Prenatal Care Flashcards

1
Q

What would elevated AFP levels in a pregnant mother indicate for the fetus?

A

High AFP levels often indicate neural tube defects in the fetus.

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2
Q

What would decreased AFP levels in a pregnant mother indicate for the fetus?

A

Low AFP levels often occur with trisomies 13, 18, and 21.

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3
Q

When should screening for vaginal and rectal GBS be performed in a pregnant woman?

A

Between 35 and 37 weeks gestation.

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4
Q

In a woman who has onset of labor at 35 weeks and GBS screening is negative, what GBS prophylaxis would be indicated?

A

None

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5
Q

What GBS prophylaxis regimen would be recommended in this scenario: A mother with onset of labor at 32 weeks gestation with positive GBS screen, labor is halted after 24 hours but resumes at 35 weeks and the mother delivers a healthy boy.

A

At 32 weeks, start PCN IV for 48 hours, during and after tocolysis to halt labor. Then, resume PCN when the mother goes into labor at 35 weeks and continue until delivery occurs.

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6
Q

In what (7) situations is intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis recommended for GBS prevention?

A
  • Women who delivered a previous infant with GBS disease, regardless of current colonization status
  • Women with GBS bacteriuria during any trimester of the current pregnancy
  • Women with a GBS positive screening result at 35-37 weeks of gestation in the current pregnancy
  • Women at onset of labor who have unknown GBS status and any of the following: <37 weeks gestation, intrapartum temperature of ≥38.0 C, PROM, intrapartum nucleic acid amplification test positive for GBS.
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7
Q

Do you need to give antibiotic prophylaxis to a woman who delivered a previous infant with GBS disease, regardless of current colonization status?

A

Yes

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8
Q

Do you need to give antibiotic prophylaxis to a woman who had GBS bacteriuria during any trimester of the current pregnancy?

A

Yes

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9
Q

Do you need to give antibiotic prophylaxis to a woman who had a GBS positive screening result at 35-37 weeks of gestation in the current pregnancy?

A

Yes

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10
Q

Do you need to give antibiotic prophylaxis to a woman who has unknown GBS status at the start of labor at <37 weeks gestation?

A

Yes

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11
Q

Do you need to give antibiotic prophylaxis to a woman who has unknown GBS status at the start of labor and an intrapartum temperature of ≥38.0 C?

A

Yes

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12
Q

Do you need to give antibiotic prophylaxis to a woman who has unknown GBS status at the start of labor and prolonged rupture of membranes?

A

Yes

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13
Q

Do you need to give antibiotic prophylaxis to a woman who has unknown GBS status at the start of labor and intrapartum nucleic acid amplification test positive for GBS?

A

Yes

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14
Q

Do you need to give antibiotic prophylaxis to a woman who has a history of GBS colonization or bacteriuria during a previous pregnancy?

A

No

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15
Q

Do you need to give antibiotic prophylaxis to a GBS colonized woman who has intact membranes and is going for C-section?

A

No

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16
Q

Do you need to give antibiotic prophylaxis to a woman who had a negative vaginal and rectal GBS culture at 35-37 weeks gestation?

A

No

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17
Q

Do you need to give antibiotic prophylaxis to a pregnant woman who screens positive for asymptomatic GBS colonization prior to the onset of labor?

A

No

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18
Q

What is the recommended GBS antibiotic prophylaxis regimen?

A

PCN G 5 million units IV x 1, then 2.5-3 million units IV q4h until delivery. Ampicillin is also acceptable, with 2g x 1, then 1g q4h until delivery.

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19
Q

What drug regimen should be used for GBS prophylaxis in a PCN allergic mother at low risk of anaphylaxis?

A

Cefazolin 2g IV x 1, then 1g IV q8h until delivery.

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20
Q

How would a PCN-allergic woman be determined to be low-risk for anaphylaxis when deciding on an alternate treatment regimen?

A

She must have a negative history for anaphylaxis, angioedema, respiratory distress, or urticaria with PCN administration.

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21
Q

What antibiotics should be used for GBS prophylaxis in a PCN-allergic woman considered to be high-risk for anaphylaxis? What determines which drug to use?

A

Antimicrobial susceptibility testing should be ordered from antenatal GBS cultures in these women. If the GBS isolate is susceptable to both clindamycin and erythromycin, they should receive Clindamycin 900 mg IV q8h. If the GBS isolate is resistant to clindamycin, demonstrates inducible resistance to clindamycin, or if susceptability is unknown, the mother should receive vancomycin 1g IV q8h.

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22
Q

T/F: Women with GBS bacteriuria at any time during the current pregnancy, or who previously gave birth to an infant with GBS disease, should receive intrapartum antimicrobial prophylaxis, whether currently colonized or not.

A

TRUE

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23
Q

Draw the flowchart for GBS prophylaxis in the setting of threatened preterm delivery (***Figure 1-2)

A

*** Figure 1-2

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24
Q

Draw the flowchart for GBS prophylaxis in the setting of preterm premature rupture of membranes (***Figure 1-3)

A

*** Figure 1-3

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25
Q

Draw the flowchart for management of a baby born to a mom who was given GBS prophylaxis. (Figure 1-4***)

A

*** Figure 1-4

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26
Q

Define preterm labor.

A

The onset of regular uterine contractions, producing changes in the cervix, at <37 weeks gestation.

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27
Q

What is “incompetent cervix” and how is it treated?

A

This is the onset of premature labor due to cervical tissue that has matured too early. If identified, a cerclage (placement of sutures around the incompetent cervix) offers a potential solution.

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28
Q

Define PROM.

A

Premature rupture of membranes refers to membrane rupture prior to the onset of uterine contractions.

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29
Q

Define PPROM.

A

Preterm premature rupture of membranes refers to membrane rupture prior to the onset of uterine contractions at a gestational age <37 weeks.

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30
Q

How would one confirm PROM if physical exam is nondiagnostic?

A

Test the pH of the vaginal fluid with nitrazine paper. Amniotic fluid has a pH of 7.0-7.3 compared to the normally acidic vaginal pH of 3.8-4.2. A second confirmatory test, called ferning, is performed by swabbing vaginal fluid onto a slide and allowing it to dry. After drying, a delicate fern-like pattern (from increased salt) forms if amniotic fluid is present due to rupture of membranes.

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31
Q

If a mother goes into labor, at what gestational ages should one consider performing fetal pulmonary maturity testing?

A

If the mother is thought to be at 32-39 weeks gestation. If gestational age is <32 weeks the lungs are definitely immature. If gestational age is ≥39 weeks the lungs are mature.

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32
Q

What tests are included in fetal pulmonary maturity testing?

A

Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio, phosphatidylglycerol level, and lamellar body count.

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33
Q

Under what conditions is delivery recommended in pregnant women with PROM?

A

If fetal lung maturity is confirmed and gestational age is ≥34 weeks, then delivery is recommended.

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34
Q

Under what conditions is expectant management recommended for pregnant women with PROM?

A

If fetal lung maturity is confirmed but gestational age is <34 weeks, then expectant management until 34 weeks, followed by delivery, is recommended. Alternatively, if an immature fetal lung profile is discerned, expectant management should be continued until 36 weeks of gestation prior to delivery.

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35
Q

What is the recommended management for a pregnant woman with PROM and signs of infection?

A

The baby should be delivered as quickly as possible, since the risk of serious fetal infection is directly proportional to the length of time between rupture of membranes and delivery.

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36
Q

What is included in “expectant management” for mothers with PROM who meet the required criteria?

A

Prophylactic antibiotics when indicated, corticosteroids in infants with documented pulmonary immaturity, tocolytics to delay progression of labor, and surveillance for maternal infection and fetal compromise.

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37
Q

What is preeclampsia?

A

A progressive multisystem disorder caused by vascular dysfunction of both the mother and placenta. It occurs in 3-7% of pregnancies and the etiology is unknown.

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38
Q

How is most preeclampsia identified in the prenatal period?

A

Early signs of preeclampsia are identified by monitoring blood pressure and urine protein during the late 2nd and 3rd trimesters.

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39
Q

What signs indicate the presence of severe preeclampsia?

A

SBP ≥160 mmHg or DBP ≥110 mmHg; Proteinuria >5g in 24h or ≥3+ on a dipstick; oliguria < 500 ml in 24 hours; visual or mental status changes; cyanosis, signs of respiratory distress, or pulmonary edema; epigastric or upper abdominal pain; liver function abnormalities; thrombocytopenia (<100 platelets).

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40
Q

Which agent is given to a mother with preeclampsia to prevent seizures?

A

Magnesium sulfate

41
Q

Which agents are given to a mother with preeclampsia to control blood pressure?

A

Labetalol or hydralazine

42
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is common in infants of mothers with preeclampsia who required symptomatic treatment during labor?

A

Hypermagnesemia is common in infants of mothers treated with magnesium sulfate.

43
Q

What are the symptoms one might expect to see in an infant with hypermagnesemia?

A

Respiratory depression, failure to pass meconium, lethargy, flaccidity, hyporeflexia, and poor feeding.

44
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzyme levels, and a Low Platelet count. It is thought to be a variant of preeclampsia, though the etiology is still unclear.

45
Q

What is the recommended treatment for infants with symptomatic hypermagnesemia?

A

Usually all that’s needed is supportive care until the magnesium level returns to normal. Rarely, IV calcium and diruesis can be used to reduce serum magnesium levels.

46
Q

What is an early identifier of patients with preeclampsia at risk for progression to HELLP syndrome?

A

A positive D-dimer test

47
Q

In infants born to diabetic mothers, the incidence of malformations most closely correlates with what finding?

A

The incidence of malformations most closely correlates to the mother’s degree of hyperglycemia prior to conception.

48
Q

Define oligohydramnios.

A

Oligohydramnios refers to a decreased volume of amniotic fluid for gestational age.

49
Q

What are some of the potential causes of oligohydramnios?

A

Idiopathic, uteroplacental insufficiency, ruptured membranes, maternal medications, chromosomal abnormalities, and congenital anomalies (especially those pertaining to the renal/urinary system).

50
Q

What is Potter syndrome/sequence?

A

Potter syndrome/sequence refers to the typical physical features of a fetus or neonate exposed to prolonged severe oligohydramnios.

51
Q

What are the physical features associated with Potter syndrome/sequence?

A

Lung hypoplasia, growth retardation, flattened facies (flattened nose, low set ears, and micrognathia), and limb deformities.

52
Q

What is the simplest screening method for IUGR?

A

Fundal height measurements.

53
Q

How is fundal height measured?

A

From the top of the uterine fundus to the symphysis pubis.

54
Q

When is the best time to determine gestational age based on fetal size via US?

A

Until 20 weeks of gestation, almost all fetuses grow at the same rate. Therefore, an US at 18-20 weeks is useful to determine gestational age based on fetal size. After 20 weeks, measurements will not correlate as well.

55
Q

Define nonstress testing.

A

Nonstress testing consists of detecting the fetal heart rate (FHR) by external methods and reactivity in response to fetal movements, noting the presence of FHR variability with fetal movement.

56
Q

What defines a reactive nonstress test?

A

A reactive test is defined as 2 accelerations of the fetal heart rate in 20 minutes.

57
Q

What is the significance of a reactive nonstress test?

A

A reactive test is associated with fetal survival rates of 99% for another week or more.

58
Q

What 5 factors are included in a biophysical profile and how is it used to determine need for delivery?

A

Fetal movement by NST, fetal tone, fetal reactivity, fetal breathing, and amniotic fluid volume. Each factor is assigned a point value, and a low combined score indicates the need for emergent delivery.

59
Q

What is the contraction stress test?

A

A contraction stress test notes changes in FHR in response to breast stimulation or oxytocin. It requires 3 contractions, lasting at least 1 minute each, recorded over 10 minutes to be considered normal.

60
Q

What is considered to be a normal fetal heart rate?

A

120-160 bpm

61
Q

What conditions place a mother at high risk and necessitate continuous fetal heart rate monitoring?

A

*** Table 1-2

62
Q

What are Category 1 FHR patterns and what is their significance?

A

Category 1 FHR patterns are considered normal. FHR is 110-160 bpm with moderate baseline FHR variability of 6-25 bpm and no late or variable decelerations. Accelerations can be present or absent.

63
Q

What are Category 2 FHR patterns and what is their significance?

A

Category 2 FHR patterns are anything that doesn’t fit into categories 1 or 3 (e.g. tachycardia, absence of accelerations after stimulation). These patterns are not predictive of abnormal acid-base status but do required continued surveillance and reevaluation.

64
Q

What are Category 3 FHR patterns and what is their significance?

A

These patterns are abnormal and are predictive of abnormal fetal acid-base status. They include sinusoidal pattern, absent variability with recurrent late decelerations, recurrent variable decelerations, or persistent bradycardia. If a category 3 FHR pattern is identified, efforts to immediately resolve the underlying cause are necessary. If unsuccessful, delivery is warranted.

65
Q

Describe an example of a Category 1 fetal heart rate pattern.

A

Baseline HR of 130-140 bpm with preserved beat-to-beat and long-term variability.

66
Q

If an exam question presents a Category 2 FHR tracing and asks for recommended management, what should your answer be?

A

Proceed to further testing of fetal well-being.

67
Q

If an exam question presents a Category 3 FHR tracing and asks for recommended management, what should your answer be?

A

Proceed to immediate delivery.

68
Q

Describe the Saltatory pattern as it relates to FHR tracing. What is its significance?

A

Refers to increased variability in the baseline FHR (oscillations >25 bpm). It is a Category 2 FHR pattern typically caused by acute hypoxia or compression of the umbilical cord. If associated with late decelerations, one should look for possible causes of acute hypoxia and observe for progression to acidosis.

69
Q

Maternal fever in association with fetal tachycardia >180 bpm should make you suspect what diagnosis?

A

Chorioamnionitis

70
Q

What are some (8) common causes of fetal tachycardia?

A

Fetal hypoxia, maternal fever, hyperthyroidism, maternal or fetal anemia, drugs, chorioamnionitis, fetal tachyarrhythmia, and prematurity.

71
Q

What is the definition for fetal tachycardia?

A

FHR > 160 bpm

72
Q

What heart rates correspond with mild and severe fetal tachycardia?

A

Mild = 160-180 bpm; Severe = >180 bpm

73
Q

What etiologies should one consider if a fetus has tachycardia >200 bpm?

A

Tachycardia >200 bpm is usually due to a fetal tachyarrhythmia or congenital anomaly, not hypoxia.

74
Q

If fetal scalp stimulation does not give an appropriate response, what should you do next?

A

Proceed with fetal scalp sampling for pH. If fetal scalp sampling can’t be performed, proceed with immediate delivery.

75
Q

What value of a scalp pH would make you suspect that immediate delivery was necessary?

A

<7.20

76
Q

Define fetal bradycardia.

A

Baseline HR of <120 bpm

77
Q

What does a fetal heart rate ≤80 bpm signify?

A

Bradycardia at ≤80 bpm for > 3 minutes is considered a Category 3 FHR pattern and indicates significant hypoxia.

78
Q

What are some (8) common causes of fetal bradycardia?

A

Prolonged cord compression, cord prolapse, tetanic uterine contractions, paracervical block, epidural and spinal anesthesia, maternal seizures, rapid descent in the birth canal, vigorous vaginal examination.

79
Q

What is the likely cause of early decelerations?

A

Early decelerations are usually due to fetal head compression during uterine contraction and result in vagal stimulation with slowing of the heart rate.

80
Q

What is the likely cause of late decelerations?

A

Late decelerations are usually due to uteroplacental insufficiency, which is “unmasked” by uterine contractions.

81
Q

Describe the pattern of early decelerations.

A

As the heart rate goes down, the contraction force increases, creating a mirror image effect on the tracings. (***find pic)

82
Q

Describe the pattern of late decelerations.

A

Late decelerations are characterized by a fall in FHR at the beginning, or after the peak, of the uterine contraction, with return of FHR only after the contraction has ended. The fall in FHR is symmetric, gradual, and smooth. (***find pic)

83
Q

What is the significance of late decelerations?

A

Late decelerations are always considered to be potentially ominous and, if persistent, further evaluation of fetal pH should be pursued.

84
Q

What is the significance of early decelerations?

A

Early decelerations are not associated with adverse outcomes.

85
Q

Describe the pattern of variable decelerations.

A

Variable decelerations are characterized by an acute fall in FHR with a rapid down slope and a variable recovery period. (***find pic)

86
Q

Describe the cause of variable decelerations.

A

They are due to compression of the umbilical cord, which initially occludes the umbilical vein, resulting in an acceleration. Continued pressure will occlude an umbilical artery, resulting in a quick, sharp, down-slope in FHR, followed by a quick, sharp, up-slope in FHR when the pressure is relieved.

87
Q

What are some signs that variable decelerations are likely to indicate fetal hypoxia rather than a normal labor pattern?

A

Increased severity of the deceleration, late onset and gradual return phase, blunt acceleration or “overshoot” after severe deceleration, unexplained tachycardia, saltatory variability, late decelerations or a late return to baseline, decreased variability.

88
Q

What is a sinusoidal pattern on FHR tracing and what does it signify?

A

It is a sinusoidal pattern which is considered to be a Category 3 FHR tracing. It is indicative of severe fetal anemia, as seen in hemolysis from Rh incompatibility or severe hypoxia, and has high associated morbidity and mortality.

89
Q

What are the 5 basic indications for C-section?

A

Previous C-section, dystocia, fetal distress, malpresentation, “other”

90
Q

What is the overall risk of uterine rupture during VBAC?

A

1-2%

91
Q

How is operative vaginal delivery typically performed?

A

With forceps or vacuum extraction

92
Q

What are the typical indications for operative vaginal delivery?

A

Fetal factors, such as FHR abnormalities, or maternal indicators of a prolonged 2nd stage of labor.

93
Q

What is the expected outcome of each extraction attempt?

A

The fetal head should descend with each extraction attempt. If it fails to do so, the technique is abandoned.

94
Q

What is the maximum number of times vacuum extraction should be attempted?

A

It is generally used a maximum of 3 (or, rarely, 4) times.

95
Q

How long does the 2nd stage of labor typically last for nulliparous women? Parous women?

A

3 hours for nulliparous women and 2 hours for parous women.

96
Q

List five complications associated with multiple births.

A

Malpresentation, umbilical cord compression, placental abruption, congenital anomalies, and premature delivery.

97
Q

What is the C-section rate for twins and triplets?

A

Twins have a 50% C-section rate, and triplets have a 70% C-section rate.

98
Q

What type of placenta do conjoined twins have?

A

Monochorionic, monoamniotic

99
Q

For twin-twin transfusion syndrome, which type of placenta must be present?

A

Monochorionic