Prenatal Care and Screening Flashcards

1
Q

msAFP in…
NTDs, abdominal wall defects, cystic hygroma, oligohydramnios

msAFP in…
–chromosomal trisomies (21, 18), molar pregnancy

A

Elevated msAFP

  • -NTDs, abdominal wall defects, cystic hygroma
  • -multiple gestations

Low msAFP

  • -trisomy 21, trisomy 18
  • -molar pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Four markers in the quad screen?

What weeks?

A

Quad Screen
–(15-21 weeks gestation)

  1. msAFP
  2. hCG
  3. inhibin A
  4. unconjugated estriol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Identify the teratogen exposure:

  1. oligohydramnios, renal tubule dysgenesis, neonatal renal failure, skill anomalies, liimb defects
  2. heart and great vessel defects
  3. skeletal defects, limb defects
  4. facial defects, NTDs
  5. IUGR, microcephaly, facial defects, excess hair, fingernail hypoplasia
  6. CNS and skeletal defects
  7. Valproic acid, carbamazepine can cause?
A

Identify the teratogen exposure:

  1. ACE Inhibitor
    - -oligohydramnios, renal tubule dysgenesis, neonatal renal failure, skill anomalies, liimb defects
  2. Lithium
    –heart and great vessel defects (Ebstein anomaly)
    (atrialized R ventricle, ASD)
  3. Methrotrexate
    - -skeletal defects, limb defects
  4. Retinoic Acid
    - -facial defects, NTDs
  5. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
    - -IUGR, microcephaly, facial defects, excess hair, fingernail hypoplasia
  6. Warfarin
    - -CNS, skeletal defects
  7. Valproic Acid, Carbamazepine
    - -NTDs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Antenatal Testing of Fetal Well-Being

  1. definition of formally reactive NST
  2. Biophysical Profile includes NST + what 4 other measurements?
  3. definition of normal Contraction (Oxytocin) Stress Test
A

Antenatal Testing of Fetal Well-Being

  1. NST, formally reactive: at least 2 accelerations of 15+ beats lasting for at least 15 sec
  2. BPP: amniotic fluid volume, fetal tone, fetal activity, fetal breathing movements + NST
  3. CST: at least 3 contractions in 10 minute period; with no late or recurrent variable decelerations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most accurate mode for determining EGA?

–re: modality, measurement, trimester

A

Ultrasound; crown-rump length; 1st trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Universal screening of pregnant women for which 3 STIs?

Screening for other STIs is based on risk factors.

A

Universal screening: syphillis, HIV, Hep B

  • Syphillis screening
  • -screening test with VDRL or RPR
  • -confirm with FTA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What group on abx are contraindicated in pregnant women due to risk of harm to teeth and bones of fetus?
  2. In this group, what should be limited so as to avoid a photosensitivity reaction?
A

Doxycyclines
–risk of harm to fetus’ teeth and bones

*When taking tetracyclines, sun exposure can lead to a photosensitivity reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In fetus: bilateral renal agenesis, anhydramnios, contractures, and pulmonary hypoplasia

A

Potter Syndrome

renal agenesis –> anhydramnios –> contractures, pulmonary hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Embryology: which germ layer?

  1. gastrointestinal, respiratory systems
  2. cardiovascular, musculoskeletal, genitourinary systems
  3. nervous system, skin, sensory organs (hair, eyes, nose, ears)
A

Embryology: germ layers

  1. endoderm
    - -gastrointestinal, respiratory systems
  2. mesoderm
    - -cardiovascular, musculoskeletal, genitourinary systems
  3. ectoderm
    - -nervous system, skin, sensory organs (hair, eyes, nose, ears)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Syndrome?
–clenched fists, overlapping digits, rocker bottom feet; cardiac defects

What are the 3 markers?

A

Edwards Syndrome (Trisomy 18)

  • -decreased MSAFP
  • -decreased estriol
  • -decreased b-hCG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HIV in Pregnancy

  1. Prenatal: maternal HAART therapy
    - -2 drugs from what class?
    - -1 drug from which of two classes?
  2. Intrapartum: IV admin of what drug?
  3. C-section should be considered at what maternal viral load?
  4. Post-partum: What NRTI should be administered to the neonate following delivery for at least 6 wks?
A

HIV in Pregnancy

  1. Prenatal: maternal HAART therapy
    - -2 NRTIs
    - -1 nNRTI or 1 protease inhibitor
  2. Intrapartum: IV zidovudine
  3. maternal viral load > 1,000 –> C-section
  4. Post-partum: Zidovudine admin to neonate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Biophysical Profile

  1. Five components?
  2. Normal score?
  3. Score that is an indication for delivery?
A

Biophysical Profile

  1. Five components
    - -NST (reactive)
    - -AFI (AFI > 5)
    - -Fetal movements (3+ movements)
    - -Fetal tone (1+ movement of flexion/extension)
    - -Fetal breathing movements (1+ movements for 30s)
  2. Normal score = 8+
  3. Score = 4 or less –> delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Timing of chorionic villus sampling?

Timing of amniocentesis?

Timing of 2nd trimester ultrasound?

Timing of quad screen?

Timing of cell-free fetal DNA?

A

CVS: 10-13 wks

Amniocentesis: 15-20 wks

2nd trimester ultrasound: 18-21 wks

Quad screen: 15-20 wks

cell free fetal DNA (cffDNA): 10+ wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

IUGR: symmetric, asymmetric

Which type of IUGR occurs prior to 20 wks?

Which type of IUGR occurs after 20 wks?

A

IUGR

Symmetric IUGR (prior to 20 wks)

  • -hyperplastic growth prior to 20 wks
  • -insult has symmetrical effect

Asymmetric IUGR (after 20 wks)

  • -hypertrophic growth after 20 wks
  • -decreased nutrient transmission across placenta –> nutrients shunted to fetal brain –> increased head-to-abdominal measurements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

IUGR: symmetric, asymmetric

Symmetric IUGR usually occurs prior to 28 weeks.

  • -usually due to FETAL factors
  • -chromosomal abnormalities
  • -congenital anomalies
  • -congenital infections

Asymmetric IUGR

  • -fetal adaptation to suboptimal MATERNAL factors
  • -etiologies associated with vascular disease: HTN, diabetes, preeclampsia, smoking
  • -shunting of blood to vital organs –> increased head-to-abdominal measurements

Most common infectious etiology?

A

IUGR: symmetric, asymmetric

Symmetric IUGR usually occurs prior to 28 weeks.

  • -FETAL etiology
  • -chromosomal abnormalities
  • -congential anomalies
  • -congential infections

Asymmetric IUGR

  • -fetal adaption to suboptimal MATERNAL factors
  • -etiologies associated with vascular disease: HTN, diabetes, preeclampsia, smoking
  • -shunting of blood to vital organs –> increased head-to-abdominal measurements

Cytomegalovirus – most common infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Women with hx of genital herpes infection should receive prophylactic acyclovir or valacyclovir at how many weeks?

A

Pregnant women with hx of genital herpes

  • -prophylactic acyclovir or valacyclovir at 36 weeks
  • -reduces risk of outbreak at time of delivery, thus reducing risk of C-section
  • does NOT reduce risk of neonatal infection
17
Q

Mode of inheritance?

  1. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  2. Sickle Cell
  3. Complete androgen insensitivity
  4. G6PD deficiency
  5. Diabetes Insipidus
A

Mode of Inheritance

  1. Osteogenesis Imperfecta – AD
  2. Sickle Cell – AR
  3. Complete androgen insensitivity – XLR
  4. G6PD deficiency – AR
  5. Diabetes insipidus – XLR
18
Q

Mode of inheritance?

  1. Cystic Fibrosis
  2. Achondroplasia
  3. Hemophilia A
  4. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
  5. Tay-Sachs
A

Mode of Inheritance

  1. Cystic Fibrosis – AR
  2. Achondroplasia – AD
  3. Hemophilia A – XLR
  4. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia – AR
  5. Tay-Sachs – AR
19
Q
  1. Trisomy 21
    - -Which two markers are decreased?
    - -Which two markers are increased?
  2. Trisomy 18
    - -Which three markers are decreased?
    - -Which marker is normal-low?
  3. NTD
    - -Which marker is increased?
    - -the other markers are normal
A

Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)

  • -decreased msAFP, estriol
  • -increased hCG, inhibin
  • -often associated with duodenal atresia

Trisomy 18 (Edwards Syndrome)

  • -decreased msAFP, estriol, hCG
  • -normal-low inhibin

NTD

  • -increased msAFP
  • -normal estriol, hCG, inhibin
20
Q

What type of culture is used to screen for GBS? When is it performed?

When during pregnancy should anti-D immune globulin be administered to an Rh- mother?

When should pregnant women be screened for asymptomatic bacteriuria?

A

GBS Screening
–rectovaginal culture at 35-37 weeks (3-5 weeks prior to EDC)

Anti-D immune globulin prophylaxis

  • -28-32 weeks
  • for potentially Rh-positive fetus
  • -administer again within 72 hours of delivery of Rh-positive infant