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PMLS (Lab Exam) > Prelims: Commonly Performed Lab Tests > Flashcards

Prelims: Commonly Performed Lab Tests Flashcards

1
Q

This is a basic screening test and one of the most ordered tests in hematology

A

CBC

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2
Q

The commonly used specimen in hematology

A

Whole blood

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3
Q

This parameter of CBC describes leukocytes that fight off infections

A

WBC count

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4
Q

Term referred to as high WBC count which means infection is present

A

Leukocytosis

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5
Q

This parameter in CBC describes the percentage of each type of WBC

A

Differential count

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6
Q

High number of neutrophils in a differential count means the presence of what?

A

Bacterial infection

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7
Q

High number of eosinophils and basophils in a differential count means the presence of what?

A

Allergic disorders/parasitism

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8
Q

High number of lymphocytes in a differential count means the presence of what?

A

Viral infection

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9
Q

High number of monocytes in a differential count means the presence of what?

A

Chronic inflammation caused by a virus

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10
Q

This parameter in a CBC is aka erythrocytes that carry out oxygen and carbon dioxide transportation

A

RBC count

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11
Q

T or F: Hemoglobin does not readily bind with CO2, only O2

A

False (hemoglobin binds to CO2 as well)

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12
Q

Decreased RBC count refers to what condition?

A

Anemia

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13
Q

This parameter in a CBC serves as the transport vehicle for O2 and CO2 and gives the red pigment of RBCs

A

Hemoglobin concentration

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14
Q

This parameter in a CBC refers to the percentage of packed RBCs in whole blood

A

Hematocrit

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15
Q

Plasma/serum and blood cells are separated through what process?

A

Centrifugation

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16
Q

Decreased hematocrit refers to what condition?

A

Anemia

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17
Q

This parameter in a CBC is aka thrombocytes that are used to evaluate bleeding disorders, bone marrow diseases, and excessive clotting disorders as they function in blood coagulation

A

Platelet count

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18
Q

T or F: More thrombocytes = greater tendency to bleed

A

False (inversely proportional)

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19
Q

This area of study encapsulates blood-circulating proteins responsible for stable blood clot formation

A

Coagulation studies

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20
Q

What is the most commonly used specimen in clinical chemistry?

A

Serum

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21
Q

This sample came from an anti-coagulant tube and therefore will not clot

A

Plasma

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22
Q

This sample came from a non-additive tube therefore blood clots will form

A

Serum

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23
Q

This test in clinical chemistry screens for hyperglycemia/hypoglycemia and diagnoses diabetes mellitus when glucose levels are high

A

FBS

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24
Q

This is known as the fasting specimen which is observed for 8 to 10 hours; it is the product of carbohydrate metabolism and a chief source of energy for all organisms

A

Glucose

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25
Q

Glucose cannot enter the cell without what hormone?

A

Insulin

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26
Q

Urea, Creatinine, and Uric Acid all fall under what type of testing?

A

Renal function tests (kidneys)

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27
Q

This analyte is the end product of protein metabolism as it is cleared through urine

A

Urea

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28
Q

High BUN indicates a disease in what organ?

A

Kidney

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29
Q

This analyte is formed by creatine breakdown during muscle metabolism

A

Creatinine

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30
Q

Increased creatinine levels indicate a disease in what organ?

A

Kidney

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31
Q

This analyte is the end product of purine metabolism

A

Uric acid

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32
Q

Meat and vegetables carry this compound which contributes greatly to high uric acid

A

Purine

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33
Q

Aside from kidney disease, what is present when uric acid levels are high?

A

Gout

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34
Q

Masses of uric acid are known as?

A

Tophi

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35
Q

This test determines risks for coronary heart disease through indicators like heart attacks and strokes triggered by atherosclerosis

A

Lipid profile test

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36
Q

This refers to the sum of all HDL and LDL in the blood

A

Total cholesterol

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37
Q

This good cholesterol helps remove other forms of cholesterol found in the blood

A

HDL

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38
Q

T or F: High LDL count = less risk for coronary disease

A

False (LDL is bad cholesterol)

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39
Q

This refers to the bad cholesterol

A

LDL

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40
Q

T or F: High HDL leads to lower risk of atherosclerosis

A

True

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41
Q

These store unused calories in the body and act as an energy reserve

A

Triglycerides

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42
Q

This is aka liver panel or hepatic function panel

A

Liver function tests

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43
Q

This is the major bile pigment formed through hemoglobin breakdown

A

Bilirubin

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44
Q

Bilirubin is removed by the liver which gets excreted into what fluid?

A

Bile

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45
Q

Increased bilirubin means excessive breakdown of what?

A

RBCs

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46
Q

T or F: Lower bilirubin means liver disease

A

False (higher)

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47
Q

This ratio states that low protein signifies liver disease

A

Total protein and albumin/globulin ratio

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48
Q

T or F: Low ALT, ALP, and GGT signifies liver disease

A

False (high)

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49
Q

ALT stands for?

A

Alanine amionotransferase

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50
Q

ALP stands for?

A

Alkaline phosphatase

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51
Q

GGT stands for?

A

Gamma-glutamyl transferase

52
Q

The ff. tests fall under what section of the laboratory:
- CBC
- RBC, WBC, and Platelet count
- Differential count
- Hemoglobin
- Hematocrit

A

Hematology

53
Q

The ff. tests fall under what section of the laboratory:
- FBS
- Renal and Liver function tests
- Lipid profile tests

A

Clinical Chemistry

54
Q

Whole blood for hematology is stored in what evacuated tube?

A

EDTA tube (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid; purple)

55
Q

This white blood cell has a kidney bean-shaped nucleus

56
Q

This white blood cell has orange granules in the cytoplasm

A

Eosinophil

57
Q

This refers to an immature neutrophil

58
Q

This determines the amount of hemoglobin content usually expressed in picograms

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)

59
Q

This determines the weight of hemoglobin in RBCs and compares it with the cell size usually expressed in percentage

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)

60
Q

This determines the size of the RBCs usually expressed in femtoliters

A

Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

61
Q

This determines the number and type of cells found in the bone marrow

A

Bone marrow exam

62
Q

This acts as a non-specific indicator of inflammation

63
Q

This evaluates bone marrow production of RBC

A

Reticulocyte count

64
Q

Refers to stoppage of blood flow from a damaged vessel

A

Hemostasis

65
Q

Plasma collected in a tube with a light blue stopper contains what anticoagulant

A

Sodium citrate

66
Q

This evaluates the intrinsic system of the coagulation cascade and monitors heparin therapy

67
Q

This screens for decreased clotting tendencies as it prevents clots from forming by blocking thrombin

A

Antithrombin II

68
Q

This time-dependent test evaluates platelet function

A

Bleeding time

69
Q

This measures abnormal blood clotting and fibrinolysis

70
Q

This detects factor deficiencies that prolong coagulation

A

Factor assays

71
Q

This test for increased fibrinolysis by observing the by-products formed when fibrin is destroyed

A

Fibrin degradation products

72
Q

This evaluates the extrinsic system of the coagulation cascade and monitors Coumadin therapy

A

Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio

73
Q

This determines if adequate fibrinogen is present for normal coagulation

A

Thrombin time

74
Q

T or F: FBS is for monitoring blood sugar while HbA1C is for diagnosing diabetes mellitus

A

False (reverse)

75
Q

T or F: ALT is aka SGOT

A

False (ALT = SGPT)

76
Q

T or F: AST is aka SGPT

A

False (AST = SGOT)

77
Q

Elevated levels of this indicate myocardial infarction, lung, or liver disorders

78
Q

Elevated levels of these indicate acute pancreatitis

A

Amylase and lipase

79
Q

These evaluate body fluid balance

A

Electrolytes

80
Q

Elevated levels of these indicate congestive heart failure

A

B-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)

81
Q

This is used for early diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction as it is the most accurate cardiac marker available

A

Troponin I

82
Q

This test determines an individual’s blood group and what type of blood components the person can safely receive

A

Blood typing

83
Q

The Rh typing is also known as what antigen?

84
Q

T or F: Blood samples that agglutinate together after adding the corresponding Anti-A or Anti-B solution indicate that that is the individual’s blood type

85
Q

T or F: Blood samples that agglutinate to the Anti-Rh solution indicate that the blood is Rh-

A

False (Rh+)

86
Q

T or F: In the gel card method, the agglutinated RBCs sink to the bottom of the tubes which indicate the blood type

A

False (agglutinated RBCs stay on top)

87
Q

This identifies bacterial infections using blood, urine, wound scrapings, genital discharge, CSF, sputum, stool, etc.

A

Gram stain

88
Q

This is the primary stain

A

Crystal violet

89
Q

This is the dye fixative

90
Q

This is the decolorizer

91
Q

This is the secondary stain

92
Q

T or F: Gram positive bacteria will appear pink

A

False (retains the crystal violet color even after being washed by alcohol due to it not having an outer membrane hence being easily penetrable by the primary stain)

93
Q

T or F: Gram negative bacteria will appear pink

A

True (is not able to absorb the color of crystal violet due to its membrane but will absorb the safranin due to the alcohol dissolving its outer membrane)

94
Q

Which gram stained bacteria has a thick peptidoglycan layer but no outer layer?

95
Q

Which gram stained bacteria has an outer layer but a thin peptidoglycan layer?

96
Q

This smear is used to determine fungal infections

97
Q

This stain is used to diagnose tuberculosis using sputum

A

Acid fast stain

98
Q

This utilizes the culture and sensitivity test which observes antibiotic-containing discs and the zones of inhibition

A

Antimicrobial susceptibility testing

99
Q

T or F: The bigger the zone of inhibition, the more effective the antibiotic

100
Q

Which section of the laboratory is blood banking performed?

A

Blood bank/Immunology

101
Q

Which section of the laboratory is gram staining performed?

A

Microbiology

102
Q

This test in clinical microscopy detects diseases related to the kidneys and urinary tract

A

Urinalysis

103
Q

This type of observation for clinical microscopy describes color, transparency, specific gravity, etc.

A

Macroscopic

104
Q

This type of observation for clinical microscopy detects the presence protein, glucose, abnormal pH, etc.

105
Q

If there is presence of blood in the urine, the condition is called?

106
Q

If bilirubin is present in the urine, what is the condition called?

107
Q

If high amounts of glucose are in the urine, the condition is called?

A

Glucosuria (caused by diabetes mellitus, renal impairment, or ingestion of large amounts of carbohydrates)

108
Q

This analyte in chemical analysis of urine describes uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and starvation

109
Q

Presence of leukocytes in urine indicate what disease?

110
Q

High levels of protein in urine refers to what condition?

A

Proteinuria

111
Q

Presence of nitrite in the urine indicates what?

A

Bacterial infection

112
Q

High urobilinogen in the urine indicates what?

A

Hepatic or hemolytic problems

113
Q

This type of observation in urinalysis involves cells, crystal casts, etc.

A

Microscopic

114
Q

This area studies antigen-antibody reactions for diagnosis of infectious diseases, auto-immune disorders, and neoplastic diseases

115
Q

This specimen is used in serology

116
Q

This stimulates and reacts with the products of an immune response

A

Antigens (Ag)

117
Q

These proteins are produced by the body’s immune response to antigens

A

Antibodies (Ab)

118
Q

This test detects AIDS

119
Q

This detects malignancy of colon, pancreas, lung, and stomach cancers

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

120
Q

This contains an antibody (anti-HCG) which detects the human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) antigen which is produced by the placenta

A

Pregnancy Test

121
Q

This section in the laboratory examines tissue specimen under microscopes for cancer and other abnormality detection

A

Histopathology

122
Q

This test uses cells scraped from the cervix to able to detect cancer using a staining method

A

Pap’s Test

123
Q

What is the recommended date for undergoing a Pap’s Test

A

3 years after first sexual intercourse or after the age of 21

124
Q

What are the 2 histopathologic tests?

A

Frozen biopsy and Tissue biopsy

125
Q

Preserved samples are placed in what kind of block?

126
Q

Paraffin blocks are cut using what instrument?

A

Microtomes

PMLS (Lab Exam) (2 decks)

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