prelim chap 7 and 8 Flashcards

1
Q

purpose of case history taking: (4)

A
  1. establish caring relationship w px, showing compassion, empathy and respect
  2. to gather information about chief complaint, visual function, ocular and systemic health, risk factors and lifestyle
  3. to begin the process of differential diagnosis
  4. to begin the process of px education
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

to identify gross abnormalities of the eye and adnexa

A

external observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

under ocular motility and binocular vision test (7 )

A

cover test
corneal reflex test
near point of convergence test
near point of accommodation
motility tests
tests of pupillary functions
tests of stereopsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

this test depends on retinal focus
done to all patients after case history taking

A

visual acuity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

decreases retinal blur and increases patient’s depth focus
if done, acuity will improve if there’s no ocular abnormalities

A

pinhole va test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

measures patient’s ability to change focus of lens in response to near stimulus

A

amplitude of accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

significant test for the assessment of macular cone and optic nerve function

A

color vision test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. assess the presence of magnitude of phoria or tropia (strabismus)
  2. assess presence or absence of motor fusion
A

cover test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

determine magnitude of the demand placed on a px’s fusional vergence system

A

cover test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

measure px’s fine depth perception through his ability to fuse stereoscopic targets

A

stereopsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

assess px’s flat fusion ability at distance and near
detect small unilateral central scotoma

A

worth 4 dot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

indicated when stereopsis is less that 40 seconds of arc
used for differential diagnosis of unilateral decreased VA

A

worth 4 dot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

determine patient’s convergence eyes while maintaining fusion

A

near poimt convergence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

determine positions of visual axes of 2 eyes under binocular conditions at near
used to identify strabismus when other more precise tests cannot be used

A

hirschberg and krimsky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

assess symmetry of binocular fixation by comparing the brightness of red-reflex in each eye
screen for the presence of refractive error

A

bruckner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

used to screen for strabismus, anisometropia, media opacity, posterior pole anomalies in young children

A

bruckner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

assess patient’s ability to perform conjugate eye movement’s

A

extraocular motility test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

assess afferent and efferent neurological pathway responsible for pupillary function

A

pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

screen for previously unnoted visual field defects
only for substantial field loss

A

screening for visual field / finger counting vf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

determine the distance in millimeters between the entrance pupils of two eyes for a given viewing distance

A

interpupillary distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

DPA diagnostic pharmaceutical agents

A
  1. topical anesthetics
  2. mydriatics
  3. cycloplegics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. used to anesthesized the cornea prior to tonometry gonioscopy
  2. reduce permeability or nerve cell membranes to sodium ions
A

topical anesthetics

23
Q

first anesthetic drug

A

cocaine

24
Q
  1. proparacaine: ophthaine, ophthetic, alcaine. 0.5%, agent of choice
  2. benoxinate: dorsacaine. 0.4%. contraindicated to cardiac, thyroid and allergies
  3. tetracaine: potocaine. 0.5%. causes CNS stimulation, convulsion and depression
A
25
Q

used to dilate the pupil prior to the use of: binocular indirect ophthalmoscopy, biomicroscopy involving the posterior segment

A

mydriatics

26
Q

classifications of mydriatics

A
  1. sympathomimetic agents: phenylephrine (neosynephrine) and hydroxyamphetamine (paradrine)
  2. antimuscarinic (atropine like) agents: cyclopentolate (cyclogyl), tropicamide (mydriacyl)
27
Q
  • objective and subjective refraction for px with latent hyperopia or ciliary spasm
A

cycloplegics

28
Q

sample of cycloplegics

A
  1. cyclopentolate
  2. atropine
  3. tropicamide
29
Q

risk of angle closure glaucoma upon instillation

cycloplegics- close angle by dilating pupil incress laxness of peripheral iris
mydriatics- tightening dilator of iris causing pupillary block

A
30
Q

methods of illumination slitlamp biomicroscopy

A
  1. direct
  2. indirect
  3. oscillation
  4. retroillumination
  5. sclerotic scatter
  6. specular reflection
31
Q

dandruff of the scalp, mild itching, contraindicated CL.

A

sebhorreic blepharitis:

32
Q

bacterial infection, more serious than seborrheic. lids are reddened, tiny ulcerated areas along lid margin, falling lashes. antibiotiv tx

A

ulcerative blepharitis:

33
Q

infection of lash follicle

A

stye/ hordeolum

34
Q

chronic granulomatous infection meibomian gland. no inflammation

A

chalazion

35
Q

found in skin of lids. benign/malignant.

A

neoplasm

36
Q

most common malignant tumor of lid
may erode orbit if not removed

A

basal cell carcinoma

37
Q

ocular fundus evaluate

A

optic nerve head
retinal vessels
macular area
fundus background
peripheral fundus

38
Q

inflammation of the optic nerve, elevation upto 3.00D

A

papillitis

39
Q

due to intracranial pressure elavation upto 9.00D

A

papilledema

40
Q

normal eye but appears elevated

A

pseudopapilledema

41
Q

arterovenous crossing- artery and vein cross, share the same outer layer (outer layer is called ?)

A

tunica adventitia

42
Q

caused by retinal pigment epithelium hyperplasia occurs in the form of patches of black pigment

A

hyperpigmentation

43
Q

gray indefinite borders

A

choroidal nevus

44
Q

forming a mass within the globe, are malignant tumors that would metastasize causing death

treatment is enucleation

A

choroidal melanoma

45
Q

located in the deeper layer of the retinal most common cause is rupture microaneurysm in diabetic retinopathy

A

hemorrhages

46
Q

small, first indication that anything is wrong is when they rupture

A

microaneurysm

47
Q

white, cottony appearing deposits in the retina, smaller that the optic disk

A

cotton-wool exudates

48
Q

yellowish, waxy appearing deposits in the retina resulting to retinal edema

A

hard exudates

49
Q

continuous belt of tight intercellular junctions

A

zonula occludens

50
Q

purpose of photodocumentation

A
  1. provide the practitioner with a permanent record of the appearance of a lesion or other abnormalities
  2. important for lesions that are apt to progress or benign tumors that might become malignant
  3. allows practitioner to send photographs to ophthal, derma, etc
  4. for patient education
51
Q

central visual field testing

A

kinetic perimetry
tangent screen test
static perimetry

52
Q

Types of sympathomimetic drugs

A

phenylephrine (neosynephrine)
hydroxyamphetamine (paradrine)

53
Q

Types of antimuscarinic agents:

A

cyclopentolate (cyclogyl
tropicamide (mydriacyl)

54
Q

dandruff removing shampoo treatment for seborrheic bleph

A

selenium sulfate