Prep textbook multiple choice questions Flashcards
1
Q
The ASRT document that defines the radiographers role is the
A. standards of Ethics
B. Practice Standards
C. Standard of Care
D. Legal standard
A
B. Practice Standards
2
Q
occurrence that can keep a radiography student from meeting ARRT certification requirements include
- being suspended from a radiology program
2.being dismissed/expelled from radiology program
3.failing more than one course in their radiography program
a.1 only
b.2 only
c.1 and 2 only
d.1,2, and 3
A
c. 1 and 2 only
3
Q
violations of the ARRT Rules of Ethics include
1.accepting responsibility to perform a function outside the scope of practice
2.failure to obtain pertinent information for the radiologist
3.failure to share newly acquired knowledge with peers
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
A
a. 1 only
4
Q
which organization has the authority to impose professional sanction on a radiographer?
a. ARRT
b.ASRT
c.JRCERT
d.TJC
A
a. ARRT
5
Q
a radiographer who disposes confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found liable for
a. assault
b.battery
c.intimidation
d.defamation
A
d. defamation
6
Q
patient rights include
1.the right to refuse treatment
2.the right to confidentiality
3.the right to possess ones medical records
a. 1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
A
b. 1 and 2 only
7
Q
an individuals legal document identifying his or her specific wishes regarding medical care to be provided in the event that he or she is unable to make or communicate decisions is called
- advance health care directive
2.informed consent
3.last will and treatment
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
A
a. 1 only
8
Q
a radiographer who performs an xray exam on a patient without the patients consent or after the patient has refused the exam may be liable for
a. assault
b.battery
c.slander
d.libel
A
b. battery
9
Q
the legislation that guarantees confidentiality of all patient information is
a.HSS
b.HIPAA
c.HIPPA
d.MQSA
A
b.HIPAA
10
Q
if a patient lacks decision making capacity, his or her rights can be exercised on his or her behalf by
1. designated surrogate
2.designated proxy
3. no one
a. 1 only
b.2 only
c.1 and 2 only
d. 3 only
A
c. no one
11
Q
which of the following communicates messages to the patient
1.facial expression
2.eye contact
3.personal appearance
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
A
d.1,2 and 3
12
Q
examples of nonverbal communication include
1.apperance
2. eye contact
3.touch
a.1 only
b.1 and 2
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2, and 3
A
d. 1,2 and 3
13
Q
successful, effective communication includes proficiency in the following skills
1.writing
2.speech
3.observation
a.1 only
b.1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
A
d.1,2 and 3
14
Q
which of the following is the first step taken in the performance of a radiographic examination?
a. obtain clinical history
b.provide appropriate patient assistance
c.verify patient identity
d.use appropriate infection control
A
c. verify patient identity
15
Q
all of the following are useful resources for non-english speaking patient except
a. automated language line
b.special dual headset phones
c.a certified interpreter
d.a family member or friend
A
d. family member or friend
16
Q
a patient aged 55 years old is most accurately described as
a.young adult
b.middle adult
c.older adult
d.elderly
A
b.middle adult
17
Q
increased pain threshold, breakdown of skin and atrophy of fat pads and sweat glands are all important considerations when working with which of the following groups of patients?
a.infants
b.children
c.adolescents
d.geriatric patients
A
d.geriatric
18
Q
the belief that ones own cultural ways are superior to any other is termed
a.ethnology
b.ethnobiology
c.ethnocentrism
d.ethnography
A
c. ethnocentrism
19
Q
a radiographer should recognize that gerontologic patients often have undergone physical changes that include loss of
- muscle mass
2.bone calcium
3.mental alertness
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
A
b. 1 and 2 only
20
Q
which of the following is/are symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply
1.diaphoresis
2.cyanosis
3.retracted intercostal spaces
a.1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3 only
A
d.1,2 and 3 only
21
Q
a patients feeling of spinning, or the room spinning around them is called
a.orthostatic hypotension
b.epistaxis
c.vertigo
d.sycope
A
c. vertigo
specifically objective vertigo
22
Q
type of HG/NI/NE tubes include
1.port-A-cath
2.sengstaken-blakemore
3. miller-abbott
a.1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2,and 3 only
A
c.2 and 3 only
23
Q
a patients IV container should be hung
a.18-24 inches above the vein
b.18-24 inches below the vein
c.18-24 inches above the heart
d.18-24 inches below the heart
A
a. 18-24 inches above the vein
24
Q
all of the following are correct concepts of good body mechanics during patient moving/lifting EXCEPT
a.the radiographer should stand with feet approximately 12 inches apart and with one slightly forward
b.the body’s center og gravity should be positioned over its base of support
c.the back should be kept straight; avoid twisting
d.when carrying a heavy object, hold it away from the body
A
d.when carrying a heavy object, hold it away from the body
25
partial restriction of blood supplied to the brain as a result of temporary or mild occasion of a cerebral vessel is referred to as
a.TIA
b.CVA
c.syncope
d. epistaxis
a.TIA
26
blood pressure is measured in units of
a.millimeters of mercury (mmHg)
b.beats per minute
c.degrees Farenheit
d.liters per minute
a.millimteres of mercury (mmHg)
27
which blood vessels are best suited for determination of pulse rate
a.superficial arteries
b.deep arteries
c.superficial veins
d.deep veins
a.superficial arteries
28
medical equipment that might contain latex included
1.catheters
2.endotracheal tubes
3.syringes
a.1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
29
when a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, subjective and objective data should be obtained. An example of subjective data is that
a.the patient appears to have a productive cough
b.the patient has a blood pressure of 130/95 mmHg
c.the patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position
d.the patient has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant of the left breast
c.the patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position
30
misunderstanding between cultures can happen as a result of
1.looking directly into someones eyes
2.the use of certain gestures
3.standing too close while speaking to another
a.1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2, and 3
d.1,2 and 3
31
Pathogen are
1.always harmful
2.sometimes harmful
3.capable of producing disease
a. 1 only
b.2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.2 and 3 only
d.2 and 3 only
32
diseases that can be transmitted by direct contact include
1.skin infections
2.MDROs
3.malaria
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2, and 3
b.1 and 2 only
33
in which of the following conditions is protective or reverse isolation indicated?
1.transplant recipient
2.chemotherapy recipient
3.leukemia
a.1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2, and 3
d.1,2 and 3
34
which of the following is/are means of transmission of microorganisms
1.vector
2.formite
3.airborne
a.1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c.3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2,and 3
35
what is the single most effective means of controlling the spread of infectious microorganisms
a.wearing gloves
b.wearing masks
c.hand washing
d.sterilization
c.hand washing
36
what is the name of the practice that serves to retard the growth of pathogenic bacteria?
a.antisepsis
b.bacteriogenesis
c.sterilization
d.disinfection
a.antisepsis
37
which of the following diseases requires airborne precaution
1.TB
2.Varicella
3.Rubella
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.3 only
d.1,2, and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
38
the radiographer must perform the following procedure before entering an isolation room with a mobile xray unit
1.wear a gown and a mask
2.wear a gown, gloves and possibly a mask
3.clean the mobile unit
a.1 only
b.2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.2 and 3 only
b. 2 only
39
Lyme disease is a condition caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue, and other associated symptoms. this is an example of transmission infection by
a.droplet contact
b.airborne route
c.vector
d.vehicle
c.vector
40
which of the following can be transmitted via infected blood
1.TB
2.AIDS
3.HBV
a. 1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2, and 3
c.2 and 3 only
41
equipment that might be needed for intravenous drug/contrast medium administration include
1.heparin lock
2.needles
3.infusion set
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2, and 3
d.1,2 and 3
42
body reaction to a sensitizing agent can occur as a result of
1.absorption
2.injection
3.ingestion
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
43
examples of negative contrast agents include
1.air
2.iodine
3.barium sulfate
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
a. 1 only
44
which of the following gauge needles has the smaller t bore
a.12
b.18
c.20
d.23
d.23
45
what should be the angle formed between the needle and the skin surface for an intravenous injection?
a.15
b.45
c.60
d.90
a.15
46
parenteral administration of drugs may be performed
1.intrathecally
2.intravenously
3.orally
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2 only
47
what is the most frequently used site for an intravenous injection of contrast agents
a.basilic
b.cephalic
c.antecubital
d.femoral
c.antecubital
48
mild systemic reaction to intravenous contrast material includes all except
a.nausea
b.metallic taste in mouth
c.wheezing
d.flushed appearance
c.wheezing
49
terms correctly associated with positive contrast agents include all of the following except
a.radiopaque
b.iodinated
c.high atomic number
d.carbon dioxide
d. carbon dioxide
50
the usual patient preparation for a UGI exam is
a.NPO 8 hours before exam
b.light breakfast only in the morning of exam
c.clear fluids only the morning of exam
d.two ounces of castor oil and enemas until clear
a.NPO 8 hours before exam
51
the plane that passes vertically through the body dividing it into anterior and posterior halves is termed
a.midsagittal plane
b.midcoronal plane
c.sagittal plane
d.transverse plane
b.midcoronal
52
the position of the asthenic stomach as compared with the position of the sthenic stomach is more
a.superior and lateral
b.superior and medial
c.inferior and lateral
d.inferior and medial
d.inferior and medial
53
what is the relationship between the midsagittal and midcoronal plane
a.parallel
b.perpendicular
c.45 degrees
d.70 degrees
b.perpendicular
54
with patient recumbent with feet positioned at a level lower than the head, the patient is said to be in the
a.trendelenburg position
b.fowler position
c.decubitus position
d.sims position
b.fowler position
55
prior to x-ray exams of the skull and c spine, the patient should remove
1.dentures
2.earrings
3.necklaces
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
56
image identification markers should include
1.patients name and or ID number
2.date
3.a right or left marker
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
57
the radiographer should be able to
1.take a short patient history prior to the exam
2.modify routine protocol to obtain similar images of patients who are unable to move
3.evaluate patient condition and needs
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3
58
the best way to control voluntary motion is
a.immobilization
b.careful explanation
c.short exposure time
d.physical restraint
b.careful explanation
59
before bringing the patient into the radiographic room, the radiographer should
1.be certain the xray room is clean and orderly
2.check that all necessary accessories are available in the room
3.check that xray table is clean and pillowcase is fresh
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
60
the lower portion of the costal margin is approximately at the same level as that of the
a.midthorax
b.umbilicus
c.xiphoid tip
d.third lumbar vertebra
d.third lumbar vertebra
61
the type of dose-response curve used to predict probabilistic effects is the:
a.nonlinear,nonthreshold
b.nonlinerar,threshold
c.linear,nonthreshold
d.lineral threshold
c.linear, threshold
62
a dose of 0.25 Gy or 25 rad to the fetus during the latter part of the first trimester of pregnancy is more likely to cause
a.spontaneous abortion
b.skeletal anomalies
c.neurologic anomalies
d.organogensis
c.neurologic anomalies
63
linear energy transfer(LET) is
1.a method of expressing radiation quality
2.a measure of the rate at which radiation energy is transferred to soft tissue
3.absorption of poly energetic radiation
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 3 only
64
which of the following is recommeneded method of choice for determining radiation skin dosed during medical imaging procedure
a.R meter
b.DAP meter
c.Fluroscopy- on time
d.total procedure time
b.DAP meter
65
what is the effect on relative biologic effectiveness(RBE) as linear energy transfer(LET) decrease?
a. as LET decreases, RBE increases
b.as LET decreases, RBE decreases
c.as LET decreases, RBE STABILIZES
d. LET has no effect on RBE
b.as LET decreases, RBE decreases
66
the effects of radiation to biologic material are dependent on several factors, if a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a period of time, the effect
a.will be greater than if it were delivered all at one time
b.will be less than if it were delivered all at one time
c.has no relation to how it is delivered in time
d.is solely dependent on the radiation quality
b.will be less than if it were delivered all at one time
67
which of the following accounts for x-ray beam heterogeneity?
1.incident electrons interacting with several layers of tungsten target atoms
2.electrons moving to fill different shell vacancies
3.its nuclear origin
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2 only
68
what is used to account for the relative radio sensitivity of various tissues and organs
1.tissue weighting factor(Wt)
2.radiation weighting factors(Wr)
3.absorbed dose
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
a.1 only
69
how are wavelength and energy related
a.directly
b.inversley
c.chemically
d.empirically
b.inversley
70
the principale stochastic effects of long-term low-radiation doses include
1.leukemia
2.cancer
3.genetic effects
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3
71
which of the following is/are a feature of x-ray equipment, designed especially to eliminate unnecessary radiation to the patient?
1.filtration
2.Minimum SSD of 30cm
3.collimator accuracy
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
72
the quality assurance term used to describe consistency in exposure at adjacent milliampere station is
a.automatic exposure control
b.positive beam limitation
c.linearity
d.reproducibility
c.linearity
73
how does filtration affect primary beam?
a.filtration increases the average energy of the primary beam
b.filtration decreases the average energy of the primary beam
c.filtration results in increased patient dose
d.filtartion increases the intensity of the primary beam
a.filtration increases the average energy of the primary beam
74
methods of decreasing patient exposure during fluoroscopic procedures include
1.positioning the image intensifier as far from the patient as possible
2.using the last image hold feature
3.using the smallest FOV
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
c.2 and 3 only
75
patient dose is affected by
1.inherent filtration
2.added filtration
3.source-image distance
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
76
which of the following groups of technical factors will deliver the greatest amount of exposure to the patient?
a.20mAs,100kV
b.40mAs,90kV
c.80mAs,80kV
d.160mAs,70kV
d.160mAs,70kV
b/c it is the highest mAs with is amount of photons
77
the principal function of x-ray beam filtration is to
a.reduce operator dose
b.reduce patient skin dose
c.reduce image noise
d.reduce scattered radiation
b.reduce patient skin dose
78
which of the following are types of gonadal shielding
1.flat contact
2.shaped(contour) contact
3.shadow
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
79
the advantages of beam restriction include
1.production of less scattered radiation
2.irradiation of less biologic material
3.patient shielding will not be required
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2 only
80
methods of decreasing patient exposure during fluoroscopic procedure include
1.using a low pulse rate
2.minimizing the use of boost mode 3.using high kilo voltage/low milliampere combination
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
81
the protective control booth from which the radiographer makes the xray exposure is a
a.primary barrier
b.secondary barrier
c.useful beam barrier
d.remnant radiation barrier
b.secondary barrier
82
if an individual received 0.45mGya while standing at 4 feet from a source of radiation for 2 min, which of the following options will most effectively reduce their radiation exposure
a.standing 6 feet from the source for 2 min
b.standing 5 feet from the source for 1 min
c.standing 4 feet from the source for 3 min
d.standing 3 feet from the source for 2 min
b.standing 5 feet from the source for 1 min
c and d will increase exposure
a and b will reduce exposure as distance is increased
use inverse square law to decide
83
occupational exposure to ionizing radiation is reduced by the following exposure cord guideline
1.exposure cords on mobile equipment must allow operator to be at least 6 feet from the xray tube
2.exposure cords on fixed equipment must allow the operator to be 6 feet from the xray tube
3.exposure cords on fixed and mobile equipment should be coiled expandable type
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
a.1 only
84
how much protection is provided from a 75kv xray beam when using a 0.50mmPb equivalent
a.65%
b.75%
c.88%
d.99%
c.88%
85
which of the following groups of technical factors will deliver the least exposure to the patient
a.5mAs,90kV
b.10mAs,80kV
c.20mAs,68kV
d.40mAs,66kV
a.5mAs,90kV
high kV and low mAs is safest as the higher energy is more likely to exit th patient
86
should an infant/child be unable to maintain the necessary radiographic position and mechanical restraining devices cannot be used, required assistance is most suitably obtained from
a.floor nurse
b.transporter
c.friend or relative
d.student radiographer
c.friend or relative
87
guidelines used to reduce personnel and/or patient dose in fluoroscopy include
1.maximum tabletop intensity of 100mGya/min
2.maximum SSD of 30 cm
3.minimum filtration of 2.5mmAl equivalent
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
c.1 and 3 only
88
features of fluoroscopic equipment designed especially to eliminate unecessary radiation to the patient and personnel include
1.protective curtain
2.filtration
3.collimation
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
89
the height of primary radiation barriers must be at least
a.5 feet
b.6 feet
c.7 feet
d.8 feet
c.7 feet
90
each time an xray photon scatters, its intensity at 1 m from scattering object is what fraction of its original intensity
a.1/10
b.1/100
c.1/500
d.1/1000
d.1/1000
91
in which of the following systems does the radiographer select the anatomic part form the console menu
a.AEC
b.APR
c.TFT
d.CCD
b.APR
92
how is SID related to exposure
a.as SID increases,expousre rate increases and receptor exposure increases
b.as SID increases, exposure rate increases and receptor exposure decreases
c.as SID increases, exposure rate decreases and receptor exposure increases
d. as SID increases, exposure rate decreases and receptor exposure decreases
d.as SID increases, exposure rate decreases and receptor exposure decreases
93
the effects of scattered radiation on the x-ray image include:
1.it produces fog
2.it decreases contrast resolution
3. it increases grid cutoff
a. 1 only
b.2 only
c.1 and 2 only
d.1,2 and 3 only
c.1 and 2 only
grid cutoff is caused by improper relationship between xray tube and the grid therefore has nothing to do with scatter
94
which of the following can impact receptor exposure
1.tissue density
2.pathology
3.beam restriction
a.1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
95
if it is desired to reduce the receptor exposure by one half, which of the following would best accomplish this
a.decrease the kv by 50%
b.decrease the kv by 15%
c.decrease the SID by25%
d.decrease the grid ratio
b.decrease the kv by 15%
decrease kV by 15% will half the receptor exposure
changing SID changes image magnification and patient dose as well decreasing grid ratio will increase receptor exposure
96
the use of optimum kV for small, medium and large parts is premised of
a.fixed kv, variable mAs technique chart
b.variable kV,fixed mAs technique chart
c.fixed mAs, variable body part technique
d.fixed mAs, variable SID technique
a.a fixed kv, variable mAs technique chart
optimum or fixed kv technique separates anatomic parts into small medium and large categories and assigns optimum kv for that particular body part
97
an exposure was made using 200 mA, 50-ms exposure, and 75kV. each of the following changes will effectively double radiographic receptor exposure except
a.change to 0.1-s exposure e
b.change to 86 kv
c.change to 20 mAs
d.change to 100 mA
d.change to 100mA
receptor exposureis directly related to mAs, if exposure time is doubled from 0.05 to 0.1s receptor exposure will be doubled
if mAs is doubled from 10 to 20mAs receptor exposure will double
according to the 15% rule if kv is increased by 15% from 75 to 86kV receptor exposure will double
changing to 100mA will halve the mAs which will halve the receptor exposure
98
technical factors of 85kV and 10mAs are used for a particular non grid exposure, what mAs correction should be made is an 8:1 grid is added?
a.20mAs
b.30mAs
c.40mAs
d.50mAs
c.40mAs
recalling the grid ratio factors
changing from a 8:1 grid you must multiply the original mAs factor by 4
99
of the following groups of technical factors which will produce the greatest receptor exposure
a.200mA,50ms,36 inch SID
b.400mA,0.05s,72 inch SID
c.400 mA,0.10 s, 72 inch SID
d.200 mA,100ms, 36 inch SID
d.200mA,100ms,36SID
the formula mAx second=mAs
the greatest receptor exposure will be produced by the greatest mAs and shortest SID
100
which of the following pathologic conditions would require an increase in technical factors
a.pneumoperitoneum
b.obstructed bowel
c.renal colic
d.ascites
d.ascites
pneumoperitoneum is an abnormal accumulation of air or gas in the peritoneal cavity it requires decrease in tech factors
obstructed bowel usually involves distended gas filled bowel loops which requires decrease in tech factors
renal colic is pain so usually no change
ascites is abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity which requires an increase in tech factors
101
the term used to describe the number of bits per pixel, which has a significant effect on grayscale is
a.voxel
b.bit depth
c.histogram
d.TFT
b.bit depth
102
all the following statements regarding automatic exposure control are true except
a.AECs function to produce consistent and comparable receptor exposures
b.ionization chambers are located between the xray table and the IR
c.AECs will compensate for tissue thickness and density differences
d.minimum reaction time is the longest exposure time possible with a particular AEC
d.minimum reaction time is the longest exposure time possible with a particular AEC
103
the following statements regarding protective filtration is/are true
1.protective filtration functions to reduce patient skin dose
2.protective filtration increases the xray beam overall average energy
3.protective filtration had no impact on receptor exposure
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
protective filtration removes diagnostically useless xray photons that only contribute to patient skin dose
the xray photons are low energy and would not reach the IR thus protective filtration has no effect on receptor exposure
104
a satisfactory receptor exposure was obtained using 12 mAs and 400mA. what exposure time would be required to produce the same receptor exposure using 1200mA
a.0.1ms
b.1.0ms
c.10ms
d.100ms
c.10ms
using 12mAs and 400mA the exposure time was 30ms. b/c mAxtime=mAs
then 1200x=12
x=0.01s(10s)
105
grid absorption of the useful beam is termed
a.cleanup
b.cutoff
c.focusing
d.compensation
b.cutoff
grids must be used correctly in order to avoid absorption of the useful beam termed cleanup
106
image detector spatial resolution in direct digital system is
1.fixed
2.inversely related to the TFT DEL size
3.always variable
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2 only
spatial resolution is the the term used to describe the detectors impact on recorded detail imaging
spatial resolution is detector dependent
detectors in direct digital systems are fixed and inversely related to the dEL size of the TFT
107
factors impacting spatial resolution in indirect digital(CR) imaging include
1.pixel pitch
2.sampling frequency
3.DEL size of the TFT
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2 only
spatial resolution in CR imaging improves with increased sampling frequency, smaller pitch, smaller pixel size and larger image matrix
108
the percentage of incoming xray photons that are identified and absorbed by the detector describes
a.DEL
b.FOV
c.DQE
d.TFT
c.DQE
109
the electronic term used to describe anything that interfere with visualization of the xray image is
a.scintiliation
b.MTF
c.postprocessing
d.noise
d.noise
noise is anything that interferes with the visualization of the image we wish to see
110
factors that can impact resolution include
1.patient factors
2.focal spot size
3.SID
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
111
misalignment of the tube-part- IR relationship results in
a.shape distortion
b.size distortion
c.magnification
d.blur
a.shape distortion
shape distortion is caused by improper alignment of the tube, part and IR
size distortion or magnification caused by to great an OID or too short an SID
blur is caused by the use of a large focal spot
112
an algorithm as used in xray imaging
a.is a geometric formula
b.produces specific exposure factors
c.is a series of variable instructions
d.produces predetermined exposure factors
c. is a series of variable instructions
an algorithm is a series of computerized step-by-step instructions used to solve a problem
113
foreshortening of an anatomic structure means that
a.it is projected on the IR smaller than its actual size
b.its image is more lengthened than its actual size
c.it is accompanied by geometric blur
d.it is significantly magnified
a. it is projected on the IR smaller than its actual size
114
in electronic imaging as digital image matrix size increases
1.pixel size decreases
2.resolution decreases
3.FOV decreases
a.1 only
b.2 only
c.1 and 2 only
d.2 and 3 only
a. 1 only
as matrix size is increased there are more and smaller pixels in the matrix and therefore improved resolution
115
focal spot blur is greatest
a.directly along the course of the certain ray
b.toward the cathode end of the xray beam
c.toward the anode end of the xray beam
d.as the SID is increased
b.toward the cathode end of the xray beam
focal spot blur is caused by photons emerging from large focal spot.
the effective focal spot size varies along the longitudinal tube axis being the greatest in size at the cathode end of the beam and smallest at the anode .
therefore since the projected focal spot is greatest at the cathode end the geometric blur is also greatest at the corresponding end of the image
116
for medicolegal reasons, radiographic images are required to include al the following information except
a.the patients name and or/identification number
b.the patients birth date
c.a right or left side marker
d.the date of the exam
b. the patients birth date
every radiographic image must include: the patient name or ID number, the side marker, the date of exam and identity of the institution or office
117
the component of a CR IP that records the radiologic image is the
a.emulsion
b.helium-neon laser
c.photostimulable phosphor
d.scanner-reader
c.phtostimulable phosphor(PSP)
118
if a PSP has been stored unused, for 48 hours or more it should be erased prior to use to avoid
a.phantom image formation
b.image fog
c.aliasing artifact
d.image distortion
b.image fog
PSP storage plates or sensitive to X-rays,gamma, ultraviolet a nd particulate radiation
119
factors that can affect histogram appearance include
1.beam restriction
2.centering errors
3.incorrect SID
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
lack of collimation results in signals outside the anatomic area being included in histogram
basically annoying that affects scatter and dose
120
the process of "windowing" of digital images determines the image
a.spatial resolution
b.contrast
c.pixel size
d.matrix size
b.contrast
121
the main difference between the direct-capture and indirect-capture DR is the
a.direect capture/conversion has no scintillator
b.direct capture/conversion uses a PSP
c.in direct capture/conversion, light is detected by CCds
d.in direct capture/conversion, light is detected by TFTs
a.direct capture/conversion has no scintillator
one type of indirect capture FPD uses CsI or Gd2O2S as the scintillator
indirect capture FPD systems xray energy is converted to an electrical signal in a single layer of material such as the semiconductor a-Se
122
what feature is used to display RIS information on current patients
a.HIS
b.MWL
c.PACS
d.DICOM
b.MWL
PACS is used to store images
RIS and HIS is electronic health information storage
MWL brings up existing RIS information
123
the xray photon detector is direct capture system is
1.a semiconductor
2.a-Se
3.CsI
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b,1 and 2 only
indirect uses CsI or Gd2O2S so 3 is not an option
direct has a single layer of semiconductor a-Se therefore 1 and 2 are the answer
124
the processing algorithm represents the
a.pixel value distribution
b.anatomic part and projection
c.image gray scale
d.screen speed
b.anatomic part and projection
the radiographer selects a processing algorithm by selecting the anatomic part and particular projection on the computer and the CR matches that information with a particular LUT
125
diagnostic X-rays are generally associated with
a.high frequency and long wavelength
b.high frequency and short wavelength
c.low frequency and long wavelength
d.low frequency and short wavelength
b.high frequency and short wavelength
more energetic radiations have shorter wavelengths and higher frequency
creamy and gamma rays are one of the highest frequency on the electromagnetic spectrum
126
the function of shuttering is to
a.remove bright,unexposed areas outside collimated field
b.prevent overexposure
c.prevent underexposure
d.substitute for, or supplement collimation
a.remove bright, unexposed areas outside collimated filed
127
to eject a K-shell electron from tungsten atom, the incoming electron must have an energy of at least
a.60keV
b.70keV
c.80keV
d.90keV
b.70keV
128
the advantages of HF generators over earlier types of generators include
1.smaller size
2.nearly constant potential
3.lower patient dose
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
129
which of the following can be associated with mobile xray equipment
1.wireless detector
2.meet chargeable batteries
3.HF output
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
mobile equipment operate son rechargeable batteries with HF output. immediate image display is possible via FPD systems and built in monitors
130
the device used to change AC to unidirectional current is
a.a capacitor
b.a solid-state diode
c.a transformer
d.a generator
b. as solid-state diode
solid-state diode made of semiconductive material such as silicon, selenium or germanium that conduct electricity in only one direction
131
which of the following circuit devices operates on the principle of self-induction
1.autotransformer
2.choke coil
3.high voltage transformer
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2 only
self induction is a characteristic of only AC
the autotransformer allows the radiographer to vary the kv
the choke coil is a type of variable resistor that may be used to regulate filament current
132
the relationship between wavelength and energy is correctly described as
a.directly related
b.inversely related
c.directly proportional
d.inversely proportional
b.inversely related
wavelength is the distance between two consecutive wave crests
frequency refers to the number of cycles per second
photon energy increases as wavelength decreases and frequency increases
133
the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer receives
a.AC
b.direct current
c.pulsating direct current
a.AC
134
the two main characteristics of AC are
a.constant amplitude and periodic change in flow
b.bidirectional amplitude and periodic flow
c.periodic amplitude and unidirectional flow
d.varying amplitude and periodic reversal of direction
d. varying amplitude and periodic reversal of direction
AC consist of sinusoidal waves. one wavelength consist of two half cycles
135
the xray interaction with matter that is responsible for the majority of SR reaching the IR is
a.photelectric effect
b.compton scatter
c.classical scatter
d.thompson sactter
b. Compton scatter
photoelectric effect a low energy photon uses all its energy to eject an inner shell electron leaving a vacancy where a electron form the shell above drops down to fill the vacancy and in doing so gives up a characteristic ray
Compton scatter a high energy incident photon is deflected with reduced energy but usually retains most of its energy and exists the body as a energetic scattered ray
136
which of the following combinations will offer the greatest heat loading capability
a.17 degree angle,1.2mm actual focal spot
b.10 degree angle,1.2mm actual focal spot
c.17 degree angle,0.6mm actual focal spot
d.10 degree angle,0.6mm actual focal spot
b.10 degree angle,1.2mm actual focal spot
the smaller the focal spot the more limited the anode is with respect to the quantity of heat it can safely accept.as the target angle decreases the actual focal spot can be increased while maintaining a small effective focal spot
a steep angle and large actual focal spot is best
137
the line focus principle expresses the relationship between
a.the actual and effective focal spots
b.exposure given to the IR and the resulting receptor exposure
c.SID used and resulting receptor exposure
d.grid ratio and line per inch
a.the actual and effective focal spots
the line focus principle is a geometric principle illistrating that the actual focal spot is larger than the effective(projected) focal spot
138
although the stated focal spot size is measured directly under the actual focal spot, the focal spot size actually varies along the length of the xray beam. at which portion of the xray beam is the effective focal spot the smallest
a.at its outer edge
b.along the path of the central ray
c.at the cathode end
d.at the anode end
d.at the anode end
the focal spot is angled so as the actual focal spot is projected downward it is foreshortened.as it is projected toward the cathode end the xray beam the effective focal spot becomes larger
139
design characteristics of xray tube targets that determine heat capacity include
1.the rotation of the anode
2.the diameter of the anode
3.the size of the focal spot
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
99% of an xray exposure is made into heat knowing that a target that rotates during exposure is spreading the heat over a large area. the diameter of the anode is greater the focal track will be longer and heat will be spread over a larger area.the larger the actual focal spot size the larger the are over which generated heat is spread
140
the electron cloud within the xray tube is the product of a process called
a.electrolysis
b.thermionic emission
c.rectification
d.induction
b.thermionic emission
electrolysis describes the chemical ionization effects of an electric current
rectification is the process of changing AC to undirectional current
141
which of the following is/are characteristics of the xray tube
1.the target material should have a high atomic number and a high melting point
2.the useful beam emerges from the port window
3.the cathode assembly receives both low and high voltages
a.1 only
b.2 only
c.1 and 2 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
anode target with a high atomic number produces higher energy xrays more efficiently. due to a large amount of heat being produced at the target the material must have a high melting point.
most of the xrays generated at the focal spot are directed downward and pas through the xrays tubes port window
the cathode filament recieves low voltage current then high voltage is applied to drive the electrons across the focal track
142
delivery of a large exposures to a cold anode or the use of exposures exceeding tube limitation can result in
1.increased tube output
2.cracking of the anode
3.rotor-bearing damage
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
c.2 and 3 only
large quantity of heat applied to a cold anode can cause enough surface heat to crack the anode
excessive heat also can be conducted to the rotor bearings causing increased friction and tube failure
vaporized tungsten deposits on the glass envelope can cause a filtering effect which DECREASES tube output
143
as electrons impinge on the anode surface, less than 1% of their kinetic energy is changed to
a.xrays
b.heat
c.gamma rays
d.recoil electrons
a.xrays
majority of target interactions involve the incident electrons and outer shell tungsten electrons.no ionization occurs and the energy loss is reflected in heat generation. more 99% of the electrons kinetic energy is changed to heat energy and less than 1% into xray photons energy
144
conditions that contribute to xray tube damage include
1.lengthy anode rotation
2.exposures to a cold anode
3.low mAs/high kV exposure factors
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2 only
prolonged root time can lead to shortened filament life as a result of early vaporization
exposure to a cold anode will heat the anode surface and the big temperature difference will cause cracking of the anode
*want to use lower mAs and high kV as that will produce minimum heat therefore prolonging tube life*
145
characteristics of the metallic element tungsten include
1.ready dissipation go heat
2.high melting point
3.high atomic number
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1, 2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
tungsten has a high atomic number and produces high energy X-rays a great amount of heat is produced at the target
146
an AEC device can operate on which of the following principles
1.A PMT charged by a fluorescent screen
2.a parallel-plate ionization chamber charged by x-ray photons
3.motion of magnetic fields inducing current in a conductor
a.1 only
b.2 only
c.1 and 2 only
d.1,2 and 3
c.1 and 2 only
147
the type of AEC device most commonly used is the
a.phototimer
b.ionization chamber
c.sensor
d.backup timer
b.ionization chamber
148
the AEC backup timer functions to
1.protect the patient from overexposure
2.protect the xray tube from excessive heat
3.increase or decrease programmed receptor exposure
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2 only
the manual backup timer is used incase the AEC timer fails to terminate
149
the voltage ripple associated with three-phase/12-pulse-rectified generator is about
a.4%
b.13%
c.32%
d.100%
a.4%
voltage ripple refers to the percentage drop from maximum voltage each pulse of current experiences
150
circuit devices that permit electrons to flow in only one direction are
a.solid-state diodes
b.resistors
c.transformers
d.autotransformers
a.solid-state diodes
rectifiers such as solid state diodes change AC into unidirectional current
resistors are used to vary voltage or current
transformers change the voltage to useful levels
autotransformers enable us to select the required kilovoltage
151
which of the following is/are components of the secondary, or high voltage, side of the xray circuit
1.rectification system
2.autotransformer
3.kV meter
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
a. 1 only
secondary side includes
secondary coil of high-voltage transformer
mA meter
rectifiers
xray tube
152
if the primary coil of a high-voltage transformer is supplied by 220 V and has 400 turns and the secondary coil has 100,000 turns what is the voltage induced in the secondary coil
a.80kV
b.55kV
c.80V
d.55V
b.55kv
153
a device used to ensure reproducible radiographs, regardless of tissue density variations is the
a.automatic exposure control
b.penetromer
c.grid device
d.induction motor
a.automatic exposure control
AEC automatically terminate the xray exposure once a predetermined quantity of xrays has penetrated the patient
154
accurate operation of the AEC device depends on
1.thickness and density
2.positioning of the object with respect to the photocell
3.beam restriction
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
c.2 and 3 only
the AEC automatically adjusts the exposure for body parts with different thicknesses and densities
155
what is located between the secondary coil of the high voltage transformer and the xray tube
a.timer
b.rectifiers
c.filament circuit
d.autotransformer
c. filament circuit
the rectifiers are system of diodes located between secondary coil of high voltage transformer and xray tube. allow current to flow in one direction
156
image resolution improves as
1.scintiliation increases
2.DEL size decreases
3.fill factor increases
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
c.2 and 3 only
the smaller the TFT DEL size and the larger the fill factor the better the spatial resolution
157
as digital image matrix size increases
1.pixel size decreases
2.resolution decreases
3.pixel depth decreases
a. 1only
b.2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3 only
a.1 only
as pixel size increases there are more smaller pixels in the matrix and therefore improved resolution
158
the luminescent light emitted by the PSP is transformed into the image seen on the CRT by the
a.PSP
b.scanner-reader
c.ADC
d.helium-neon laser
c.ADC
the exposed IP is placed into the CR scanner/reader where the PSP/SPS is removed automatically
the latent image appears as the PSP is scanned by a narrow high intensity helium-neon laser to obtain pixel data
159
potential digital image post processing tasks include
1.PACS
2.annotation
3.inversion/reversal
a.1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
c.2 and 3 only
image post processing provides the opportunity for image optimization
annotation allows for placement of labels,arrow indicators
image inversion/reversal provides a different perspective by changing white to black and black to white
PACS is picture archiving communication system so has nothing to do with post processing-my thoughts
160
computed radiography resolution increases as
1.laser beam size decreases
2.monitor matrix size decreases
3.PSP crystal size decreases
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
c.1 and 3 only
smaller phosphors in the PSP plate allow less light diffusion-smaller phosphor size improves resolution
a narrow laser beam is required for optimal resolution
161
what pixel size has a 512x512 matrix with a 20-cm FOV
a.0.07mm/pixel
b.0.40mm/pixel
c.0.04mm/pixel
d.4.0mm/pixel
b.0.40mm/pixel
FOV and matrix are independent of each other, but pixel size is affected by changes in FOV or matrix size
change 20cm to mm=20cmx10mm=200mm
200mm divided by 512=0.39mm/pixel
162
the differences between CR and DR include
1.CR uses IPs
2.CR has higher DQE and lower patient dose
3.CR images are displayed immediately
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
a.1 only
DR does not use IPs or traditional xray table it is direct capture/conversion
DR is immediate display of the image
163
as the size of the image matrix increases in digital imaging
1.FOV increases
2.pixel size decreases
3.spatial resolution increases
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
c.2 and 3 only
FOV and matrix size are independent of each other-either can change and the other will be unaffected
164
kv selection in digital imaging has and effect on
1.photon energy
2.penetration
3.image contrast
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2 only
in digital imaging brightness and contrast are determined by computer software and monitor controls
kV determines penetration NOT contrast
kV is the amount of energy-my thought
165
digital radiographic imaging equipment provides a number of functions for optimization of image quality, including
1.exposure data recognition
2.automatic rescaling
3.narrow latitude
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
digital imaging EDR and automatic rescaling offer wide latitude and automatic optimization of the VOI
166
which of the following system functions to compensate for changing patient/part thickness during fluoroscopic procedures
a.automatic brightness control
b.minification gain
c.automatic resolution control
d.flux gain
a.automatic brightness control
167
patient dose during fluoroscopy is affected by the
1.distance between the patient and the input phosphor
2.amount of magnification
3.tissue density
a.1 only
b.3 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
168
which of the following is used in DF, replacing the image intensifiers television camera tube
a.solid-state diode
b.charge-coupled device
c.photstimulable phosphor
d.vidicon
b.charge-coupled device
169
ABC is used in fluoroscopy to adjust the
a.kilovoltage(kV) and milliamperage(mA)
b.backup timer
c.mA and time
d.kV and time
a.kilovoltage(kV0 and milliamperage(mA)
The ABC functions to maintain constant brightness and contrast of the output screen image correcting the fluctuations in attenuation by adjusting kV/mA
170
to maintain image clarity in an image-intensifier system, the path of electron flow from the photocathode to the output phosphor is controlled by the
a.accelerating anode
b.electrostatic lenses
c.vacuum glass envelope
d.input phosphor
b.electrostatic lenses
*input phosphor receives remnant radiation emerging from the patient and converts it to a fluorescent light image
171
moving the image intensifier closer to the patient during fluoroscopy
1.decreased the SID
2.decreases patient dose
3.improves image quality
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1, 2 and 3
moving the image intensifier closer to the patient during fluoroscopy reduces the distance between the xray tube and the image receptor which is SID
as the SID is reduced the intensity of the xray photons at the image intensifiers input phosphor increases stimulating the ABC to decrease mA and thereby decreasing patient dose
the short the OID the less magnification and better image quality
172
which of the following is/are associated with magnification fluoroscopy
1.higher patient dose than non magnification fluoroscopy
2.high voltage to the focusing lenses
3.image intensifier focal point closer to the input phosphor
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
173
advantages of flat panel fluoroscopy include
1.deceased patient dose
2.increased temporal resolution
3.decreased DQE
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2 only
flat panel fluoroscopy or DF offers lower patient dose because its xray beam is pulsed and not continuous
the xray exposure turns on and off very quickly, thereby reducing motion unsharpness-increasing temporal resolution
174
the total brightness gain of an image intensifier is the product of
1.flux gain
2.minification gain
3.focusing gain
a.1 only
b. 2 only
c.1 and 2 only
d.1 and 3 only
c.1 and 2 only
total brightness gain is equal to the product of minification and flux gain
*the output phosphor is only a fraction of the size of the input phosphor and this decrease in image size represents brightness gain termed minification gain
*the ratio of the number of xray photons at the input phosphor compared with the number light photons at the out put phosphor is termed flux gain
175
the term interrogation time refers to
a. the shortest possible exposure time permitted by a particular xray tube
b.the amount of time required for xray tube AM warming
c.the time required for the xray tube to turn off
d.the time it takes the xray tube to reach the required technical factors
d.the time it takes the xray tube to reach required technical factors
176
the CT xray tube collimator having greatest impact inpatient dose is the
a.prepatient collimator
b.predector collimator
c.control collimator
d.gantry collimator
a.prepatinet collimatorprepatinet minimizes beam divergence and determines patient dose
177
axial CT images can be reconstructed to coronal images that will demonstrate
a.superior/inferior structural relationship
b.anterior/posterior relationships
c.medial/lateral relationships
d.inferior/lateral relationships
b.anterior/posterior relationships
axial demonstrates superioir/inferior
sagittal demonstrates medial/lateral
coronal demonstrates anterior/posterior
178
the component parts of a CT imaging system include
1.gantry
2.computer
3.table
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
4 components of a Ct imaging system
* a couch/table
* gantry
* computer
* operating consoles with display
179
the CT term used to describe patient couch/table movement divided by xray beam width is
a.pitch
b.gantry
c.grid
d.array
a.pitch
180
the CT xray tube collimator having greatest impact on image contrast is the
a.prepatinet collimator
b.predector collimator
c.control collimator
d.gantry collimator
b.predector collimator
prepatinet collimator minimizes beam divergence
predector further confines the exit beam before it reaches the detector array reducing exit scatter and improving image contrast
181
CT gantry components include
1.xray tube
2.detector array
3.computer
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2 only
gantry component include
*xray tube
*detector array
*high voltage generator
*colimator assembly
*slip rings
*DAS
* laser beam for positioning
182
the time lapse between completion of CT imaging and the appearance of CT is referred to as
a.reformation
b.reconstruction
c.display time
d.reassembly
b.reconstruction
183
requirements of CT xray tube include
1.high speed anode rotation for heat distribution
2.high short exposure rating for the pulsed beam
3.large focal spot for less heat protection
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2
requirements include
very high short exposure rating
capable of tolerating several million Hu
small focal spot for optimal spatial resolution
anode capable of high speed rotation in order to tolerate very high production of His
184
the CT xray tube collimator having greatest impact on sensitivity profile is the
a.prepatinet collimator
b.predector collimator
c.control collimator
d.gantry collimator
b.predector collimator
prepatinet collimator minimizes beam divergence and determines patient dose
pre detector/postpatinet collimator further confine exit beam before it reaches the detector array reducing exit scatter and determining slice thickness/sensitivity profile
185
transformation of two-dimensional CT images into three-dimensional images is accomplished by
a.multiplanar reformation
b.multiplanar reconstruction
c.interpolation
d.extrapolation
a.multiplanar reformation
interpolation and extrapolation are mathematical processes used in image reconstruction
186
what devices uses two exposures to measure the length and width of the full spot
1.slit camera
2.pinhole camera
3.aluminum step wedge
a.1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2 only
focal spot can me be measured with a slit camera, pinhole camera or star pattern
aluminum step wedge can be used to demonstrate the effect of kV on contrast in analog imaging
187
HVL is affected by
1.kV
2.filtration
3.focal spot
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2 only
HVL is defined as the thickness of any absorber that will reduce xray beam intensity to one half its original value
it is influenced by the type of rectification, total filtration, and kV
188
the term that refers to consistency on xray tube output is
a.reproducibility
b.linearity
c.half-value layer
d.reconstruction
a.reproducibility
189
with what frequency should the protective apparel such as aprons and gloves be checked
a.dialy
b.monthly
c.dimonthly
d.annually
d.annually
190
the focal spot size should be evaluated
1.upon installation
2.annually
3.monthly
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.1 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2
as the tube ages the focal spot can increase in size
191
equipment mA stations can be evaluated to determine their
a.reproducibility
b.linearity
c.half-value layer
d.reconstruction
b.linearity
192
HVL can increase as a result of
1.an increase in kV
2.vaporized tungsten on the inner surface of the glass envelope
3.a decrease in kV
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
b.1 and 2 only
HVL is influenced by the type of rectification, total filtration, and kV
193
equipment used to evaluate focal spot size
1.aluminum step wedge
2.pinhole camera
3.slit camera
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
c.2 and 3 only
focal spot size can be measured using a pinhole camera, slit camera or star pattern
194
advantages of LED display over LCD display include
1.less power consumption
2.improved lighting
3.thinner design
a.1 only
b.1 and 2 only
c.2 and 3 only
d.1,2 and 3
d.1,2 and 3
LED have improved lighting, display device is more energy efficient, has a longer life, has a larger viewable are and is thinner
195
if the distance from the focal spot to the center of the collimators mirror is 6 inches what distance should the Illuminati's light bulb be from the center of the mirror
a.3 inches
b.6 inches
c.9. inches
d.12 inches
b.6 inches
in order for the project light beam to be the same size as the xray beam the focal spot and the light bulb must be exactly at the same distance from the center of the mirror
