client who had an insensitive, authoritarian father begins to respond to her therapist as though he’s insensitive and authoritarian. A practitioner of Freudian psychoanalysis would describe this as transference, while a practitioner of Harry Stack Sullivan’s interpersonal psychotherapy would view it as:

A. a parataxic distortion.

B. a boundary disturbance.

C. projective identification.

D. displacement.

A

A. a parataxic distortion.

As described by Sullivan (1953), parataxic distortions occur in all types of interpersonal relationships and involve perceiving others, not on the basis of their actual attributes, but on expectations developed from past interpersonal relationships.

Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies

50
Q

A therapy client who had an insensitive, authoritarian father begins to respond to her therapist as though he’s insensitive and authoritarian. A practitioner of Freudian psychoanalysis would describe this as transference, while a practitioner of Harry Stack Sullivan’s interpersonal psychotherapy would view it as:

A. a parataxic distortion.

B. a boundary disturbance.

C. projective identification.

D. displacement.

A

A. a parataxic distortion.

As described by Sullivan (1953), parataxic distortions occur in all types of interpersonal relationships and involve perceiving others, not on the basis of their actual attributes, but on expectations developed from past interpersonal relationships.

Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies

51
Q

A four-year-old child doesn’t seek comfort from her parents or others when she’s upset and rarely expresses happiness or other positive emotions. Which of the following is needed to confirm the DSM-5 diagnosis of reactive attachment disorder for this child?

A. The child’s symptoms have been present for at least six months.

B. The child’s symptoms started before she was two years old.

C. The child exhibits a pattern of impaired social and emotional responsiveness in at least two settings.

D. The child has experienced a pattern of severe social neglect or frequent changes in primary caregivers.

A

D. The child has experienced a pattern of severe social neglect or frequent changes in primary caregivers.

The DSM-5 diagnosis of reactive attachment disorder requires a consistent pattern of inhibited and emotionally withdrawn behaviors toward adult caregivers that is believed to be due to a pattern of extreme insufficient care as evidenced by severe social neglect, frequent changes in primary caregivers that limited the child’s ability to form stable attachments, and/or rearing in an unusual setting that limited the child’s ability to form selective attachments.

Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders

52
Q

The analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) is used to:

A. statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable on the dependent variable.

B. measure the effects of an extraneous variable on the dependent variable by treating it as an independent variable.

C. simultaneously assess the effects of the independent variable on two or more dependent variables.

D. simultaneously assess the effects of two or more independent variables on a single dependent variable.

A

A. statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable on the dependent variable.

The ANCOVA is used to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable from scores on the dependent variable so that it’s easier to detect the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable. When using the ANCOVA, the extraneous variable is the “covariate.”

Inferential Statistical Tests

53
Q

Dr. Sipowicz has been seeing Annie for six weeks to treat her social phobia and decides it would benefit Annie if her husband attends several of her sessions. When Dr. Sipowicz discusses this with Annie, she agrees and says she’ll bring him to her next session. Annie’s husband is seeing another therapist to deal with his gambling problem. Inviting Annie’s husband to participate in Annie’s therapy sessions is:

A. unacceptable since he’s already receiving therapy from another therapist.

B. unacceptable unless you’ve determined that he’s not vulnerable to undue influence.

C. acceptable since you believe his participation in therapy will benefit Annie.

D. acceptable as long as he will only participate in a few sessions with Annie.

A

C. acceptable since you believe his participation in therapy will benefit Annie.

Standard 5.06 prohibits psychologists from engaging in uninvited in-person solicitation of business, but it also states that this prohibition does not include “attempting to implement appropriate collateral contacts for the purpose of benefiting an already engaged therapy client/patient.” This answer is also consistent with Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which prohibits psychologists from exploiting “any relationship established as a psychologist to further personal, political, or business interests at the expense of the dignity or well-being of their primary clients, contract examinees, research participants, students, trainees, employers, or others.”

APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6

54
Q

A child’s school refusal began shortly after the death of her grandmother, is due to fear of being separated from her home and family, and is accompanied by nightmares about her parents dying and stomach aches and other physical symptoms. The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis is:

A. adjustment disorder.

B. separation anxiety disorder.

C. social anxiety disorder.

D. specific phobia.

A

B. separation anxiety disorder.

School refusal can be a manifestation of several psychiatric disorders including separation anxiety disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, or social anxiety disorder. When it’s due to separation anxiety disorder, the primary symptom is excessive fear or anxiety about being separated from an attachment figure, and other symptoms may include repeated nightmares related to separation and physical symptoms when separation occurs or is anticipated.

Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

54
Q

A child’s school refusal began shortly after the death of her grandmother, is due to fear of being separated from her home and family, and is accompanied by nightmares about her parents dying and stomach aches and other physical symptoms. The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis is:

A. adjustment disorder.

B. separation anxiety disorder.

C. social anxiety disorder.

D. specific phobia.

A

B. separation anxiety disorder.

School refusal can be a manifestation of several psychiatric disorders including separation anxiety disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, or social anxiety disorder. When it’s due to separation anxiety disorder, the primary symptom is excessive fear or anxiety about being separated from an attachment figure, and other symptoms may include repeated nightmares related to separation and physical symptoms when separation occurs or is anticipated.

Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

55
Q

You would use which of the following tests to evaluate the receptive vocabulary of a 10-year-old child who has received a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder?

A. PPVT-5

B. Vineland-II

C. Leiter-3

D. KABC-II

A

A. PPVT-5

The PPVT-5 (Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test, Fifth Edition) is used to assess the receptive vocabulary of individuals ages 2 years, 6 months to 90+ years. It can be used with individuals who have autism spectrum disorder, symptoms of psychosis, or cerebral palsy or other physical disability.

Other Measures of Cognitive Ability

56
Q

Dr. Miller is hired by an insurance company to develop a performance appraisal measure for salespeople. She’s most likely to recommend that the company use a relative measure (as opposed to a Likert-type rating scale) because relative measures:

A. are more acceptable to both raters and rates.

B. allow the rater to focus on typical (rather than maximum) performance.

C. are less susceptible to some rater biases.

D. provide more useful information for employee feedback.

A

C. are less susceptible to some rater biases.

An advantage of relative job performance measures is that they reduce leniency, strictness, and central tendency rater biases.

Job Analysis and Performance Assessment

57
Q

The keyword method is most useful for:

A. remembering a list of 10 nonsense syllables.

B. recalling how to solve a mathematical equation.

C. learning the vocabulary of a second language.

D. remembering an important event you must attend next week.

A

C. learning the vocabulary of a second language.

The keyword method involves creating an image that links two words or links a word and its definition and is particularly useful for foreign (second) language learning.

Memory and Forgetting

58
Q

The effects of damage to the left and right hemispheres of the cerebral cortex depend on the specific location of the damage but, with regard to emotions, damage to the left hemisphere is most likely to produce:

A. inappropriate indifference or euphoria.

B. depression or emotional volatility.

C. unprovoked rage and hostility.

D. unrealistic confidence and optimism.

A

B. depression or emotional volatility.

Positive emotions are processed primarily in the left hemisphere, and damage to this hemisphere can produce depression or emotional volatility (which is described by some authors as a catastrophic reaction). Negative emotions are processed primarily in the right hemisphere, and damage can produce inappropriate indifference or euphoria.

Emotions and Stress

59
Q

Moscovici’s (1980) research on minority influence found that a group member with a minority opinion must rely on which of the following to persuade members with the opposing (majority) opinion to adopt his or her opinion?

A. informational influence

B. normative influence

C. behavioral style

D. psychological reactance

A

C. behavioral style

According to Moscovici, a group member with a minority opinion must rely on behavioral style to persuade the majority – i.e., the member must be consistent in expressing his/her opinion without seeming too rigid or dogmatic.

Social Influence – Group Influences

60
Q

On average, full siblings and other first-degree relatives share _____ of their genetic material.

A. 90%

B. 75%

C. 50%

D. 25%

A

C. 50%

Full siblings, fraternal twins, and other first degree relatives share about 50% of their genetic material, while half siblings share about 25%

Early Influences on Development – Nature vs. Nurture

61
Q

The standard error of the mean increases in size as the:

A. population standard deviation and sample size decrease.

B. population standard deviation and sample size increase.

C. population standard deviation increases and sample size decreases.

D. population standard deviation decreases and sample size increases.

A

C. population standard deviation increases and sample size decreases.

The standard error of the mean is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean and is used to determine how well a sample mean estimates a population mean. It’s calculated by dividing the population standard deviation by the square root of the sample size, and it increases as the population standard deviation increases and the sample size decreases, and vice versa.

Overview of Inferential Statistics

62
Q

The two main types of integrity tests that are used to assist with selection decisions are:

A. general and specific trait tests.

B. covert and behavior-based tests.

C. objective and subjective tests.

D. overt and personality-based tests.

A

D. overt and personality-based tests.

There are two main types of integrity tests: Overt integrity tests ask directly about attitudes toward and previous history of dishonesty and theft, while personality-based integrity tests assess aspects of personality that have been linked to dishonesty, disciplinary problems, sabotage, and other counterproductive behaviors.

Employee Selection – Techniques

63
Q

A problem with using percent agreement as a measure of inter-rater reliability is that it may:

A. underestimate reliability because it’s susceptible to rater biases.

B. overestimate reliability because it’s susceptible to rater biases.

C. underestimate reliability because it’s affected by chance agreement.

D. overestimate reliability because it’s affected by chance agreement.

A

D. overestimate reliability because it’s affected by chance agreement.

A certain amount of chance agreement between two or more raters is possible, especially for behavior observation scales when the behavior occurs frequently. Percent agreement is easy to calculate but, because it’s affected by chance agreement, it may overestimate a measure’s inter-rater reliability.

Item Analysis and Test Reliability

64
Q

In Ainsworth’s (Ainsworth et al., 1978) “strange situation,” an infant with an ____________ attachment pattern is indifferent to his/her mother and may act as though she’s not present, shows little or no distress when she leaves, and ignores her when she returns. Mothers of children with this attachment pattern are often ____________.

A. avoidant; rejecting/unresponsive or intrusive/overstimulating

B. avoidant; moody/depressed and inconsistent

C. ambivalent; rejecting/unresponsive or intrusive/overstimulating

D. ambivalent; moody/depressed and inconsistent

A

A. avoidant; rejecting/unresponsive or intrusive/overstimulating

Ainsworth and her colleagues distinguished between two types of insecure attachment patterns: avoidant and ambivalent (which is also referred to as resistant). The infant behaviors described in this question are characteristic of children with the avoidant pattern, and parents of children with this pattern are often either rejecting and unresponsive or intrusive and overstimulating.

Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationsh

65
Q

Regulated breathing has been found to be an effective treatment for which of the following?

A. childhood-onset fluency disorder

B. dysarthria

C. intermittent explosive disorder

D. central sleep apnea

A

A. childhood-onset fluency disorder

Regulated breathing is a behavioral intervention that has been found to be effective for treating stuttering (childhood-onset fluency disorder). It involves teaching the child to breathe in a way that’s incompatible with stuttering.

Neurodevelopmental Disorders

66
Q

Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder is characterized by recurrent temper outbursts with:

A. a persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts.

B. a persistently manic or hypomanic mood between outbursts.

C. extreme mood lability between outbursts.

D. moderate or severe depression between outbursts.

A

A. a persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts.

As described in DSM-5, disruptive mood dysregulation disorder involves severe and recurrent temper outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation with a persistently irritable or angry mood most of the day and nearly every day between outbursts.

Bipolar and Depressive Disorders

67
Q

George Kelly (1955) proposed that people develop personal constructs that help them make sense of new information and experiences. As described by Kelly, personal constructs are:

A. schemas that distort reality.

B. socially acceptable schemas.

C. unidimensional.

D. bipolar.

A

D. bipolar.

Kelly’s personal construct theory proposes that people perceive, interpret, and anticipate events using bipolar constructs – e.g., good/bad, relevant/irrelevant, fair/unfair. It’s also based on the assumption that each person has his/her own unique set of personal constructs, and Kelly developed the repertory grid technique to examine an individual’s system of personal constructs.

Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies

68
Q

A psychologist is planning a research study to evaluate the effects of a two-hour online lecture on statistics for improving the statistics knowledge of 35 psychologists who have just started studying for the EPPP. All participants will (1) take a pre-test consisting of 50 multiple-choice statistics questions on Monday, (2) attend the online lecture on Wednesday evening, and (3) take a post-test consisting of 50 multiple-choice statistics questions that are equivalent to the pre-test questions on Friday. To analyze the data she obtains in her study, the researcher will use which of the following?

A. t-test for a single sample

B. t-test for correlated samples

C. two-way ANOVA

D. single-sample chi-square test

A

B. t-test for correlated samples

The first steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are to identify the independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. This study’s independent variable is the lecture on statistics and the dependent variable is statistics test score. The dependent variable is measured on a ratio scale, which means that the statistical test will be used to compare the mean scores obtained by the psychologists on the pre- and post-tests. The t-test and ANOVA are both used to compare mean scores, but because there are only two means, the t-test is the appropriate test. To determine which t-test to use, you determine how the means will be obtained: In this study they will be obtained from a single group of subjects, and the t-test for correlated samples is used when two means are obtained from the same group or from two groups that are related in some way.

Inferential Statistical Tests

69
Q

An assumption of dialectical behavior therapy is that borderline personality disorder is attributable to which of the following?

A. inadequate response-contingent reinforcement

B. split perceptions of self and others into unrealistic extremes

C. emotion dysregulation

D. dysfunctional self-schemas

A

C. emotion dysregulation

M. Linehan’s dialectical behavior therapy is based on the assumption that borderline personality disorder is a disorder of the emotion regulation system that involves high emotional vulnerability coupled with an inability to regulate emotions

Personality Disorders

70
Q

Which of the following is not one of the microaggressions identified by D. W. Sue et al. (2007)?

A. microinequity

B. microassault

C. microinvalidation

D. microinsult

A

A. microinequity

As defined by D. W. Sue et al., microaggressions “are brief and commonplace daily verbal, behavioral, or environmental indignities, whether intentional or unintentional, that communicate hostile, derogatory, or negative racial slights and insults toward people of color”. Microassault, microinvalidation, and microinsult are the three types of microaggression identified by these investigators.

Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts

71
Q

Tiedeman’s career decision-making model links vocational identity development to:

A. cognitive maturation.

B. ego identity development.

C. career maturity.

D. life roles.

A

B. ego identity development.

Tiedeman’s (Miller-Tiedeman & Tiedeman, 1990; Tiedeman & O’Hara, 1963) career decision-making model views vocational identity development as an ongoing decision-making process that’s linked to Erikson’s stages of ego identity development.

Career Choice and Development

72
Q

When a test has a standard deviation of 10, the test’s standard error of measurement will fall between:

A. 0 and 10

B. 10 and 1.0

C. 0 and 1.0

D. -1.0 and +1.0

A

A. 0 and 10

A test’s standard error of measurement equals its standard deviation times the square root of 1 minus the reliability coefficient. A test’s reliability coefficient can range from 0 to 1.0, so the standard error of measurement for a test that has a standard deviation of 10 ranges from 0 when the reliability coefficient is 1.0 (10 times the square root of 1 minus 1 equals 0) to 10 when the reliability coefficient is 0 (10 times the square root of 1 minus 0 equals 10).

Item Analysis and Test Reliability

73
Q

The development of depth perception in infancy involves becoming sensitive to three types of information in a predictable order, with ________ information being the first type that infants are sensitive to.

A. interposition

B. kinetic

C. binocular

D. pictorial

A

B. kinetic

In their study on the development of depth perception, A. Yonas and C. E. Granrud found that infants respond to kinetic cues at one to three months of age, binocular cues at three to five months, and pictorial cues at five to seven months

Physical Development

74
Q

Following a stroke, a man shaves only the right side of his face, eats food only on the right side of his plate, and frequently bumps into door frames with the left side of his body. Which of the following areas of the brain was affected by the stroke?

A. frontal lobe

B. temporal lobe

C. occipital lobe

D. parietal lobe

A

D. parietal lobe

This man’s symptoms are characteristic of contralateral neglect, which is also known as hemispatial neglect and is caused by damage to the parietal lobe (most often the right parietal lobe). A person with this disorder is unaware of areas and objects on the side of his/her body opposite to the location of the damage.

Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex

75
Q

Dr. Edison is a behavior therapist who specializes in treating cigarette smoking, nail biting, and other undesirable habits. While at a charity fundraiser, he meets the editor of a local newspaper and they agree that Dr. Edison will help the editor stop smoking in exchange for an article about his services in the newspaper. In terms of ethical requirements, this arrangement is:

A. acceptable as long as it does not interfere with Dr. Edison’s ability to provide treatment to the editor in an objective, competent manner.

B. acceptable as long as Dr. Edison and the editor agree that it’s an equitable exchange.

C. unacceptable because psychologists are prohibited from compensating employees of newspapers in exchange for a newspaper article about their services.

D. unacceptable because psychologists are required to avoid conflicts of interest.

A

C. unacceptable because psychologists are prohibited from compensating employees of newspapers in exchange for a newspaper article about their services.

This is the best answer because it accurately describes the requirements of Standard 5.02(b) of the APA Ethics Code. It states that psychologists “do not compensate employees of press, radio, television, or other communication media in return for publicity in a news item.” This answer is also consistent with Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which prohibits psychologists from exploiting “any relationship established as a psychologist to further personal, political, or business interests at the expense of the dignity or well-being of their primary clients, contract examinees, research participants, students, trainees, employers, or others.”

APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6

76
Q

The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome:

A. are lifelong and irreversible.

B. gradually decrease in severity during childhood and adolescence.

C. are largely reversible with the provision of early psychosocial interventions.

D. are largely reversible with the provision of adequate nutrition following birth.

A

A. are lifelong and irreversible.

Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is the most severe form of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD). Its symptoms are lifelong and irreversible and include a wide range of physical abnormalities, cognitive deficits, and behavioral problems.

Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development

77
Q

A company’s current selection procedure for computer programmers consists of seven predictors that are used to predict the job performance score that a job applicant will receive six months after being hired. The owner of the company wants to reduce the costs and time required to make selection decisions. Which of the following would be most useful for determining the fewest number of predictors needed to make accurate predictions about applicants’ job performance scores?

A. linear regression analysis

B. discriminant function analysis

C. stepwise multiple regression

D. factor analysis

A

C. stepwise multiple regression

Multiple regression is used to predict a person’s score on a single criterion (e.g., job performance measure) using two or more predictors. Stepwise multiple regression is a type of multiple regression that’s used to identify the fewest number of predictors needed to make an accurate prediction.

Correlation and Regression

78
Q

A psychologist would most likely violate ethical requirements for maintaining test security when he or she:

A. provides clients with the raw or scaled scores they obtained on a test.

B. discusses clients’ responses to test items to help them understand their test results.

C. provides a client’s attorney with a copy of test items and the client’s answers to the items in response to a subpoena and with the client’s permission.

D. allows clients to complete self-administered tests online at home when doing so is approved by the test publisher.

A

C. provides a client’s attorney with a copy of test items and the client’s answers to the items in response to a subpoena and with the client’s permission.

Standard 9.11 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard IV.11 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to this situation. Standard 9.11 requires psychologists to “maintain the integrity and security of test materials,” which it defines as “manuals, protocols, and tests questions or stimuli.” Answers C and D both address test security. Answer C is the best answer because providing test items to an attorney is questionable since an attorney is unlikely to be trained in psychological testing and to be legally or ethically required to maintain test security. As noted by the APA Committee on Psychological Tests and Assessments (https://www.apa.org/science/programs/testing/test-security-faq), the best course of action in this situation is to request that test materials be released to a qualified psychologist or obtain a protective order from the court that requires all parties to maintain test security. Answer D describes an acceptable course of action. Note, however, that precautions should be taken to maintain test security. For example, clients should be advised that third-party observation and recording of the test in any form are not allowed. Answers A and B can be eliminated because they address the use of test data (which is not covered by this Standard) and describe acceptable actions.

APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10

79
Q

Suicide rates vary somewhat from year to year but, with regard to age and gender, the best conclusion is that, among females, those aged ________ have the highest rate while, among males, those aged ________ have the highest rate.

A. 45 to 64; 75 and over

B. 15 to 24; 45 to 64

C. 45 to 64; 15 to 24

D. 75 and over; 45 to 64

A

A. 45 to 64; 75 and over

Data collected by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention on suicide rates in 1999 and 2014 show that rates increased for most age groups but that the age groups with the highest rates remained the same: In 1999 and 2014, females aged 45 to 64 had the highest rate and males aged 75 and over had the highest rate

Bipolar and Depressive Disorders

80
Q

When lithium has not reduced the symptoms of mania for an individual who has received a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, an alternative is:

A. disulfiram.

B. carbamazepine.

C. propranolol.

D. guanfacine.

A

B. carbamazepine

Anticonvulsant drugs are often prescribed for individuals with bipolar disorder who have not responded to lithium or cannot tolerate its side effects. Carbamazepine is one of the anticonvulsant drugs that has been found useful for treating mania.

Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs

81
Q

Strength, accessibility, and specificity have been identified as factors that affect:

A. the extent to which a person can resist persuasion.

B. the likelihood that a person’s behaviors will alter his/her attitudes.

C. the amount of influence a person’s attitudes have on his/her behaviors.

D. the persuasiveness of an advertisement or other message.

A

C. the amount of influence a person’s attitudes have on his/her behaviors.

Research has found that the strength of the relationship between a person’s attitudes and his/her behaviors is affected by several factors, including the strength, accessibility, and specificity of the attitudes.

Attitudes and Attitude Change