PRELIMNARY TEST Flashcards

1
Q

A logical starting point, as any complaints of BOV elicited can be confirmed

A

Visual Acuity

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2
Q

Is the amount of luminous flux incident on a surface area per unit area of the surface and can be specified in ft candles

A

Illuminance

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3
Q

Is a measure of the luminous flux emitted or reflected per unit area of a source as measured per unit area of a light-sensitive surface

A

Luminance

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4
Q

To measure VA at 40cm, the examiner uses a

A

Reduced snellen chart

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5
Q

A chart that can be used to test VA for preschool children who have not yet learned the alphabet

A

Birthday cake project-o-chart slide

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6
Q

A VA chart for children between ages 3 and 6 years old who cannot recognize letters

A

Tumbling E chart

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7
Q

A VA chart where the examiner state “somebody has taken a bite out of this doughnut” and asks the child to point to the part of the doughnut that is missing

A

Landolt C chart

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8
Q

Consists of set of 7 cards, each containing a single picture that can be used for children 2 years and older

A

Allen preschool vision chart

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9
Q

STYCAR means

A

Screening test for young children and retardates

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10
Q

Consists of letter charts designed for use at 10 and 20 foot distances together with sets of miniature eating utensils and a number of toys

A

STYCAR

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11
Q

A large card used in STYCAR is called

A

Key card

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12
Q

A VA testing that provides a large key card for use of the child but uses a spiral-bound booklet

A

Sheridan gardener VA test

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13
Q

The sheriden-gardener test also includes a ______ chart for near testing

A

Reduced snellen

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14
Q

Both have a “lap card” that the child holds and a VA chart at 10 or 20 ft.

A

THE HOTV letter chart and Lea Symbols

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15
Q

By the means of this test, the practitioner can determine the presence and absence of a tropia

A

Unilateral cover test

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16
Q

The unilateral cover test is also known as

A

Cover-uncover test

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17
Q

By means of this test, the practitioner can determine whether a phoria or tropia is present but cannot differentiate between the two

A

Alternating cover test

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18
Q

In this test, the occluder is placed in front of the right eye, held there for about 1 sec, and then removed. The practitioner observes the patient’s left eye for any movement.

A

Unilateral cover test

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19
Q

A tropia may be present at some times and not at others

A

Intermittent tropia

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20
Q

A tropia that is found at one testing distance but not at another

A

Periodic tropia

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21
Q

If a patient has ____, each eye will be seen to turn upward or downward just as the cover is removed

A

Vertical phoria

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22
Q

A convenient test for determining the presence of strabismus at near

A

Corneal reflex test

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23
Q

A test useful for a child whose results with the unilateral cover test were questionable

A

Corneal reflex test

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24
Q

If no tropia exist in corneal reflex test, the corneal reflex will be located

A

Approximately 0.5 mm nasal to the center of pupil

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25
Q

An small angle in the line of sight measured from the entrance of the pupil

A

Angle lambda

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26
Q

Methods used to evaluate corneal reflex

A

Hirschberg test
Krimsky’s method
Angle lambda

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27
Q

In esotropic patients, the corneal reflex for the deviating eye is displaced

A

Temporally

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28
Q

In exotropic patients, the eye is displaced

A

Nasally

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29
Q

Each mm of displacement of the corneal reflex indicates how many prism of strabismus?

A

22 prism

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30
Q

In this method, a prism is placed in front of the deviating eye while using the alternating cover test

A

Krimsky’s method

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31
Q

Expected value for NPC

A

8cm or less

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32
Q

In this test, the examiner ask the patient to report when a row of letters begins to blur and remains blurred

A

NPA

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33
Q

A test designed to test the action of the horizontal rectus muscles, vertical recti, oblique muscles, etc

A

Broad H test

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34
Q

A muscle that turns the eye upward when it is already turned to the right

A

Right-hand elevator

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35
Q

A muscle that turns the eye downward when it is already turned to the right is called

A

Right-hand depressor

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36
Q

A test where the examiner ask the patient to wear a pair of red/green glasses because one eye appears to lag behind the field

A

Diplopia field test

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37
Q

An ultraviolet lamp is called

A

Burton lamp

38
Q

In this test, the patient is first asked to fixate distant object and then on a near point card

A

Near reflex test

39
Q

PERLA

A

Pupils equal, responding to light accommodation

40
Q

PERRLA

A

pupils, equal, round, reactive to light accommodation

41
Q

Explain marcus gunn pupil

A

The pupil of the affected eye dilates slightly when illuminated

42
Q

Marcus gunn pupil is sometimes referred to as

A

Pupillary escape

43
Q

Difference in pupil size

A

Essential anisocoria

44
Q

Unilaterally dilated pupil with little or no reaction to light but sluggish to near

A

Adie’s tonic pupil

45
Q

A pupillary condition where the pupil has no direct pupillary reflex but will contract consensually when the fellow eye is stimulated

A

Amaurotic pupil

46
Q

Causes of marcus gunn pupil

A

Multiple sclerosis accompanied by optic neuritis or retrobulbar neuritis

47
Q

A pupillary condition that consists of miosis, ptosis, apparent enophthalmos, and possible decrease in facial sweating

A

Horners syndrome

48
Q

Cause of horners syndrome?

A

Paralysis of the ocular sympathetic fibers

49
Q

When Horner’s syndrome arises between the ages 20 and 50 years, the patient might have

A

Malignant tumor

50
Q

Most common malignant tumor responsible for Horners syndrome

A

Tumor of the apex of the lungs

51
Q

In older patients, horners syndrome may occur as a result of

A

Insufficiency in basilar arteries

52
Q

A fixed, dilated pupil, usually unilateral due to CNS lesion

A

Hutchinson’s pupil

53
Q

Is present when the pupils fail to react to light but constrict on convergence

A

Light-near dissociation

54
Q

Most common cause of Argyll Robertson Pupil

A

Neurosyphilis

55
Q

A pupillary condition that may occur several months after a traumatic third-nerve palsy

A

Aberrant regeneration of CNIII

56
Q

The ability to perceive depth, or relative distance on basis of retinal disparity clues

A

Stereopsis

57
Q

Commonly used test for stereopsis

A

Titmus stereotest

58
Q

A particularly good test for stereopsis for preschool children

A

Stereofly

59
Q

A polarized test providing stimuli for both gross and fine stereopsis

A

Bernell stereo reindeer test

60
Q

A test where the examiner can make the reindeers nose wiggle

A

Bernell stereo reindeer test

61
Q

Consists of a demonstration plate that contains a raised letter E and two test plates.

A

Random dot E test

62
Q

A _____ is an individual who requires only two primaries to match any given color stimulus

A

Dichromat

63
Q

Protanopes lack a red absorbing pigment known as

A

Erythrolabe

64
Q

Deuteranopes lack a green-absorbing pigment called

A

Chlorolabe

65
Q

Most common color deficiency in males

A

Red-green color defect

66
Q

Yellow-blue color vision anomaly

A

Tritanomaly or tritanopia

67
Q

A type of monochromatism which the retina contains no foveal cones

A

Typical monochromatism

68
Q

A type of monochromatism in which foveal cones are present

A

Atypical monochromatism

69
Q

This test is in the form of a book containing a number of color plates that contains a numbers and figures

A

Pseudoisochromatic/Ishihara Test

70
Q

D-15 test is also known as

A

Dichotomous test

71
Q

Consists of a series of seven gridlike charts designed for evaluating central visual field

A

Amsler charts

72
Q

Standard chart consisting of white grid on black background with a central fixation point

A

Chart 1

73
Q

Similar to chart 1, with the addition of two diagonal lines extending from the fixation point. Used for pxs with central scotoma

A

Chart 2

74
Q

A red grid on black bg for use when investigating scotoma in color

A

Chart 3

75
Q

Has white dots but no lines on a black bg and is designed to detect scotomas only

A

Chart 4

76
Q

Has white parallel lines on black bg and is oriented both horizontally and vertically to detect metamorphopsia

A

Chart 5

77
Q

Has black parallel lines on a white bg

A

Chart 6

78
Q

Similar to chart 1 but contains smaller squares in central 8 degrees

A

Chart 7

79
Q

A screening device for the central field that utilizes a total of 15stimulus patterns

A

Friedmann visual field analyser

80
Q

Who designed the amsler chart?

A

Marc Amsler

81
Q

Indication for Amsler Chart

A

Is done whenever macular disease is suspected

82
Q

An instrument for VF screening where it has a uniformly illuminated white hemispherical field with 99 holes

A

Synemed Fieldmaster

83
Q

In this VF screening test, each time a stimuli is presented, the px is asked to report how many spots he or she sees

A

Friedmann Visual Analyser

84
Q

In this VF screening test, the px presses a button each time a stimulus is seen

A

Synemed Fieldmaster

85
Q

The heart begins to enlarge both because of the inability to expel the blood coming into it

A

Congestive heart failure

86
Q

Conventional antihypertensive therapy

A

Diuretics, direct-acting vasodilators, sympathetic blockers

87
Q

Movement of perceived target in the same direction indicates

A

Exophoria

88
Q

Movement of perceived target in the opposite direction indicates

A

Esophoria

89
Q

When movement is perceived rather than real, psychologist refer to it as

A

Phi movement

90
Q

Maximum value of NPC

A

8cm

91
Q

Provides a convenient method of testing stereopsis at 6m

A

American Optical Vectographic Project-o-chart slide

92
Q

Illumination used for color vision testing

A

Macbeth illumination C-a lamp