Prep Test 6 Flashcards
Question 17 of 90 Which of the following should be one of the first actions taken on a managed switch when configuring it out of the box to mitigate against malicious attacks? Answers A. Change the native VLAN B. Change the default IP address C. Change the default MAC address D. Disable unused TCP ports
A.
Change the native VLAN
The default native VLAN used on most switches is VLAN 1. This default, if not changed by the network administrator, can be used to initiate attacks such as VLAN hopping where an attacker can gain unauthorized access to another VLAN. Best practices dictate that the default VLAN should be changed and should remain unused.
Question 20 of 90
On a newly configured OSPF network, to verify connectivity with the routers, you execute the show ip ospf neighbor command. You, however, get to see only the FULL/DR and FULL/BDR. Rest all other neighbors are shown as 2-WAY/DROTHER.What could be the probable cause?
Answers
A.
This is the default configuration to reduce the amount of flooding on broadcast media.
B.
The network is configured with Manual route summarization.
C.
The OSPF topology is not fully built.
D.
Remaining routers are not in the same AS area.
A.
This is the default configuration to reduce the amount of flooding on broadcast media.
Assistance
This is the default configuration to reduce the flooding on the broadcast media. Except for Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated Router (BDR), all other routers will be shown as 2-WAY.
Question 22 of 90
Refer to the following statements about load balancers:
Combines multiple WAN connections to the Internet Balances CPU load of multiple network devices for efficiency Performs wireless channel bonding to increase aggregate throughput
Which of the preceding statements is true? Answers A. Statement 2 B. Statement 1 C. Statements 2 and 3 D. Statements 1 and 3 E. Statements 1 and 2
B.
Statement 1
A load balancer is a device that can combine or bind multiple wired WAN connections to the Internet and provide the aggregate bandwidth to an internal network. This device implements algorithms that will balance the sessions initiated by the internal network over all the available WAN connections to evenly and efficiently distribute the network traffic.
Question 25 of 90
You are setting up a new network and want to implement a security solution that will provide the following:
Firewall VPN Intrusion prevention system Content Filtering Malware and spam protection
Which of the following will meet your requirements? Answers A. Multi-role firewall B. AAA Server C. UTM appliance D. NG Firewall
C.
UTM appliance
Unified Threat Management (UTM) is an approach to information security where a single hardware or software solution provides multiple security functions. A UTM appliance is one such device. This simplifies security management by providing a single management and reporting point for security administration instead of having multiple devices for this purpose.
Question 27 of 90 Which of the following would you use to implement a network access control mechanism that will authenticate users attempting to connect to a LAN? Answers A. Access control list B. IEEE 802.1x C. Captive portal D. MAC Filtering
B.
IEEE 802.1x
IEEE 802.1X is an IEEE Standard for port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It is part of the IEEE 802.1 group of networking protocols. It provides an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a LAN or WLAN. It is an exclusively Layer 2 protocol.
Question 29 of 90 Your client has an online e-shop and is concerned about the security provided for the financial transactions of customers. You are asked to recommend the appropriate cryptographic protocols to be used. Which would you choose? Answers A. TLS B. IPSec C. SSL D. DTLS
A.
TLS
Transport Layer Security (TLS) and its predecessor, Secure Sockets Layer (SSL), are cryptographic protocols that provide communications security over a computer network. (SSL is no longer used due to inherent vulnerabilities discovered in 2011.) Their primary and widespread applications include web browsing, email and instant messaging. Websites can use TLS to secure all communications between their servers and web browsers and are used by e-shops and banking sites. TLS is used with the TCP protocol, however, a variant of TLS called Datagram TLS (DTLS) which is used with the UDP protocol.
Question 31 of 90
You are the network administrator of a small organization that has a 2 Mbps Internet link. While reviewing the logs of the gateway router in the afternoon time, you notice that an interface that connects to the Internet in the morning went down for a few hours. Users, however, were not aware of the Internet connectivity loss. What has most likely happened? [Choose all that apply].
Answers
A. Logs are marked with incorrect time stamps. B. The log of the interface going down is a false positive. C. The clock on the network device is set incorrectly. D. Redundant Internet connectivity by the service provider was probably active.
A.
Logs are marked with incorrect time stamps.
C.
The clock on the network device is set incorrectly.
The accuracy of the clock on network devices is very important, especially for troubleshooting purpose. All device logs use the system clock to timestamp the events that are recorded. If the clock is incorrect, it is difficult to correlate specific events on a device with those logged on other network devices as well as with the user experience.
Question 35 of 90
You have been asked to build a business case for implementing Software Defined Networking (SDN). Along with the benefits of SDN, you need to describe the operational efficiencies. What would they be? [Choose two that apply.]
Answers
A.
Reduce recovery time from minutes to seconds
B.
Make changes in minutes, not days or weeks
C.
Visualization of the entire network
D.
Reduction in labor to make changes
B.
Make changes in minutes, not days or weeks
D. Reduction in labor to make changes
Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to computer networking that allows network administrators to programmatically initialize, control, change, and manage network behavior dynamically. SDN is meant to address the fact that the static architecture of traditional networks doesn’t support the dynamic, scalable computing and storage needs of more modern computing environments such as data centers. In terms of operational efficiencies, you reduce the manual labor to make changes and make changes in minutes, not in hours or days. Reduce recovery time is related to network performance. Visualization of a network is related to the network management.
Question 36 of 90 You are planning to implement instant messaging, video communication, and voice over IP in your organization. You have already opened the port 5060 and 5061 in the firewall. To be able to successfully control the communication sessions, which protocol would be ideal? Answers A. H.323 B. SCCP C. VoIP D. SIP
D.
SIP
Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is a communications protocol for signaling and controlling communication sessions for use with real-time communications including voice over IP technologies as well as video, presence and instant messaging functionalities. SIP uses port 5060 and SIPS uses port 5061.
Question 37 of 90
Which of the following is an example of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)? [Choose three that apply.]
Answers
A.
Workday
B.
Concur
C.
Apprenda
D.
Cisco Metapod
E.
Microsoft Azure
F.
Google Compute Engine (GCE)
D.
Cisco Metapod
E.
Microsoft Azure
F.
Google Compute Engine (GCE)
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is an online service that provides the virtualization of underlying network infrastructures such as physical computing resources, location, data partitioning, scaling, security, and backups to name a few.
The operating system, virtualization, and the network are all considered parts of the IaaS model. The examples of IaaS are Amazon Web Services (AWS), Cisco Metapod, Microsoft Azure, Google Compute Engine (GCE), and Joyent.
Question 38 of 90 Which of the following configurations on a switch port will disable the port if an STP enabled switch is connected to it? Answers A. STP guard B. Flood guard C. BPDU guard D. Root guard
C.
BPDU guard
Port fast is a configuration on a switch port that can be applied to ports that connect to user end equipment. It allows a port to immediately start forwarding traffic rather than waiting a predefined time that STP requires. These ports should never connect to a switch. It is best practice to implement BPDU guard on such ports to mitigate the possibility of a malicious attacker or a well-meaning employee from installing a switch on one of these ports and causing havoc with STP.
Question 43 of 90
You have a CDMA phone that you want to use for a different service provider. What should you do? [Choose two that apply.]
Answers
A.
Configure the phone settings with the code provided by the new service provider
B.
Flash the phone using a cable
C.
Upgrade the phone with the software from the new service provider
D.
Use a passcode to unlock the phone
A.
Configure the phone settings with the code provided by the new service provider
B.
Flash the phone using a cable
CDMA phones do not have locking functionality like the GSM phones. The CDMA phones have service provider’s information stored in the phone’s software. To use a CDMA phone with a different service provider, you need to flash the CDMA phone using a cable and then use it with the different service provider.
Question 44 of 90 You oversee procuring data networking equipment for the organization you work for. You are required to purchase switches and routers that are capable of terminating pairs of fiber optic cables with LC connectors that will provide up to 1 Gbps speeds and no greater. Which of the following transceiver types should the network devices be compatible with and should you procure with the equipment? Answers A. SFP+ B. SFP C. GBIC D. QSFP
B.
SFP
A Small Form-factor Pluggable (SFP) transceiver is a hot-pluggable optical module transceiver used to terminate fiber optic cables with LC connectors. The transceiver plugs into the appropriate receptacle in networking equipment such as switches, routers or media converters. SFP transceivers provide up to 1 Gbps speeds for Ethernet networks. SFP+ and QSFP provide higher data rates while GBIC transceivers use SC connectors.
Question 49 of 90
Which of the following tools can a penetration tester use to perform penetration testing?
Answers
A.
Sqlmap
B.
Wireshark
C.
Metasploit
D.
Caine and Abel
E.
Acunetix
A.
Sqlmap
B.
Wireshark
C.
Metasploit
E.
Acunetix
A penetration test is an authorized simulated attack on a computer system, performed to evaluate the security of the system. The test is performed to identify both vulnerabilities and strengths, enabling a full risk assessment to be completed. A penetration test can help determine whether a system is vulnerable to attack if the defenses were sufficient, and which defenses (if any) the test defeated. Some of the well-known penetration testing tools are Acunetix, Wireshark, Metasploit, Sqlmap, and Nessus.
Question 52 of 90
If you have implemented SIEM on your network, which of the following will you be able to achieve? [Choose two that apply.]
Answers
A.
Real-time data traffic analysis
B.
Active patch rollback capabilities
C.
Real-time analysis of security alerts
D.
Event and log collection
C.
Real-time analysis of security alerts
D.
Event and log collection
Security information and event management (SIEM) is a function of specialized software products and services that combine security information management (SIM) and security event management (SEM). They provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware. SIEM software gathers, analyzes and presents information from network security devices. SIEM also provides event and log collection.
