Prep agent review videos Flashcards

1
Q

What is ownership of land?

A

Holding title to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the evidence of the transfer of title is the: ____

A

Deed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The seller executes a _____ to transfer _____ to real property and the ____________

A

1) deed
2) title
3) bundle of rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The bundle of rights include:

A

Right of Enjoyment
Right of disposition
Right of possession
Right of control
Right of exclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When a home buyer purchases a property they can expect to have the ______ bundle of rights to their property

A

Whole

(Right of Enjoyment
Right of disposition
Right of possession
Right of control
Right of exclusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who can the bundle of rights typically be broken up and distributed with?

A

1) Investment properties
2) Rental properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the Bundle of Rights

A

A buyer who purchases a property gets a bundle of rights when the title is transferred, and these rights generally give the buyer the freedom to use property for legal use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The ________________ gives the title holder the right to participate in any lawful activities they find enjoyable on the property. For Example, they have the right to put their feet up on the couch and watch TV.

A

Right of Enjoyment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The ___________ protects the title holder’s right to transfer ownership, permanently or temporarily, to another party.

It Basically means you can sell, rent or will the property. You only get this right when the property is owned outright and money is not owed to another party, such as a lender.

A

Right of Disposition/Transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The _______________ simply states that the title holder is the legal owner of the property.

A

Right of possession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The _______________ means the owner can use the property in any manner that is legal. Note that when there is a homeowner’s association, the association can place additional restriction on uses, like patio decoration or pet ownership.

A

Right of control/use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The ________________ allows the owner to limit who may enter the property. However, easements may be in place which override this right, such as utility company’s right to access power lines.

A

Right of Exclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a license?

A

A official permission to Do, Use, or Own something

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does a license sometimes represent?

A

A permit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a real estate license?

A

Permits issues by state governments. Give licensees the legal authorization to represent the home buyer or seller in a real estate transaction.

Its a license to perform the act of soliciting real estate business.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Are licenses appurtenant or run with the land?

A

No they are a personal right. They are not a true interest in the land. They can come from a verbal agreement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Can licenses be revoked at any time?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Is a license a privilege?

A

Yes, they are a privilate, give permission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Is a license to use the land the same thing as an easement?

A

No - by definition: easements are a legitimate interest in land and are often irrevocable by the person whose land is being used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Licenses are a _____ right and are ______ revocable

A

personal, easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When are licenses irrevocable?

A

In some situations where a license holder has spent significant amount to make improvements on the land with the approval of the grantor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Does anyone have the title to water?

A

No one has title to water. Property owners who land adjoins by water have reasonable rights to use a body of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are Riparian RIVER rights?

A

WATER MOVING IN A DIRECTION - Allows a property owner to use water from a water course such as a river, stream or creak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are Littorial LAKE rights

A

WATER THAT DOES NOT HAVE A DIRECTION - Concerning properties near an ocean, sea or lake. Usually concerned with the use and enjoyment of the shore.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Correlative use

A

Allows a property owner the use of underground water or water from a river for irrigation purposes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the Doctrine of Prior appropriation?

A

Use in states where water is scare. Under this doctrine of prior appropriate - it determine the use of water. Use of water is determined by the state, not the by the property adjacent to the body of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Accretion?

A

It’s when soil is deposited by the natural action of water and may increase the size of the property

“Mother nature’s gift to the land owner”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Reliction?

A

Gradual change of water line on a real property which gives the owner more dry land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is Erosion?

A

The wearing away of Land and soil by the action of wind, water, currents or ice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Avulsion?

A

“Bad news” The sudden tearing away of land by violent actions of natural causes such as a river or other water course

Ex: dam breaking

Natures way of say “screw you” to the land owner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

“real = _____”

A

Immovable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

” peronsal = _______”

A

movable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is chattel

A

personal property, Moooo vable (cow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a fixture?

A

Personal property that has become real property because of its associate with the property.

Example chandelier - starts off as movable personal property but once it becomes installed and immovable (real)P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the 5 ways to tell if an item qualifies as a fixture?

A
  1. M ethod - method of attachment. Is it attached to the walls, floor, celling with nails, screws, glue, cemment ?
  2. A daptability - if a fixture has become an integral part of the home then it has become part of the real property. Ex. pool cover is real property because that specific cover goes for that specific pool
  3. R elationship of the parties
  4. I ntention of the party when an item was attached. If an item was installed with the intention of making it a permeant attachment, like a built in bookcase, the item is a fixture
  5. A greemet - most purchase contract includes which item is included in the sale. Any agreement between the two parties overrides all other factors when determining if something is a fixture.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are trade fixtures

A

Type of fixture that is used for a trade of business that is considered personal property

items that are Often immovable based on their attachment to real property. (unlike ordinary fixtures that become part of the real property) Trade fixtures go with the person or entity that owns the business where the fixtures is installed because they are considered PERSONAL PROPERTY

Ex: dentist chair goes with the dentist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is an appurtenance?

A

Something that is installed in or sits on a property. It is something that is considered part of the property. It is sold with the property and is passed on the new owners.

“Runs with the land”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Real property is:

A

immovable or fixed property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is an Encroachment?

A

The physical intrusion of a structure or improvement on the land of another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where does the property extend?

A

Up to the sky therefore a tree hanging over the property line is a form of encroachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are examples of an encroachment?

A

A fence or driveway over the property line, tree hanging over your property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How can encroachments be found?

A

Through survey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When an encroachment occurs what can you sue for?

A

Truss pass. Encroachment is a form of trust pass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is an Easement?

A

A right held by one person to use the land of another person for a specified purpose - such as access to a property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is an appurtenant Easement?

A

Involves two properties owned by two different owners. Involves dominant and servient tenants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a Dominant tenant?

A

In control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a Servient tenant?

A

serving a purpose to a dominant property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is ingress

A

to enter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is engress

A

to exit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Does an Appurtenant easement continue after the sale of a property?

A

yes. An appurtenant easement attaches itself to a piece of property and is said to run with the land. Whenever a new property is sold, the new owner has the same right to use the property as the previous owner did.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is an easement in gross?

A

Has no dominent tenent because the people crossing the property because they are not used it to get to another property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Under each states _______________ law, easements must be ________________ to be valid

A

STATUE OF FRAUDS LAW, in writing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is an easement in gross?

A

Has no dominant tenant because the people crossing the property because they are not used it to get to another property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are common examples of easement in gross?

A

Utility company. Ex: the electric company may want to connect the power lines between two pools. If they want to do this, they will be granted an easement in gross.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is an easement by necessity created by?

A

by a court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When is an easement by necessity issued?

A

When someone has to cross over someone else’s land to gain access to their property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is an example of an easement by necessity?

A

For example, let’s say property owner Anne sells a back portion of her land to buyer Dave, but neglects to give Dave an easement for access. If Anne refuses to give Dave the easement, Dave can go to court and have an easement by necessity granted. Easements by necessity are also considered appurtenant easements that will now run with the land.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is an example of an easement by prescription?

A

Here’s an example to explain how easements by prescription work:

Every night, when your neighbor Joe comes home, he drives his car across a corner of your property. You see him but never stop him, and he does it for a long time. Eventually, you get tired of him driving across your property and tell him to stop, but he says “No way, I have an easement by prescription!” Joe takes the matter to court and the court agrees with him. The fact that Joe’s actions persisted over a long period of time are a big factor in the court granting him the easement. And now, Joe now has a permanent easement by prescription across your property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is an easement by prescription?

A

A Prescriptive Easement is defined as an Easement created from an open, adverse, and continuous use, hostile to the true owners title over a statutory period.

It is a lot like taking land from someone else. Acquired not by paying money but rather by acquired without permission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Easements by prescription are the result of a _______, so a ________court order is required for them to be granted.

A

lawsuit, court order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is “open and notorious”,

A

which is a legal term meaning “not hidden”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is “hostile”

A

not in your best interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How can easements be terminated?

A

Agreement/Release - dominant tenement agrees to give up the easement to the servient

Merging - on of the tenants buys the others

Abandonment - stop crossing the property. Then it no longer exists

Need no longer exists - if you can prove that it’s no longer necessary than it can be terminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How is a prescriptive easement aquired?

A

It is aquired without permission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is “adverse” use

A

must be done without permission from the owner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

An easement in gross involves _____ property

A

only one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Is an easement in gross sold with the land?

A

No. the easement in gross is for your own personal use, and may not be a right which would be included with your land should you choose to sell your land. An easement in gross does not transfer with the property when it is sold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

An easement by necessity is created by the ______

A

Courts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

In many ways an easement by necessity is a type of _______ easement

A

implied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

When will the courts create an easement by necessity?

A

When the easement is necessary to some piece of property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When are easements by necessity most often created?

A

When a certain piece of land is completely land locked. and the only way to get to the land is by crossing another neighbors property, an easement by necessity is created to provide access over the neighbors property.

However, if at some point in the future other options arise and the necessity no longer exists, neither does the easement.

An easement by necessity can and will only last for as long as it is necessary to achieve its results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

A fee simple absolute estate is ____

A

the maximum degree of ownership one can have

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What limitations does fee simple absolute estate have?

A

The government retains the rights to the property through the 4 government powers: PETE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the 4 government powers?

A

PETE

P - police power
E - eminent domain
T - Taxation
E - escheat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is police power?

A

Police power is the states inherent right to regulate an individuals conduct or property to protect the health, safety, welfare and morals of the community.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are common examples of police power as it relates to real estate?

A

Zoning, building codes, rent control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is not designed to take property away from you, but is there to set standards for how the property can be used?

A

Police power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Is compensation payed to property owners affected by zoning, building codes, or rent control?

A

No - compensation is not payed to property owners affected by police power. zoning, building code and rent control are police power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is eminent domain?

A

Under eminent domain the government can appropriate property if they feel that it is for the greater good of the community?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the owner of eminent domain entitle to?

A

Fair compensation usually defined as FAIR MARKET VALUE of the property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What process is the compensation of eminent domain paid through?

A

Condemnation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What can a property owner file for when they feel like they didnt get properly compensated during eminent domain?

A

Inverse condemnation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What allows the property owner to file a claim against the government to recover just compensation for the property that was taken

A

Inverse condemnation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is taxation

A

Property taxes are a charge on real estate used to pay for services provided by the government

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Unpaid property taxes are the result of ________ lien

A

Specific lien

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the difference between a specific lien and general lien in regards to taxes

A

Unpaid property taxes result in specific lien which means you can loose your property for not paying taxes.

However general lien - where items above and beyond your property can be seized to pay your debts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is escheat?

A

occurs When a property reverts to state ownership after an individual dies without a will and without an heir to the property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Is an escheat process revocable?

A

yes - ownership of the estate or property reverts to any rightful heirs that might appear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What does escheat ensure?

A

It ensures a property always has ownership. If no one else has a claim on the property, the government steps in to manage it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the definition of eminent domain?

A

the inherent power of the state to seize a citizens private property or a citizens rights in the property in exchange for monetary compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the most common uses of the property taken by government domain?

A

Public utilities, highways and railroads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is “The formal act of the exercise of the power of eminent domain to transfer title to the property from its private owner to the government”?

A

Condemnation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Does condemnation have to be ownership of the entire property?

A

No , it could even be smaller interest in it like and easement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

When is a property condemned?

A

When a building has been so dilapidated that it is legally unfit. does not deprived owner of title but forces owner to rectify property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is a situation in which the government takes private property but fails to pay the just compensation

A

Inverse condemnation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Suing the government is essentially ______ condemnation

A

Inverse condemnation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is zoning?

A

Zoning is the regulation of private land use and development by the local government

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Are there such thing as FEDERAL zoning laws?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Does zoning increase the marketability of the property?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What plan is zoning a part of?

A

Master plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the comprehensive plan to guide the long-term physical development of a particular area?

A

Master plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is zoning for land use typically divided into?

A

Residential
Commercial
Agricultural
Industrial
Special use properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are special purpose properties/special use properties

A

Properties that are a benefit to the public like Schools, libraries, police stations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is R3

A

Residential multi-family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are a set of laws that control:
- height of buildings
- setback
- density (bulk)
- floor area ratios
- buffers
- buffer zones
- variances

A

Zoning ordinances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the distance from the edge of the road or sidewalk to the structure that was build. It can also be from the center of the road

A

Set back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is usually associated with subdivisions, restricting the number of the houses per acre that may be build within that subdivision

A

Density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the ratio of the square footage to the land area. It can be used in zoning to limit the amount of construction in a certain area.

A

Floor area ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is found between two lots, such as a fence, a wall or a row of trees

A

buffer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is a space of land between two districts such as a park, playground or high way

A

Buffer zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the change in the zoning to permit less intensive developments that are currently permitted

A

Down zoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is a zone going from commercial to residential an example of?

A

Down zoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is an exception that is granted from the zoning rules?

A

Variance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is an exception to the rule?

A

Variance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are granted lot by lot and granted on individual basis?

A

Variance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is a free hold estate?

A

An estate in which you have exclusive rights to enjoy the possession of a property for an undefined length of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the types of FEE hold estates?

A
  1. Fee simple absolute (FEE)
  2. Fee simple defeasible
  3. Life estate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is a Fee simple/Fee simple absolute?

A

An estate in land. Ownership can not be defeated by the previous owner or the previous owner’s heirs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is a less than free hold estate?

A

An estate in which you have exclusive rights to enjoy the possession of a property for a fixed or defined period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is a fee simple absolute not free from?

A

encumbrances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the greatest interest in a parcel of land that one can possible own?

A

Fee simple absolute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What can sometimes be referred to as “FEE”?

A

Fee simple absolute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the most common way real estate is owned in common law countries?

A

Fee simple absolute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is the ordinarily the most complete ownership interest that can be had in real property, short of absolute title?

A

Fee simple absolute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is fee simple absolute ownership limited by?

A

PETE, certain encumbrances, condition in the dead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

When is a fee simple defeasible created?

A

created when a grantor creates a CONDITION on a fee simple estate.

Upon the occurrence of a specified event, the state may be lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are the two type of fee simple defeasiable estates?

A
  1. Fee simple determinable
  2. Fee simple condition subsequent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is a fee simple determinable?

A

If a grantor uses conditional language like “To adam, as long as the land is used as a park”

If the land is used for something other than a park, the estate will automatically terminate and REVERT back to the grantor or the grantors estate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is a fee simple condition subsequent?

A

If there is a condition such as “no alcohol to be served” then it would be a condition subsequent because you could loose the title if you serve alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is a life estate?

A

A life estate is an interest in real property which is held for the duration of life for a designated person.

In legal terms - an estate in real property that ends at death. When the estate of the real property either reverts to the original owner or passes to another person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is the life estate limited by?

A

Limited by the life of the person holding it or the life of another person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is a Life tenant in regards to a life estate?

A

A life tenant receives the property and is responsible for the maintenance of the property and paying taxes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

If a life tenant allows a property to ____ it would be committing waste

A

deteriorate. A life tenant can not commit waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

what can the life tenant of the life estate not do? What can they do?

A

CAN NOT
1. Can not commit waste (which means they can not leave a property to deteriorate) in a way that prevents the property from passing to the remainder once their ownership is terminated
2. Can not leave the property to anyone in their will

CAN
3. They may sell, mortgage or lease a property for the duration of the estate, thus all contracts would be terminated by the life tenant. For example: if the life tenant dies, the property goes back to the individual who created the life estate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is the process called where the life tenant (holder of the life estate) dies and the property goes by to the individual who created the life estate?

A

Estate in reversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

If he individual who created the life estate dies, will it go to the life tenant?

A

No, the life tenant only has the property for as long as the person who created the life estate is a live.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What happens to the estate when the holder of the life estate dies?

A

It reverts to the estate in reversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What happens when the estate in reversion dies?

A

It goes to the remainder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

One common example of life estate:

A

To provide housing for someone until they die

  1. When a child transfers a property to the parent for the rest of that parents life. After the parent dies, ownership of the property reverts back to that specific child. In this situation, the child owns a “reversionary right” to this property.
  2. If a mother creates a life estate dead to give her younger husband a life estate in the property, assuring that he will always have a place to live. She can ensure in the deed that the remainderment goes to the son after the husband dies. Son will be known as the remaindermaint for that life estate.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is a less than free hold estate?

A

An estate held by one who rents or leases property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What are the classifications of a less-than-freehold estate?

A
  1. ) Estate for years
  2. ) Periodic tenancy
  3. ) Estate at will
  4. ) Estate at sufferance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is a lease hold interest in land for a FIXED PERIOD OF TIME?

A

Estate for years. It has a defined beginning and end date. No termination Notice is needed because the end date is established at the beginning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is another term for “a tenancy for years”?

A

Estate for years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is a summer rental an example of?

A

Estate for years. It has a defined beginning and end date. No termination Notice is needed because the end date is established at the beginning of the rental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Is a termination notice needed for estate for years?

A

No. No termination Notice is needed because the end date is established at the beginning of the rental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What tenancy is not bound to a lease for a fixed period?

A

Periodic tenancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

month-to-month, week-to-week and year-to year are an example of what tenancy?

A

Periodic tenancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Does proper notice have to be given for periodic tenancy?

A

Yes - so landlord has time to find someone new

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What estate gives the leasee the right to possession until the estate is terminated by either party

A

Estate at will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Which estate has a term that is indefinite?

A

Estate at will - basically it can ended at any time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What estate arises when a tenant wrongfully hold over after the expiration of his term?

A

Estate at sufference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Is Estate at sufference a form of trespass?

A

No - at one point the tenant had the right to be on the property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

When a estate at sufference is created, the landlord would need to do what?

A

Legally Evict the tenant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What are the two general ways you can own property:

A

1) by yourself
2) with someone else or others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What is ownership by yourself of property

A

Ownership in severalty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What is Ownership with someone else

A

Concurrent estate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What type of estate is joint tenancy?

A

Concurrent estate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What type of estate is tenancy in common?

A

Concurrent estate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What tenancy occurs where tenants:

1) have different percentages of interest (tenant A & B each have 25% while Tenant C has 50%)
2) occur tenancy at different times (tenant A&B obtained in 2009 while tenant C obtained later in 2018)
3) Each tenant can receive their ownership interests through separate convyences (tenant A & B can be on same title by tenat C has own distinct title)
4) ONLY THING EACH TENANT SHARES IS POSSESSION ( share unity of possession)

+ NO right of survivorship

A

Tenancy in Common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What tenancy occurs where tenants:

Each tenant much obtain
1) equal shares of the property
2) with the same document
3) at the same time

4 unities: TTIP
T- time
T - title
I - interest
P - possession

+ right of survivorship

TTIP ROS

A

Joint tenenacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What happens if any of the 4 unities of TTIP are broken

A

Tenancy Reverts from JOINT TENANCY to TENANCY IN COMMON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What does TTIP stand for?

A

Time, Title, Interest, possession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What are the main similarities of Joint tenants & tenants in common

A

When two or more people own a property of either joint tenants or tenants in common - each individual owns a share of the entire property and has the right to possess it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is the biggest different for joint tenants and tenants in common?

A

The right of survivorship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What happens when a owners of Joint tenancy dies? Do they have a right of survivorship

A

1) The interest of the deceased owner automatically transfers to the surviving owner or owners
2) Yes - joint tenancies have the right of survivorship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Example of Joint tenancy right of survivorship:

If Carol, Vivian and stephen own a property with joint tenancy, what happens if vivian dies?

A

Stephen and carol each obtain one half of vivians share of the property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What happens when a owners of tenants in common dies? Do they have a right of survivorship?

A

1) Since there is no right of survivorship - generally a deceased common in interest belongs to their estate -( unless they have a will that include the other tenants)
2) No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Example of tenancy in common right of survivorship:

If Carol, Vivian and stephen own a property with joint tenancy, what happens if vivian dies?

A

Vivian’s heirs get vivians share of the property, not the surviving owners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

If you own property with a corporation, what tenancy would you take it as?

A

Tenant in common, NOT JOINT TENANT

This is because corporations don’t die, the dissolve.

Tenants in common DO NOT have right of suvivorship so this applies to cooporations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

In a lease, who is the lessor and who is the lessee

A

Landlord - lessor
Tenant - lessee

OR - gives
EE - receives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Can oral leases can be binding?

A

Yes however generally leases are written

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What do leases provide?

A

They give Exclusive right to the Lessee

and reversionary right to the lessor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What is it called when the owner of a lease has the right to regain possession of the property after the lease has expired?

A

A reversionary right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What must a lease contain?

A

Must contain everything that’s in a lawful contract:

M - mutual agreement
C - consideration
C - capable partes
L - lawful object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What does the tenant in a lease have right of?

A

Quiet enjoyment and possession of property: Assurance that their possession will not be disturbed by anybody with superior title

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

The lease is a ______ contract:

A

Bilateral contract - which means a promise for a promise

“I promise to let you live in the property if you promise to pay”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Does death usually terminate the lease?

A

NO - death doesn’t usually terminate the lease:

The responsibilities as state in the agreement could pass on to the heirs of the deceased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Are leases personal property?

A

Yes - Leases are personal property as they do not always run with the land

This means that when the property is sold, the lease does not always transfer with it.

It is a contract with an individual person. lease is a piece of paper. Piece of paper is moveable. Moveable is personal property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Can a tenant assign or sublease a property

A

Yes - UNLESS the lease forbids it. The tenant has the right to assign or sublease the property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

In a lease: What is it called when an tenant transfers contract rights?

A

Assignment

example: if you assign your lease to bob, you can move on with your life and bob is not responsible to the landlord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

In a lease: What is it called when a tenant rents the property they lease to another person while still maintaining their responsibity to the landlord under their rental agreement

A

Sublet

example: if you sublet your lease to bob, and the landlord does not get paid, you are responsible regardless of what bob does or does not do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What is a term used in the law of real property to describe a circumstance in which a landlord either does something or fails to do something that he has a legal duty to provide.

A

Constructive eviction

ex: if landlord does not provide water to the tenant as a tenant can not live without water thus they must vacate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What does HOA stand for?

A

Home owners association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

The HOA will have its own government documents in the form of _________ and _____________-

A

bylaws & CC&Rs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What does CC&Rs stand for?

A

Covenants, Conditions, and Restrictions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What is the Declaration of CC&Rs exactly?

A

The declaration of the CC&R is the legal document that lays out the guidelines of the planned community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Where are the CC&Rs recorded? Are they legally binding?

A

They are recorded in the county records in the county where the property is located and are legally binding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

CC&Rs are the rules of ______

A

your neighborhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

The CC&Rs govern what?

A

What you can and cannot or must do with respect to your home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What is the goal of the CC&Rs?

A

to protect, preserve, and enhance property values in the community. Most of the time, the rules make sense and are easy to accept.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

It is typical for the ______to regulate things such as:
- basketball hoops
-clotheslines
-fences
-TV antennas/satellite dishes
-garbage cans
-External architecture
and much more..

A

CC&Rs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

How are changes made to the CC&R?

A

Because this record is kept on file with the sate, it can be difficult to amend and requires a vote by the HOA membership to make any changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What happens if you don’t abide by the CC&Rs?

A

If you don’t abide by the CC&Rs, the HOA may impose penalties for any violations.

If you violate the CC&Rs the penalties can include:
-fines
-forced compliance
-or the HOA can even file a lawsuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

If _______ cover the “what of the HOA, the ________ cover the “how”. The HOA, is which is typically set up as a ______ is an organization set up to maintain a private planned community

A

CC&Rs, bylaws, nonpropfit corporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What governs how the HOA operates and contain the information needed to run the HOA business

A

bylaws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What covers
- Frequency of HOA board elections
-Process for nominating and electing new board members
-Membership voting rights
-Number of members that serve at one time
-Length of board member service terms
-Meeting frequency
-How the meetings are conducted
-The duties of the various offices of the board of directors and much more

A

the bylaws of HOA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

are bylaws difficult to change?

A

Yes, like CC&Rs, bylaws are difficult to change. The require a vote by the membership to amend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Does passing your real estate exam mean you are a realtor?

A

No - Passing your exam makes it legal for you to find a property for a buyer but it DOESN’T mean you are a realtor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What is a real estate agent in most states?

A

A licensed real estate sales person - that works under a licensed real estate broker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

What is the name of a real estate professional who is also a member of the NAR? What doe NAR stand for?

A

Realtor

NAR stands for National Association of Realtors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What do you become a member of NAR

A
  1. Pay membership dues
  2. Abide by the associations ethics and standards.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What do Realtors promise?

A

Bound by the code of ethics, Realtors promise to operate by 1. Transparency, 2. Honesty, 3. Integrity

Expected to conduct their business with the best interest of their clients in minds.

Without exaggeration or misrepresentation of any time

They should be experts in their fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Realtors can be _____ or ______

A

Agents or brokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Which licenses allows a person to represent a buyer or sell in a real estate transaction in exchange for compensation?

A
  1. Salesperson license
  2. Sales associate license
  3. Brokers license
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Agents must work under who?

A

A licensed broker who is legally accountable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

______ are licensed to facilitate real estate transactions. They work under a license broker who is legally responsible.

A

Real Estate agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

_______ have more stringent license requirements and have the option to work alone or have other agents work under them

A

Brokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

_______ Are licensees that are a part of the NAR, a trade organization

A

Realtors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

A (an) ______ is a person who has been legally empowered to act on behalf of another person or entity

A

Agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Is an agent the same as a POA

A

No, having an agent is not the same as a power of attorney, where one person has the power to act as another person for that one act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

A client is also known as a ______

A

principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

What does the law of agency define?

A

The rights, duties and responsibilities of all legal parties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Once an agency relationship is created, then what must the agent follow?

A

The agent must follow fundamental responsibilities

214
Q

What are the fundamental responsibilities of an agent, once an agency relationship is created?

A

OLD CAR

O - obedience
L - Loyalty
D - disclosure

C - confidentiality
A - accounting
R - reasonable care

215
Q

If a seller refuses to take an offer for a reason that violates fair housing lows, does obedience apply in regards to the agency relationship?

A

NO - the agent should not and legally can not follow those instructions

216
Q

When it comes to the real estate transaction, the client must put the clients BEST INTEREST above anyone elses, including their own. What is this known as?

Do what is best for the client not the commission check.

A

Loyalty

217
Q

If an agent gives preference to an offer due to a bonus, what is this in violation of?

A

Loyalty, aspect of agency relationship

218
Q

If an agent is getting a bonus for selling a certain property, does he or she have to tell the client? what is this referred to as?

A

Yes, they must disclose it to the client before writing up a purchase offer. This is under Loyalty, which is an aspect of agency relationship.

219
Q

The agent must _______ any information they receive that can benefit the clients position in negotiation?

A

disclose

220
Q

If an agent is representing a buyer and the agent knows the seller has a pending offer on another house, what should the agent do?

A

It is the agents duty to disclose that information to the client

221
Q

What is something that might cause the buyer to change their actions regarding the purchase?

A

Material facts

222
Q

Must agents disclose any material facts?

A

Yes

223
Q

Should agent disclose information learned about their clients? what is this known as?

A

No, confidentiality

224
Q

Should the agent disclose a client/principles business information, financial situation, personal affairs and or other reasons for doing the transaction to the other party?

A

No, confidentiality

225
Q

How long does the fiduciary duty of confidentiality last to the client?

A

Forever

226
Q

Does the fiduciary duty of confidentialty end after the close of the business transation?

A

No - the fiduciary duty of confidentiality lasts forever

227
Q

If an agent knows the client lost their job and is selling because of financial situation, can they disclose to the other party after the transaction is over? what is this called?

A

No, confidentiality lasts forever - unless a court instructs you to disclose certain items they seem is necessary

228
Q

What is it called when agents are responsible for accurate money and documentation of each transaction, which includes accurate RECORD KEEPING

A

accounting

229
Q

What is it called when agents are expected to have a certain level of knowledge and be able to guide and advise clients through a process without harm. Licensed real estate professionals are legally held to a standard that can be hard to pin down.

A

Reasonable Care

230
Q

As a real estate agent clients will expect you to knowledgeable advise them on Prices, Inspections, negotiations, repairs and many other aspects of the transactions - what is associated with?

A

Reasonable Care

231
Q

IF questions comes up by a client, that the agent does not know, what is expected of the agent?

A

Expectations to advise them on how to obtain the information they seek (Reasonable care)

232
Q

Should an agent offer advise or services that they are not qualified to clients?

A

No - advise or services that the agents are not qualified for should not be offered just to please the clients (Reasonable care) “stay in your lane”

233
Q

If an agent has a hole in the patio, should the agent offer advise on what causes patio holes and how to replace the patio?

A

No - the real estate agent rather advise the client to listen to a certified inspector (reasonable care)

234
Q

A ______ duty legally obligates one person to act solely in the interest in another person

A

Fiduciary (verb)

235
Q

What is the name of the person who knowingly accepts the obligation of one person to act solely in the interest in another person

A

A fiduciary (noun)

236
Q

A fiduciary agrees to always but whose best interests first?

A

Client’s

237
Q

What is the name of an interested party who might be dealing with an agent but is not being represented by the agent

A

Customer

238
Q

Is their a fiduciary duty by the agent owed to the customer?

A

No

239
Q

A customer can expect _______ dealing from an agent

A

Honest and fair dealing

240
Q

What is the name of someone who has and agency relationship with an agent?

A

client/principle

241
Q

Is their a fiduciary duty by the agent owed to the client?

A

yes

242
Q

Is their a fiduciary duty by the agent owed to the principle?

A

yes

243
Q

What does it mean with a fiduciary duty is owed to a client or principle?

A

This means that the agent is expected to exercise discretion when acting on your behalf and they must adhered to specific responsibilities and standards in acting in good faith and loyalty.

244
Q

What is the term for when the buyer and seller are represented by the same agent? do people prefer this? why or why not?

A

dual agency

Most people don’t prefer this because there is a natural conflict of interest. The agent is trying to be fair to both side. Because they have to remain neutral they are not effectively working on behalf of either party

245
Q

What type of agents are hired to perform one specific duty for the client

A

Special agent

246
Q

What is the standard agency relationship for a real estate agent and client

A

special agent -

247
Q

What agent’s authority is limited to one specific task

A

special agent

248
Q

What one act is a real estate agent hired for?

A

Finding a buyer for the listed property. once the act is complete, the agency relationship ends

249
Q

What type of agent can perform any and all act associated with principal’s ongoing business the agent has been appointed to act in.

A

General agent

250
Q

What agency relationship is continuous and ongoing.

A

General agent

251
Q

What type of agent is a property manager

A

General agent

252
Q

When does a general agency relationship end

A

It ends when the contract ends or by mutual agreement

253
Q

What agency relationships have full authority to act on behalf of a principle?

A

Universal

254
Q

Many times a Universal agent have who to act on their principal’s behalf?

A

A Power of Attorney

255
Q

Many time universal agents can act like they are the ______ by doing what?

A

principle, sign legal documents or purchase or sale property for them

256
Q

What agency is created when the licensee and the principle express their intentions either oral or in writing to enter into an agency relationship

A

Express agency/ Express agreement

257
Q

Is an ORAL expressed agreement valid?

A

The validity of an oral agreement in establishing an agency relationship varies from state to state. It may also be possible for an oral agreement to establish an agency relationship, but not enforceable by the licensee when trying to collect a fee.

258
Q

What is the typically written agreement between the agent and client?

A

Listing agreement or buyers agency agreement

259
Q

What agreement is the most appropriate and legally safe way to create an agency relationship.

A

written agreement

260
Q

What agency establishes an agency relationship through the actions of the two parties.

A

implied agency

261
Q

In what agency occurs when nothing formal has been said or written down, but the real estate licensee and the principle act as if they have an agency relationship

A

implied agency

262
Q

This is an example of which agency?:

Susan is selling her home by herself and puts up a for-sale sign on the lawn. You drive by, see the sign, and stop in. You identify yourself as a real estate agent and ask some questions about the house. Susan tells you she doesn’t want to list the house for sale with any brokerage, but she does tell you to bring any possible buyers around.

The next day you bring the Bauers, who really like the house and want to make an offer. You inform Susan and begin negotiating a deal. If this situation were to end with you filing a lawsuit for the commission, ultimately it would be up to a court to decide.

A

implied agency

263
Q

What agency happens when a person makes a representation to a third party, whether by words or conduct, that another person is their agent- and subsequently the third party deals with that person as an agent. The original person will not be permitted to deny the existence of the agency if to do so would cause damage to that third party. And by damage we mean financial loss.

A

agency by estoppel

264
Q

This is an example of which agency?:

Stephen is Oscar’s agent. Oscar terminates the agency relationship but, unbeknownst to him, Stephen continues to transact with third parties on his behalf. If Oscar fails to notify any third parties of Stephen’s termination, Oscar may still be bound to any agreement Stephen enters into.

A

agency by estoppel

265
Q

This is an example of which agency?:

Say you’re the owner of a building and you tell your agent to show an apartment to a possible tenant. The agent goes ahead and negotiates a lease even though you didn’t give the agent any direct authority to do so. The tenant assumes the agent has the authority, and an _______ has been created.

A

agency by estoppel

266
Q

What agency occurs when a principal approves and adopts, an act which has already been done in his name and on his behalf by another person (like a real estate licensee) who, in fact, had no actual authority (whether express or implied) to act on behalf of the principal.

A

Ratification

267
Q

What agency creates an agency relationship between the principal and the agent for that one act that was ratified by the principal- not for any past or future action

A

Ratification

268
Q

What are the main types of agency

A

1) Express agency/ Express agreement
2) implied agency
3) agency by estoppel
4) Ratification
5) Agency by necessity
6) Agency Coupled with an Interest

269
Q

What agency arises when one party makes a decision on behalf of another person who is unable to do so. The decision must be essential in nature, and it must be in the principal’s best interests when making the decision.

A

Agency by necessity

270
Q

which agency arises it is practically impossible for the agent to communicate with the principal

A

Agency by necessity

271
Q

What is an agency coupled with an interest is a situation in which an agent has some kind of interest in the property that’s being sold.

A

Agency Coupled with an Interest

272
Q

This is an example of which agency?:

Suppose a part-time broker is also an architect. The broker/architect agrees to design some houses for a builder, who’s giving the broker/architect the listings for the sale of the finished houses. In essence, the broker/architect has now made an investment in the project, so the builder can not cancel the agency agreement.

A

Agency Coupled with an Interest

273
Q

What agency occurs when the buyer and the seller are both represented by the same real estate broker.

A

Dual agency

274
Q

What agency comes about when potential buyers don’t have an agent, so they contact a seller’s real estate agent directly when they are interested in a property. They ask the seller’s agent to submit an offer on their behalf.

A

Dual agency

275
Q

Where do problems arise in dual agencies?

A

A potential conflict of interest. Can be loyal to one. You are a neutral party.

Agency relationships usually involve a fiduciary duty. This means the agent must have a sense of loyalty to their client. If the agent is representing both sides on the same transaction, who gets their loyalty? This potential conflict of interest is why dual agency is frowned upon in some areas and is straight-up not allowed in others.

276
Q

What are the restrictions for dual agency to protect against conflict of interest:

A

1) The agency must inform both buyer and seller of the dual agency in writing

2) The agent is required to treat both buyer and seller with complete honesty

3) The agent must provide full disclosure regarding the property and it’s material condition

4) Agent CAN NOT reveal confidential or personal information of either party involved

5) The agent has to look out for both parties interests

6) When it’s time to make an offer - the real estate agent can not advise either the price to offer or the price to accept

7) FIDUCIARY DUTY OF LOYALTY IS NOW GONE. They are not allow to advance one parties interest over another. The agent must stay in neutral

277
Q

What agency is created when a buyer and seller each have their own agent but each agent is under the same broker?

A

dual agency

278
Q

Can a dual agency occur when there are two agents involved?

A

yes, If one agent from the brokerage has a home listed and another agent from that same brokerage has a buyer-brokerage agreement with someone who wants to buy the listed property, dual agency occurs.

279
Q

Who is a person appointed to act for another in business or legal matters?

A

Attorney

280
Q

Is a power of attorney always a layer?

A

No

281
Q

What is a Legal document that authorizes someone to act for you?

A

Power of attorney

282
Q

When you grant someone the power of attorney, that act as the:

A

Attorney in Fact

283
Q

Who can you authorize to:

signing checks and tax returns, entering into contracts, buying or selling real estate, depositing or withdrawing funds, running a business, or anything else you do for yourself.

A

Attorney in fact, by giving them the power of attorney

284
Q

What is the right to keep possession of a property belonging to another person until a debt owed by that person is discharged

A

Lien

285
Q

Are liens attached the property or the owner?

A

Property

286
Q

When you take on a property, you want to make sure you have appropriate ______ removed before transferring title

A

Liens

287
Q

What are all of the classifications of liens?

A

1) General or specific
2) Voluntary or involuntary
3) Statutory or equitable

288
Q

What type of lien is a lien on property both real and personal of the debtor?

A

General Liens

289
Q

What type of lien is judgement lien

A

general lien, involuntary lien

290
Q

What type of lien is corporation lien

A

general lien

291
Q

What type of lien is franchise tax lien

A

general lien

292
Q

What type of lien is inheritance tax lien

A

general lien

293
Q

What type of lien is income tax lien

A

general lien

294
Q

What type of lien is debts of a deceased person lien

A

general lien

295
Q

what is a lien against one property?

A

specific lien

296
Q

What type of lien is mechanics lien

A

specific lien, involuntary lien

297
Q

What type of lien is trust deed?

A

specific lien, voluntary lien

298
Q

What type of lien is mortgage?

A

specific lien, voluntary lien

299
Q

What type of lien is property tax assessments

A

specific lien

300
Q

What is a lien placed on the property with the consent of the owner

A

voluntary lien

301
Q

What is a lien placed on the property without the consent of the owner

A

involuntary lien

302
Q

What is the name of the courts final decision on the right of an obligator to pay the parties involved. Once this is filed, it created a general lien against all of the property of the defendent

A

Judgement lien

303
Q

This is filed for the nonpayment of labor of materials that were used to improve the property

A

Mechanics lien

304
Q

Can mechanics lien impair your ability to get a loan on the property?

A

Yes - mechanics liens take priority, so if money comes back mechanics lien will be paid off before the lender is paid off in the event of forclosure

305
Q

What is the lien placed on the property by law?

A

Statutory lien

306
Q

What is the lien placed on the property by written contract or by what is fair and equitable?

A

Equitable lien

307
Q

What does the borrower have to sign, which serves as a “I owe you” before the lender gives the borrower the money?

A

Promissory Note

308
Q

What note states the terms of the loan such as - the rate of interest and the number of years the borrower has to pay back the loan.

A

Promissory Note

309
Q

What is evidence of the debt?

A

Promissory Note

310
Q

What security does the lender have once they give the money to the borrower?

A

The security is the collateral, which is the property the borrower uses to buy with the funds

311
Q

What does mortgage actually mean?

A

Pledge

312
Q

Mortgagor gives what?

A

gives the pledge to the lender

313
Q

Is the Mortgagor the borrower or the lender?

A

Borrower

314
Q

What is the clause that requires that a loan (mortgage) to be paid off when the property is sold

A

Due on sale

315
Q

What two categories do states fall under regarding securing a loan made for the purchase of real property:

A

1) Title Theory
2) Lien Theory

316
Q

What is the real property that is pledged to the lending institution, which has a lien on the real property

A

Lien Theory

317
Q

What is it called when the borrower conveys legal title to a trustee. The borrower is the trustor. The bank is the beneficiary

A

Title Theory

318
Q

What is a loan that covers two or more pieces of real estate?

A

Blanket mortgage

319
Q

What loan allows one of the properties to be sold before the entire mortgage loan is paid off

A

Blanket mortgage

320
Q

Why are blanket mortgages helpful for developers?

A

consider a situation where a developer is building ten homes. A standard mortgage would require the developer to pay off the entire mortgage in order to sell one home. Or the developer could take out 10 individual loans that need to be separately managed, but could be paid off as each home is sold.

With a blanket mortgage, the developer takes out one loan to cover all 10 developments. When one-tenth of the mortgage is paid off, a “release clause” is triggered allowing one of the homes to be released from the lien so it can be sold. One thing to note is that, depending on the terms of the blanket mortgage, the loan may need to be refinanced as separate properties are sold.

321
Q

How many sets of fees does a blanket mortgage require?

A

one set of fees rather than seperate fees for each property

322
Q

What does the individual save on in an blanket mortgage?

A

Saves on fees of applying for and closing on multiple loans

323
Q

Who typically uses blanket mortgages?

A

1) developers
2) Businesses with multiple locations they wish to own and operate
3) Real estate developers who are investing in commercial or residential property such as apartment buildings or multi family homes
4) house flippers who buy multiple properties to flip

324
Q

What is it called when you buy a property with the intention of selling it quickly to turn a profit

A

houseflipping

325
Q

What is a gradual reduction of a loan debt through periodic installment payments of principal and interest

A

Amortization

326
Q

What is the amount that is loaned to you?

A

Priniciple

327
Q

What is the amount you are paying for the right to borrow that money (rent on money)

A

Interest

328
Q

Where is the mortgage payment applied with each payment?

A

A portion of the payment is applied toward reducing the principle, and another portion of the payment is applied toward paying the interest on the loan

329
Q

What shows the ratio of principle and interest, and demonstrates how the a loan debt decreases over time

A

Amortization table

330
Q

What is a loan called that has been completely paid off at the end of the loan term?

A

Fully Amortized

331
Q

This is when you keep making your payments on time but the debt keeps increasing

A

Negative Amortization

332
Q

What is a loan where you are just paying the interest?

A

Straight note

333
Q

What is a type of secondary financing for the type of purchase of real property

A

A wraparound mortgage aka WRAP

334
Q

In what financing does a junior mortgage “wrap around” an existing mortgage?

A

A wraparound mortgage aka WRAP

335
Q

What is often referred to as a “second” mortgage? But it could also be a third of fourth mortgage

A

A junior mortgage

336
Q

What term refers to the priority of liens?

A

“Junior” in the case of junior mortgages.

337
Q

In the case of a foreclosure, what order are the mortgages paid?

A

1) Senior mortgage paid down first
2) Then Junior mortgages are paid based on the date they were recorded

338
Q

Wraps are a form of_____

A

Seller financing

339
Q

What is any transaction in which a property’s seller finances all or some of the purchase directly with the buyer

A

Seller financing

340
Q

How is seller financing secured?

A

a promissory note that details the terms of the financing and the promissory note serves as evidence of the debt.

341
Q

Do seller-financed deals require principal to be paid upfront?

A

No, don’t require the principal amount to be exchanged upfront.

342
Q

What does the installment payments in the seller-financed deals include?

A

The buyer makes installment payments directly to the sell which includes principal and interest

343
Q

When is a wraparound mortgage structure used?

A

When a seller has a remaining balance to pay on a properties first mortgage loan.

The agreement takes into account the remaining balance on the seller’s existing mortgage at its contracted mortgage rate and adds an additional balance to arrive at the total purchase price.

344
Q

What is the advantage to the seller in a WRAP loan?

A
  • In a wrap, the seller charges an interest rate based on the terms of the existing mortgage loan.
    -To break even, the seller must charge at least as much interest as they are being charged on their existing loan. That gives the seller flexibility when negotiating the buyer’s interest rate.
  • Generally, the seller will negotiate the highest possible interest rate so they can make payments on the first mortgage while also earning a profit on the deal.

Seller-financed purchases don’t have the same costs as financing through banks and other types of lenders, which can benefit both the buyer and the seller.

345
Q

What is this and example of?

Let’s say that Vivian has an $80,000 mortgage on her home with a rate of 4%. She sells her home to Stephen for $120,000 who puts 10% down and borrows the remainder, or $108,000, at a rate of 7%. Vivian earns 7% on $28,000 (the difference between $108,000 and $80,000), plus the difference between 7% and 4% on the $80,000 mortgage.

A

Wrap around mortgage

346
Q

Who takes on the greatest risk with seller financed services?

A

the seller takes on greater risks and responsibilities so they often require higher-than-average down payments. If the buyer defaults on any payments, it will be up to the seller to pay the original loan or risk foreclosure on the home.

347
Q

What clause requires the seller to repay the original mortgage entirely if collateral ownership is transferred or if the collateral is sold.

A

alienation clause

348
Q

Do seller financing loans require higher or lower down payments?

A

Higher

the seller takes on greater risks and responsibilities so they often require higher-than-average down payments. If the buyer defaults on any payments, it will be up to the seller to pay the original loan or risk foreclosure on the home.

349
Q

What clauses are common in most mortgage loans, which often prevent wraparound loans from occurring.

A

alienation clause

350
Q

If either party fails to perform the purchase agreement contract, what can the other party obtain?

A

Remedies in the from of Monetary damages and specific performance

351
Q

Certain relief when a purchase agreement contract is broken / pay back for the other party not following through

A

Remedies

352
Q

What are the two main types of remedies?

A

1) Monetary damages
2) Specific performance

353
Q

What are the most common type of legal remedy when dealing with home purchases

A

Monetary damages

354
Q

If a seller backs out of a purchase agreement, what does a buyer sue for when they seek compensation for all the costs they paid and return of their earnest money deposit and often ask for additional compensation for missed time and opportuniteis

A

Monetary damages

355
Q

What is a court order that requires a party to perform a specific action, usually one stated in the original contract

A

Specific performance

356
Q

What is considered an equitable remedy and is used when monetary damages will not satisfy the party seeking relief

A

Specific performance

357
Q

If specific performance is sought, will the client likely face monetary damages

A

NO, If specific performance is sought as a remedy, it’s unlikely that monetary damages will also be awarded. While each state’s laws are different, usually it’s one or the other.

358
Q

What elements must be present in order for specific performance to be possible:

A

1) Contract - For a court to order specific performance, there must be a valid and enforceable binding contract.

2) Damages Inadequate - Specific performance is only ordered when monetary damages are inadequate to compensate the injured party.

3) Mutuality of Obligation - There must also be a mutuality of obligation, meaning that both parties have undertaken duties toward each other as part of the contract.

4) Judge’s Discretion - When creating a real estate sales contract, the parties can freely include specific performance as a remedy. But if this provision is not included in the contract, the potential for specific performance is left to the judge’s discretion. It will be up to the court to determine if specific performance is the best remedy after one party shows a breach of contract.

Usually, the court will require the plaintiff, or the party benefiting from the judge’s ruling, to show that they substantially performed their part of the contract and that they are capable of continuing to perform their contractual obligations.

359
Q

What is “lis pendens”

A

relates to a buyer and specific performance - notice of pendency

Once a lawsuit is underway, the real estate buyer can also file a legal document known as a “notice of pendency”. This notice, also called a “lis pendens”, effectively prevents any transfer of the property to a third party until the claim has been resolved. The seller will be unable to sell the property to another buyer while the lawsuit is ongoing.

360
Q

Can real estate broker sue for specific performance?

A

No - real estate brokers cannot sue for specific performance. If there is a breach of contract that negatively impacts them, a broker would sue for monetary damages.

361
Q

What are the Two basic classifications of home loans

A

1) Conventional Loans
2) Unconventional Loans

362
Q

What loans are not secured by FHA, USDA or VA

A

Conventional Loans

363
Q

Who are conventional loans offered by?

A

Private lenders

364
Q

What are conventional loans often referred to as?

A

Conforming loans

365
Q

What do conventional loans conform to?

A

Rules set forth by Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac

366
Q

Who are the two largest investors in Conventional loans

A

Fannie Mae, Freddie Mac

367
Q

Who are conventional loans good for?

A

Those with excellent credit, those in good economic standing, and and have money for large down payment

368
Q

The benefits of flexibility of property to purchase and chance to significantly reduce mortgage insurance

A

Conventional loans

369
Q

What are the two basic types of conventional loans

A

1) fixed rate mortgage
2) adjustable rate mortgage (ARM)

370
Q

What mortgage has an interest rate that does not change?

A

Fixed rate mortgage - monthly payments will be the same

371
Q

What mortgage has an interest rate that adjusts monthly or a year

A

Adjustable rate mortgage

372
Q

What are unconventional loans backed by?

A

backed by government or secured by band or private lender

373
Q

Who are unconventional loans good for?

A

Individuals with low income or less than perfect credit

374
Q

What are FHA and VA loans?

A

Unconventional loans

375
Q

What loans are insured by the federal housaing adminstration and require a small down payment

A

FHA loans

376
Q

Do VA loans require a down payment? do they have to occupy the residence?

A

No, Yes

377
Q

Where are loans originated?

A

Primary market

378
Q

What is the market where lenders and investors buy and sell existing mortgages or mortgage backed securities (resell market place of loans)

A

Secondary market

379
Q

What Loans have the primary purpose of:

to ensure lenders of loss so that they are not scared to lend to people with a wider variety of economic backgrounds.

A

FHA loans, established in 1934 - did this through smaller down payment and smaller monthly payments paid down in 30 years

380
Q

What is the Federal National Mortgage Association created in 1938

A

Fannie Mae

381
Q

What association buys FHA insured mortgages from the lenders which created a secondary market place where

A

Fannie Mae

382
Q

When it comes to the US government or Fannie mae, who grantees Monthly principal and interest payments?

A

Monthly principal and interest payments are guaranteed by Fannie Mae, but not by the US government.

383
Q

What is the government national mortgage association? when was it created?

A

Ginnie Mae - 1968

384
Q

What is a federally-owned corporation of the Department of Housing and Urban Development. and administers special assistance programs, and its main focus is to ensure liquidity for US government-insured mortgages, including those insured by the FHA and VA.

A

Ginnie Mae

385
Q

What is a warranty deed?

A

A warranty deed gives the grantee a warranty, or guarantee, that the grantor does actually have legal title to the property. The seller, who is the grantor, is promising the buyer that “Yes, I do own this property and I have the right to sell it to you.”

386
Q

What are the basic characteristics of a deed?

A

1) Signature - the signature of the person transferring the real estate (the grantor);
2) Date - the date of the transaction;
3) Names - the names of the parties involved; and
4) Description - a description of the property being transferred.

387
Q

What is not required for a warranty deed?

A

RECORDING

388
Q

If recording is done in a warranty deed, what must be done?

A

The documents must be ACKNOWLEDGED

389
Q

What is the big advantage to the buyer with warranty deeds

A

title protection

In addition to guaranteeing their ownership of the property, the seller warrants that the property is free of encumbrances- except those noted in the deed itself, which can be things like easements, zoning restrictions, and subdivision deed restrictions. And the protections in warranty deeds are granted whether the seller and the buyer are individuals or businesses.

390
Q

What deeds are good options for real estate sales where commercial or residential properties are transferred between parties who don’t know each other.

A

General Warranty Deeds and Special Warranty Deeds

391
Q

What do both General Warranty Deeds and Special Warranty Deeds guarantee?

A

Both types of deeds guarantee to the buyer:

1) that the seller owns the title;
2) that the seller is legally allowed to sell the property;
3) that the property has not already been sold;
4) that the property is free of debt or other claims (aside any mentioned in the deed); and
5) that the seller is responsible for any problems/faults with the property.

392
Q

Which deed is when the grantor is responsible for any breach of warranties and guarantees, even if the breach occurred without their knowledge or during a period when the grantor did not own the property

A

General Warranty Deeds

393
Q

For which deeds are title insurance most often used?

A

puts a greater amount of risk on the seller, so title insurance is used in most transactions to help guard against possible claims and liens. Before a title company will provide insurance for a title, they will conduct a full title search and explore any other possible breaches. This gives the buyer extra peace of mind, as both the seller and the title company have verified that title to the property looks clean.

394
Q

What is another name for a special warranty deed?

A

Limited warranty deed?

395
Q

What deed only covers the period of time for which the seller owned it. While the seller must still defend the title against other claims and compensate the buyer for any unsettled debts or damages, they must only do so for debts and problems that happened during their ownership of the property?

A

special warranty deed

396
Q

When is a special warranty deed used?

A

Special Warranty Deeds are only used in special cases where a General Warranty Deed is not a good option.

397
Q

A deed where a seller makes no warranties of any kind

A

Quitclaim deed

398
Q

what deeds involve quick transfers between people with established relationships such as between family members or when a situation requires a property’s quick release.

A

Quitclaim deed

399
Q

From the grantee’s perspective, what deed is better than a quitclaim deed, but not as good as a warranty deed.

A

Bargain and sale deed without covenants

400
Q

What deed includes a warranty that the grantor has title to the property but does not guarantee that the property is free of claims

A

Bargain and sale deed without covenants

401
Q

What is a bargain and sale deed will specifically state one or more additional guarantees

A

bargain and sale deed with covenants

402
Q

A bargain and sale deed with covenants is similar to a:

A

special warranty deed

403
Q

What deed is better for the grantee than a bargain and sale deed without covenants, but still not as good as a general warranty deed.

A

special warranty deed

404
Q

When are Bargain and sale deeds are most often used?

A

when property is transferred after a foreclosure, tax sale, or the settlement of a deceased person’s estate. They may also be used in the same situations as a quitclaim deed, although they give the grantee a little more protection.

405
Q

When given the option, grantors prefer to use what deed?

A

Bargain and sale deed because it limits their liability.

406
Q

When given the option, Grantees prefer to use what deed?

A

Always prefer a general warranty deed because it gives them the most protection possible.

407
Q

What deeds are used when limited or no warranties can be provided but title can be proved.

A

bargain and sale deeds

408
Q

What clause in a mortgage or trust deed stipulates that the entire debt is due immediately, if the borrower defaults under the terms of the contract. It will also give the conditions for when a lender can demand a full loan repayment.

A

Acceleration clause

409
Q

Is accelerating a loan a good or bad thing?

A

Accelerating a loan is usually a bad thing. Usually it means that a borrower has missed payments or violated the terms of the contract and the lender is demanding immediate payment of the full loan amount to avoid foreclosure.

410
Q

home loans typically have an __________ clause that is triggered when the borrower misses too many payments.

A

Acceleration clause

411
Q

What clause is also known as an alienation clause

A

Due-On-Sale clause

412
Q

What clause is a loan stipulation that requires a borrower to pay the entire loan balance if the property is being sold.

A

Due-On-Sale clause

413
Q

Lenders use this clause to prevent the buyer of a property from assuming the current loan at the original interest rate.

A

Due-On-Sale clause

414
Q

What penalties exist to protect lenders against the loss of interest income that would have been paid on the loan over time.

A

Prepayment penalties

415
Q

What clause stipulates a penalty charge which can be imposed on a borrower who pays off a loan early.

A

Prepayment penalties clause

416
Q

In real estate, _________ refers to the order of liens on a property.

A

subordination

417
Q

When is a Subordination clauses typically used?

A

Subordination clauses are typically used when a home loan is refinanced and there are existing liens on a property. Refinancing generally results in the original home loan being paid off and a new loan getting issued with the new interest rate. Chronologically, that would put the new loan at the end of the line- but mortgage lenders require their loans to be first in line. In order to complete the refinance, other lien-holders would have to agree to be subordinate to the refinancing loan.

418
Q

What is an example where not all lien-holders may agree to the subordination clause

A

For example, if you fall behind on your taxes, the IRS may put a lien on your home to ensure they get paid back. If you try to refinance, the IRS will have to decide whether or not to be subordinate to your loan. They may agree but, if they don’t, your refinance may not be approved.

419
Q

What clause effectively makes the current claim senior to any existing claims that have already been recorded.

A

Subordination clauses

420
Q

What clause is a loan provision that allows an individual property in a blanket mortgage to be released from any liens by the lender.

A

Release clause

421
Q

Blanket mortgages enable investors, builders, and developers to place multiple properties under a single loan, which is much more efficient than having multiple mortgages. If the loan contains a __________, a designated parcel or property is freed from any claims by the creditor once a proportional amount of the loan has been paid off, giving the borrower full rights to that property.

A

Release clause

422
Q

What is a intentional misrepresentation or a representation without any regard of the actual facts or the suppression.

A

Actual fraud

423
Q

What is it call when a promise made without any intention to follow through with that promise.

A

Actual fraud

424
Q

What is this an example of:

telling a buyer that the roof of a property is completely fine when he knows full well that it is not ok at all. It would also be actual fraud to for the agent to say “do not worry about the roof, if buy this house I will personally fix it, you have my word” they will fix the roof., when they do not have the ability to fix or have no intention of fixing it.

A

Actual fraud

425
Q

What is lying through omission

A

Negative fraud

426
Q

What occurs when somebody does not disclose a material fact to somebody in a effort to get somebody to enter into a contract that can cause that person to a bad situation with respect to money, damage or even personal harm.

A

Negative fraud

427
Q

What is this an example of?

when an agent is showing a home with roof problems and the client asks “are there any issues with the structure of the roof?” and the agent replies “have I shown you the basement?”

A

Negative fraud

428
Q

What is lying without knowing you are lying

A

Constructive fraud

429
Q

What is this an example of?

An example would be when an agent is showing a home with roof problems and the client asks “are there any issues with the structure of the roof?” and the agent replies “Ya, its fine, the roof is great” when the roof has problems but the agent authentically things the roof is fine.

A

An example would be when an agent is showing a home with roof problems and the client asks “are there any issues with the structure of the roof?” and the agent replies “Ya, its fine, the roof is great” when the roof has problems but the agent authentically things the roof is fine.

430
Q

What is A deceptive act done intentionally by one party in order to influence the other party to enter into the contract

A

Fraud

431
Q

What does fraud have that missrepresentation does not?

A

intent

432
Q

Does fraud make a contract void or voidable?

A

Voidable

433
Q

What is a representation of a material fact made by a party who believes it to be true, the other party relied on the statement and entered into the contract based upon the statement which later on turned out to be incorrect.

A

Missrepresentation

434
Q

Does missrepresentation make a contract void or voidable?

A

voidable at option of injured party

435
Q

What is an exaggeration of fact?

A

Puffing

436
Q

What determines that documents that must be in writing to be enforceable?

A

Statute of frauds

437
Q

In most states, what must be in writing?

A

Real estate documents such as: Sales contracts , deeds & mortgages

438
Q

What must an agent have in place in order to collect compensations

A

Employment contract (listing agreement), in writing

439
Q

What does “time is of the essence” mean in a contract?

A

Everything must be done within a specific time

440
Q

What does an “as is clause” mean in a contract?

A

Means a buyer is buying a property as he sees it, with all existing conditions

441
Q

Who is the name of the party transferring the contract?

A

assignor

442
Q

Who is the party receiving the contract?

A

assignee

443
Q

What is the transfer of contract writes from one party to another?

A

assignment

444
Q

Are personal service contracts usually assignable?

A

No

445
Q

what is the term the substitution of one contraction for another and releases liability (new contract)

A

Novation (nova = new)

446
Q

An assignment does not relieved the assignor from liability unless what has been granted?

A

novation

447
Q

What is a contractual provision that determines in advance the measure of damages if a party breaches the agreement?

A

A liquidated damage clause

448
Q

What occurs when there is an agreement between the contracting parties to waive all the remaining duties and to terminate the contract.

A

Rescission

449
Q

What is an oral or written agreement to do a specific thing?

A

contract

450
Q

for the “as is clause” must they disclose the defects

A

Yes it is being sold as is. The defects must be disclosed just not required to fix it.

451
Q

What contract is a promise for a promise?

A

bilateral contract

452
Q

What type of contracts are sales contracts and listings?

A

Bilateral contract

453
Q

What is a one sided agreement? one party makes a promise to perform

A

Unilateral contract

454
Q

What type type of contract is a lease option?

A

Unilateral contract

455
Q

In a lease, who is the lessor and who is the lessee

A

Lessor - landlord
Lessee - renter

456
Q

what type of contract is the lease?

A

bilateral contract - The lease is a bilateral contract because both the landlord and tenant have obligations to perform.

457
Q

Are leases personal property?

A

leases are personal property as they do not always run with the land. It is a contract with an individual person.

458
Q

What is a A reversionary right in a lease agreement?

A

A reversionary right means the owner has the right to regain possession of the property after the lease has expired.

459
Q

What does a lease have to contain to be valid?

A

Just like in any other contract a valid lease must contain mutual agreement, consideration, capable parties and lawful object

460
Q

What does the lessee have the right to?

A

The lessee has the right of quiet enjoyment and possession of property which is the assurance that their possession will not be disturbed by anybody with superior title (the landlord).

461
Q

Does death terminate the lease?

A

Death does not usually terminate the lease, upon death of one of the parties; the responsibilities as stated in the agreement could pass on to the heirs of the deceased.

462
Q

What is the difference between an assigment and an sublet?

A

An assignment is a transfer of contract rights as supposed to a sublet is when you rent the property you lease to another person while still maintaining your responsibility to your landlord under your rental agreement.

463
Q

Does the lease have the right to assign or sublet the property?

A

Unless the lease forbids it the tenant has the right to assign or sublet the property.

464
Q

What is a term used in the law of real property to describe a circumstance in which a landlord either does something or fails to do something that he has a legal duty to provide.

A

Constructive eviction

465
Q

What is this an example of?

An example would be if the landlord refuses to provide heat or water to the apartment as a tenant can not live without water, thus they need to vacate the premise

A

Constructive eviction

466
Q

What is a rental agreement for the use of the property where the tenant pays a fixed amount which does not change as a result of changes in the various expenses of the property. The landlord pays for these expenses such as all repairs, taxes and operating
expenses incurred through ownership.

A

Gross lease

467
Q

What is a rental agreement where the responsibility to pay taxes, insurance, and maintenance are incurred by lessee in addition to the monthly lease payment. This is often referred to as a triple net lease.

A

Net lease

468
Q

What is a rental agreement indicating a tenant’s option to purchase a property during the term or at the end of the lease.

A

Lease option

469
Q

What is a rental agreements that is based on a percentage of the monthly or annual gross sales made on the premises.

A

percentage lease

470
Q

What leases are common with large retail stores, especially in shopping centers

A

percentage lease

471
Q

A net lease where the responsibility to pay taxes, insurance, and maintenance

A

A triple net lease

472
Q

An option contract is a unilateral contract because?

A

It is a unilateral contract in that the seller is obligated to sell, but the buyer has the option to buy.

When created, an option contract is a unilateral contract. But when the buyer exercises the option, it becomes a bilateral contract.

473
Q

An in an option contract who is the seller and who is the buyer?

A

seller = optionor
buyer = optionee.

474
Q

In a ________ the lessee agrees to lease the property with an option to buy the property.

A

Lease option

475
Q

What is a bilateral Employment Contract between principal and broker whereby the broker is employed by the principal to find a buyer and accept a deposit.

A

A listing

476
Q

What is the most essential element of an enforceable broker-principal relationship.

A

A listing contract

477
Q

A _____ hires a broker to find a buyer, not to sell a house.

A

Listing

478
Q

protection period clause is also known as ___________, ____________, __________

A

safety clause, extender or carry- over clause.

479
Q

What is the clause that allows agents to be able to close deals with buyers you found during the term of the listing.

A

protection period clause (aka safety clause, extender or carry- over clause.)

480
Q

listing agreement is a ______

A

personal service contract

481
Q

Should the principle or seller die, or either party becomes incapacitated or the property is physically destroyed, such as by a fire or a natural disaster, the, is the listing agreement terminated?

A

Yes - In short remember this, a personal service contract needs a person there, therefore you can not assign this contract to another person.

482
Q

What is the right of subrogation?

A

is the right to pursue someone else’s claim.

483
Q

What are the examples of subrogation?

A

You may find subrogation in leases, mortgages, insurance policies, guarantees and other agreements.

484
Q

What does this example describe?

Suppose you own a building which burns down due to the negligence of a third party.

Your fire insurance company can pay off your claim,

A

Subrogation

Your fire insurance company can pay off your claim, however, the insurance company is then subrogated to your claim against the negligent third party.

This means your claim against the negligent third party is treated as having been assigned to the insurance company, which may sue him to recover the amount it paid you on account of the fire loss.

485
Q

What does this example describe?

Suppose you hold an interest in someone else’s real property. It might be an easement, a leasehold estate or a lien or encumbrance of some sort.

If the owner allows the property taxes to go into default, you might decide to pay the taxes in order to protect your own interest. By doing so, however, you also protect the interest of the owner by paying off an obligation the owner should be paying.

A

Subrogation

In this situation, you are subrogated to the rights of the taxing authority and may proceed against the fee owner in order to obtain reimbursement for the taxes you paid.

486
Q

What is a legal agreement which establishes one debt as ranking behind another debt in the priority for collecting repayment from a debtor?

A

Subordination

487
Q

What does subordination typically involve?

A

Loans

488
Q

What are the 4 essential elements of Value?

A

STUD

Scarcity - is there alot of it?
Transferability - can i sell it?
Utility - Can I use it?
Demand - anyone want it?

489
Q

what is the present worth of one commodity to draw on the open market.

A

Market Value

490
Q

How is the original cost of an item related to its value?

A

The original cost of an item has no relevance to its value.

491
Q

What is a form of depreciation which results in a loss in value even though the property is still in good condition.

A

Obsolescence

492
Q

What is obsolescence due to conditions within the property

A

Functional Obsolescence

493
Q

What obsolescence are these an example of?

– Poor design
- Too many or too few materials
– excess construction
– lack of utility (features that are not practical or desirable)
– Overly costly operating expenses.

A

Functional Obsolescence

494
Q

What is obsolescence that is a form of depreciation caused by factors that are not on the property, in the property or even within the property lines.

A

Economic obsolescence

495
Q

What obsolescence are these an example of?

  • Rezoning
    -crime in area
  • recession
  • national economic depression
  • abandon near by building
A

Economic obsolescence

496
Q

What are these an example of:
- Paint jobs
– roof repairs
- Deferred maintenance
– Repairs to the heating or cooling system
- Faulty wiring
- Lose tiles
- Breakage
- Dated construction material
- normal Wear and Tear.
the list can go on and on….

A

Curable physical deterioration examples

497
Q

What is the most obvious form of deprecation because, simply said, you can see it. When your maintenance does not keep up with the natural wear and tear

A

physical deterioration

498
Q

is Physical Deterioration is not a form of Obsolescence?

A

No

499
Q

In real estate your value will increase if it is in the area of much more desirable homes. What is this an example of?

A

Progression

The Principle of progression states that the value of less expensive properties will increase when more expensive properties come into the area.

500
Q

In real estate your value will decrease if it is in an area of less desirable homes. What is this an example of?

A

Regression

The principle of regression states that the value of a more expensive properties will decrease when less expensive properties come into the area.

501
Q

The Principle of Substitution is the basis for the _______ approach

A

Market Data approach to appraisal.

502
Q

In _____ , there must be other properties in the area which could be substituted for the subject property and which have recently sold.

A

The Principle of Substitution

503
Q

What principle says that the maximum value of a property usually is established by the cost of acquiring an equavelent substitute property that has the same use, design and income.

A

The Principle of Substitution

504
Q

What is the market data approach also known as?

A

sales comparison approach

505
Q

What appraisal approach is usually used to establish Rent Schedules

A

market data approach

506
Q

What appraisal approach becomes less reliable during times of rapid economic change or instability, in an inactive market or in analyzing unique properties

A

market data approach - because there are limited options for comparing properties.

507
Q

Which appraisal approach is it when you are finding value by comparing a property to other properties of similar size and condition in the same area.

A

market data approach

508
Q

What appraisal approach is the process of estimating the value of a property by adding to the estimated land value the appraiser’s estimate of the replacement cost of the building, less depreciation.

A

Cost approach

509
Q

What is the appraisal approach most commonly used to appraise special purpose properties such as Libraries, Schools and police stations.

A

Cost approach

510
Q

What appraisal approach sets the upper limits of value

A

Cost approach sets the upper limits of value because essentially you are looking at what it cost to replace a building brand new.

511
Q

Is the cost approach best for new or old buildings?

A

New

This approach is most appropriate for the appraisal of new property, not old. This is so because the older the building is the more variables there are estimating it’s value. If something was built yesterday, then that cost of how much it cost to build is much more accurate.

If you had to appraise a property from 1910 you would be using the current cost of reproduction, the Cost it took to build it in 1910 would not be a factor.

512
Q

What are the Methods for estimating the cost of Construction:

A
  • Unit-in-Place Method
    -Unit-in-place calculates the added cost of single units installed;
    Square Footage Method
  • Square Footage method utilizes exterior dimensions to calculate the cost per square foot
    Quantity Survey Method
  • Quantity survey calculates the cost of labor and materials to construct each component of a building, it is very accurate but time consuming
513
Q

What is the ratio of the price of a real estate investment to its annual rental income before expenses such as property taxes, insurance, and even utilities for vacation rental properties.

A

Gross Rent Multiplier

514
Q

How is the
The GRM is calculated?

A

price / rent (rent can be yearly or monthly)

515
Q

What is Valuable consideration?

A

It is a necessary component of all contracts. It is the benefit one party receive in exchange for granting benefit to the other. Generally it is money in any amount both parties agree to, though it can take other forms.

516
Q

What is a promissory Note?

A

negotiable instruments that serve as evidence of debt

517
Q

What does “At arms length” Mean?

A

Means transactions involving independent and objective parties with no unrelated motivations to distort the true value

518
Q

Mortgage bankers typically do what?

A

Originate a large number of loan transactions and then sell these mortgages at a discount to large investors in the secondary market

519
Q

When real estate under an estate for years is sold, what happens to the lease?

A

It binds the new owner.

Tenancy for years is the common form of rental agreement and binds all future owners for the term of the lease.

520
Q

What is a land contract also known as?

A

Conditional installment sales contract

521
Q

What happens in a Conditional installment sales contract (Land contract)

A

The vendor (seller) becomes a lender to the vendee (buyer). The Vendee gets to use the property (equitable title) as the seller retains legal title of land as a security device (the right to sell.

522
Q

What real estate advertisement does not include the employing broker?

A

Blind ad

523
Q

When can a lien be filed for a mechanics lien?

A

Within 90 days of the supply of materials

524
Q

What is a “quiet title”

A

Owner might use this action to correct a minor mistake in the property description or to remove and easement that’s been unused for years.

Additionally, they are used when a third party tries to assert some right to the property through a dubious claim.

The suit “quiets” that persons’ claim to the land and establishes a clear ti

525
Q

What ownership is undivided interest in common areas and a separate interest in a certain unit of an industrial, commercial or residential building?

A

A condominium unit has fee simple ownership of their unit as well as an undivided ownership share of any common areas, like a pool or clubhouse.

“undivided interest: means that a person owns a share of property that can’t be separate from the whole.

In other words, If a condominium project has fifty owners, each unit owns one-fiftieth of the common areas

526
Q

A “GPAM” mortgage loan provides for:

A

Graduated Payment Adjustable Mortgage (GPAM) allows for the deferment of certain principal payments.

527
Q

What does RESPA do?

A

Make borrowers more aware of costs and charges. ITs a standard for closing procedures

528
Q

What does standard policy of title insurance protect agains?

A

Forgery and improperty delivery

529
Q

What is a desist and refrain order?

A

Issued by the RE commissioner against a developer. Similar to a restraining order in that it immediately halts the action or actions in question

530
Q

What is conversion and an example

A

Conversion is unauthorized use or control of someone else’s property, at a minimum personal property.

A property manager wrote a check to himself from his clients trust account to cover office rent cost.

531
Q

What is the purpose of the truth and lending act? (TILA)

A

The purpose of this act was to promote the informed used of credit

532
Q

What doesn’t place limits on the rates of interest or loan fees that a lender chargers. Limits for interest rates are imposed by state usury laws

A

TILA doesn’t place limits on the rates of interest or loan fees that a lender charges. Limits for interest rates are imposed by state usury laws.