Pregestational Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Disorders that might cause complications during pregnancy

A

Pregestational Disorders

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2
Q

What components related to the heart is where a slight change of them might greatly affect the heart condition of a pregnant woman with heart disorders

A

Cardiac output, Heart rate, and blood volume

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3
Q

Cardiac dse complicates about how many percent of pregnancies

A

1%

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4
Q

Normal circulating blood volume

A

40-60%

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5
Q

Normal Cardiac output

A

25-50%

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6
Q

Normal cardiac rate

A

10-12%

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7
Q

What are the 2 types of congenital heart defects

A

Left and Right-sided heart failure

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8
Q

Damages heart muscle and heart valves

A

Congenital Heart Defects

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9
Q

What infection leads to injured heart or congenital heart defects

A

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections (GABS)

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10
Q

What does GABS do to heart tissue

A

Autoimmune reaction

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11
Q

Autoimmune reaction leads to what?

A

Permanent deformity of heart valves or chordae tendinae

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12
Q

What are the 3 conditions that might indicate a left-sided heart failure

A
  1. Mitral Insufficiency
  2. Mitral Valve Stenosis
  3. Aortic Coarctation
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13
Q

What condition is where blood builds up and is stuck at the left atrium

A

Mitral Insufficiency

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14
Q

What are the s/s of Mitral insufficiency?

A
  • Decreased cardiac output
  • pulmonary htn
  • decreased systemic BP
  • Pulmonary Edema
  • Decreased O2 sat
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15
Q

What causes Pulmonary HTN during Mitral insufficiency?

A

Increased pressure between left atrium and pulmonary vein

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16
Q

What happens to the body if there is decrease in systemic BP when the patient has mitral insufficiency

A

Increased HR
Peripheral vasoconstriction
Na and H2O retention

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17
Q

What decreases when there is a decrease in systemic BP when the patient has mitral insufficiency

A

Decrease in placental profusion

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18
Q

What happens to the body if there is pulmonary edema when the patient has mitral insufficiency

A

Dyspnea
productive cough
orthopnea
paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

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19
Q

Why is there productive cough if the patient is suffering from pulmonary edema

A

The body’s response in trying to expel fluid build-up in the lungs

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20
Q

Can’t breathe properly in supine position

A

Orthopnea

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21
Q

DOB at night

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea

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22
Q

Decreased O2 sat > _______________>______________________________________

A

Increased RR
Increased fatigue, weakness, dizziness

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23
Q

Narrowing of mitral valve

A

Mitral valve stenosis

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24
Q

What secondary problem can occur due to the difficulty of blood to leave the left atrium?

A

Thrombus formation

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25
Q

Mitral valve stenosis is a common complication of_____

A

Rheumatic heart dse

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25
Q

Blood in the phlegm

A

hemoptysis

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26
Q

Abnormal heart rhythm

A

Atrial fibrillation

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27
Q

infection on the lining of the heart

A

Endocarditis

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28
Q

What in general should be given to patients with MVS?

A

Antibiotics

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29
Q

What are the management of MVS?

A

Assess for hypothyroidism
Sodium restriction
Strict follow up for EKG to monitor atrial and ventricular size

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30
Q

What are ways to address atrial fibrillation and relax the heart

A

Give Verapamil
Do Cardioversion
Give Digitalis, beta-blockers, and anticoagulant

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31
Q

This procedure gives shock to the patient using a defibrillator in order to normalize the heart

A

Cardioversion

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32
Q

What Anticoagulants are give the mothers with atrial fibrillation

A

Heparin

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33
Q

This condition of the Left-sided heart failure causes circulation difficulty, dissection of the aorta from HBP

A

Aortic coarctation

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34
Q

Management of aortic coarctation

A

Give:
Antihypertensives
Diuretics
Betablockers

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35
Q

What are the 5 maternal and fetal effects of Aortic coarctation

A

Increase risk for spontaneous miscarriage
Preterm labor
IUGR
Poor placental perfusion
maternal and fetal death

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36
Q

IUGR?

A

Intrauterine Growth Retardation

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37
Q

LSHF Management

A

Serial UTZ
Balloon angioplasty
Anticoagulant

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38
Q

What weeks does the serial UTZ happen in managing LSHF

A

30-32 weeks

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39
Q

What conditions indicate RSHF

A
  1. pulmonary valve stenosis
  2. Atrial septal defect
  3. Ventral septal defect
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40
Q

In the management of mitral valve stenosis, what is the Digoxin levels at a therapeutic level and how many hours after the last dose

A

0.5 - 2 mg/mL
8 hours

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41
Q

What is considered as hypokalemia

A

<3.5 mEq/L

42
Q

What should you monitor in the management of mitral valve stenosis

A

Digoxin levels
Hypokalemia
Strict monitoring of parenteral and oral fluid intake
Digitalis toxicity

43
Q

What is the ideal potassium levels

A

3.5-5 mEq/L

44
Q

What is Peak and Trough

A

Peak: extracting blood 30 mins to 1 hour after giving the medication
Trough: Extracting blood 30 mins before giving medication

45
Q

What are the s/s of Digitalis toxicity

A

Bradycardia
Blurring vision
n/v
anorexia

46
Q

What is the management of digitalis toxicity

A

decrease activity and bed rest
intake of potassium-rich foods

47
Q

Hypertrophy of muscle tissue of the heart walls and septum

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

48
Q

What does Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy might lead to

A

small chambers and causing impaired filling

49
Q

What should you assess for in a hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Angina
External Dyspnea
Dizziness
Syncope

50
Q

This is a dse of the heart with no known cause before a delivery of baby

A

Idiopathic peripartum cardiomyopathy

51
Q

What are pharmacologic regimens given to patients with IPC

A

Diuretics
Potassium Correction
Anticoagulants
Digitalis

52
Q

What to do if a patient with IPC has severe CHF

A

Low sodium
Fluid restriction

53
Q

This occurs when the output of the right ventricle is less than the blood volume received by the right atrium from the vena cava

A

Right-Sided Heart Failure

54
Q

S/s of RSHF (6)

A
  • Congestion of systemic venous circulation and decreased cardiac output
  • Decreased BP
  • High pressure on the vena cava
  • Jugular venous distention
  • Liver and spleen enlargement
  • Peripheral Edema
55
Q

What is the result of increased portal circulation from the abdominal organs

A

Jugular vein distention

56
Q

What are the 2 s/s of liver and spleen enlargement

A

dyspnea and pain ascites

57
Q

This is the accumulation of water in the abdomen

58
Q

This dse results from an infxn which starts with a sore throat and leads to scarring of one or more heart valves

A

Rheumatic Heart Dse

59
Q

What bacteria is causing Rheumatic Heart dse

A

Streptococci

60
Q

What is rheumatic heart dse also known as

A

rheumatic fever

61
Q

What causes the obstruction to blood flow in the rheumatic heart dse

A

Stiffness of valves making them unable to open and close normally

62
Q

What infection causes rheumatic heart dse

A

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection

63
Q

What are the lab tests for RHD

A
  1. Throat cultures
  2. Rapid antigen
  3. Anti-streptococcal antibodies
64
Q

What is culture and sensitivity

A

Culture: Check what microorganism that causes the infection
Sensitivity: detect what antibiotic is effective in killing the certain microorganism

65
Q

What are the 3 NY association classification of heart dse

A

Class I: Asymptomatic at normal levels of activity
Class II: Symptomatic with increased activity
Class III: Symptomatic with ordinary activity
Class IV: Symptomatic at rest

66
Q

What are the 3 NY association classification of heart dse

A

Class I: Asymptomatic at normal levels of activity
Class II: Symptomatic with increased activity
Class III: Sypmtomatic with ordinary activity
Class IV: Symptomatic with ordinary activity

67
Q

The main problem of this dse is the inability to control glucose level

A

Diabetes mellitus

68
Q

When the mother has DM, she has 5 times more chances in developing what?

A

Cardiac Myopathy

69
Q

This is an endocrine d/o of carb metabolism, results from inadequate production of use of insulin

70
Q

What are the 3 types of DM

A

Type 1 DM
Type 2 DM
Gestational DM

71
Q

What is the other term for T1DM

A

Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus

72
Q

This DM results from the body’s failure to produce insulin and presently requires the person to inject insulin

73
Q

T1DM timing of onset

A

Usually during childhood or adolescence

74
Q

Risk factors of T1DM:
___________ susceptibility combined with an ______________________, such as ______________________

A

genetic
environmental trigger
viral infection

75
Q

Pathophysiology of T1DM:
Autoimmune destruction of __________, resulting in a complete lack of _________

A

B cells
insulin

76
Q

What cells are responsible in making insulin

77
Q

Long term effect of T1DM

A

Vascular dse

78
Q

Vascular dse from T1DM might cause_____________________

A

kidney failure, blindness, stroke, and death

79
Q

What races have a high risk of developing T1DM

A

Asian, Hispanics, Black Americans

80
Q

This type of DM is where the body can’t use insulin that is produced

81
Q

Results from insulin resistance, a condition in which B cells fail to use insulin properly, sometimes combines with an absolute insulin deficiency

82
Q

What is the timing onset of T2DM

A

Typically middle age or older, but increasingly seen at a younger age

83
Q

What are the risk factors of T2DM

A

Genetic predisposition
Obesity
Age
Sedentary lifestyle
Previous gestational diabetes

84
Q

What is the pathophysiology of T2DM

A

Insulin resistance initially, usually combined with increasingly reduced insulin secretions

85
Q

When can you diagnose a patient with GDM

A

If she has elevated BGL after 20 weeks of gestation

86
Q

What is the timing of onset of GDM

A

During pregnancy (2nd or 3rd trimester)

87
Q

What are the risk factors of GDM

A

Obesity
age
sedentary lifestyle
previous GDM

88
Q

What are the long term effects of GDM to the mother

A

T2DM and CVD

89
Q

What are the long term effects of GDM for the child

A

Obesity and T2DM

90
Q

How many weeks to decide whether or not the mother has T2DM d/t GDM

A

After 6 wks after delivery

91
Q

What is considered as high BGL in a FBS

92
Q

How many hours is needed in fasting

A

8-12 hours

93
Q

What is considered high BGL in a random plasma glucose?

A

> or = 200 mg/dL

94
Q

What is considered high BGL in 2-hour plasma glucose

95
Q

What are the 3 tests used to check the BGL of a patient

A

Fasting Blood sugar test
Random plasma glucose test
2-hour plasma glucose test

96
Q

What is the flow chart of increase of BGL in a normal preganancy

A
  1. Increase placental hormones
  2. Diabetic effect
  3. Increase glucose supply to fetus
  4. Episodes of hyperglycemia
  5. pancreatic response
97
Q

What are the two pancreatic responses and what are its effects

A
  1. Insufficient insulin production = hyperglycemia
  2. Increased insulin production = blood glucose homeostasis
98
Q

What is IDM

A

Infant of Diabetic mother

99
Q

What is macrosomia

A

Large baby

100
Q

This is the frequent urination of the fetus with sugar content

A

Glycosuria polyuria

101
Q

What is the infection of genitals

A

monilial infection

102
Q

What are the 3 P’s of DM

A

Polyuria
Polyfagia
Polydypsia