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PREDICTOR EXAM PT.2 > PREDICTOR CERTIFICATION EXAM pt.2 > Flashcards

PREDICTOR CERTIFICATION EXAM pt.2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which cranial nerve carries information related to equilibrium to the cerebral cortex?

a.
fifth (V)

b.
third (III)

c.
eighth (VIII)

d.
tenth (X)

A

c.
eighth (VIII)

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2
Q

In which of the following procedures would the surgical technologist need to have a spreader and a hook ready for use?

a.
tonsillectomy

b.
septoplasty

c.
myringotomy

d.
tracheotomy

A

d.
tracheotomy

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3
Q

What is the term for creating a surgical opening into the tympanic membrane?

a.
myringotomy

b.
septoplasty

c.
antrostomy

d.
turbinectomy

A

a.
myringotomy

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4
Q

Which part of the tympanic membrane is fibrous, largest, and where drainage tubes are inserted?

a.
umbo

b.
annulus

c.
pars flaccida

d.
pars tensa

A

d.
pars tensa

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5
Q

Powered equipment such as ear drills and irrigation and aspiration units should always be tested prior to use to prevent delay or possible patient injury.

True
False

A

True

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6
Q

What is the term that describes the side of teeth closest to the cheek?

a.
buccal

b.
lingual

c.
labial

d.
alveolar

A

a.
buccal

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7
Q

Coral would be classified as what type of graft material?

a.
homograft

b.
autograft

c.
xenograft

d.
synthetic

A

c.
xenograft

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8
Q

Odontectomy procedures are given a wound classification of Class II.

True
False

A

True

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9
Q

Tapping of bone is done in fixation procedures to reduce:

a.
size of fixation plate used

b.
need to strip periosteum first

c.
number of screws needed

d.
torque pressure on screws

A

d.
torque pressure on screws

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10
Q

Irrigation and what other item is used anytime the dental drill is used during odontectomy?

a.
ESU pencil

b.
Ray-Tec 4 x 4

c.
suction

d.
bone wax

A

c.
suction

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11
Q

Which glands are found only in the external genitalia and axillae?

a.
merocrine

b.
ceruminous

c.
sebaceous

d.
apocrine

A

d.
apocrine

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12
Q

What does a mesh graft device do?

a.
It slices a split thickness of donor skin.

b.
It attaches a skin graft to the donor site.

c.
It expands the size of the skin graft.

d.
It smoothes the skin graft to prevent bunching up

A

c.
It expands the size of the skin graft.

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13
Q

Approximately how many muscles and their tendons control movement of the wrist, hand, and fingers?

a.
50

b.
40

c.
20

d.
30

A

b.
40

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14
Q

Breast ptosis is surgically corrected by:

a.
mastopexy

b.
mentoplasty

c.
malar implants

d.
marsupialization

A

a.
mastopexy

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15
Q

“Cupid’s bow” is reconstructed in which of the following procedures?

a.
syndactyly release

b.
malar implants

c.
cleft lip repair

d.
nipple recreation

A

c.
cleft lip repair

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16
Q

The anatomical structures excised during radical cystectomy are different between male and female patients.

True
False

A

True

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17
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of pubovaginal or suburethral sling?

a.
radiopaque vaginal packing

b.
allograft fascia lata

c.
autograft fascia lata

d.
polypropylene mesh tape

A

a.
radiopaque vaginal packing

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18
Q

What is the term for an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid around the testis contained within the tunica vaginalis?

a.
omphalocele

b.
cystocele

c.
rectocele

d.
hydrocele

A

d.
hydrocele

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19
Q

Cystoscopy and ureteroscopy procedures are performed in which position?

a.
Trendelenburg

b.
supine

c.
low-lithotomy

d.
lateral

A

c.
low-lithotomy

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20
Q

Which of the following is given IV after the donor kidney is removed to reverse the heparinization?

a.
thrombin

b.
Ringer’s lactate

c.
furosemide

d.
protamine sulfate

A

d.
protamine sulfate

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21
Q

Procedures for female urinary incontinence may be performed by gynecologists, urologists, or urogynocologists.

True
False

A

True

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22
Q

Which bone is involved in a Colles’ fracture?

a.
ulna

b.
humerus

c.
radius

d.
scapula

A

c.
radius

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23
Q

All of the following are indications for total shoulder arthroplasty EXCEPT:

a.
moderate impingement syndrome

b.
humeral shaft fracture

c.
osteonecrosis of humeral head

d.
chronic arthritis pain

A

a.
moderate impingement syndrome

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24
Q

How many stages are involved in normal osteogenesis?

a.
two

b.
three

c.
five

d.
eight

A

c.
five

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25
Q

What is polymethyl methycrylate used for in orthopedic procedures?

a.
cast immobilization

b.
external fixation

c.
bone cement

d.
antibiotic irrigation

A

c.
bone cement

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26
Q

What is the name of the deep, round fossa of the hip joint?

a.
trochanter

b.
acetabulum

c.
acromium

d.
tuberosity

A

b.
acetabulum

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27
Q

Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by which other name because of their shapes?

a.
alligator

b.
duck bill

c.
cobra

d.
rat tooth

A

c.
cobra

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28
Q

What is the thickest part of the heart?

a.
endocardium

b.
epicardium

c.
pericardium

d.
myocardium

A

d.
myocardium

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29
Q

What is the term for a collapsed lung?

a.
pneumonitis

b.
decortication

c.
atelectasis

d.
emphysema

A

c.
atelectasis

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30
Q

Prior to the closure of a lobectomy procedure, the anesthesia provider performs a Valsalva maneuver to check for:

a.
functionality of the diaphragm

b.
air leakage from bronchial closure

c.
bleeding from the dissection bed

d.
perfusion of the unaffected lobes

A

b.
air leakage from bronchial closure

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31
Q

Following lung transplantation, the surgeon will perform which procedure to aspirate secretions and check for leaks?

a.
video-assisted thoracoscopy

b.
laryngoscopy

c.
mediastinoscopy

d.
bronchoscopy

A

d.
bronchoscopy

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32
Q

Where is the apex of the heart located within the mediastinum?

a.
superiorly on the right side

b.
inferiorly on the right side

c.
inferiorly on the left side

d.
superiorly on the left side

A

c.
inferiorly on the left side

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33
Q

Where is the insertion point for the mediastinoscope?

a.
oropharynx

b.
subxiphoid

c.
umbilicus

d.
suprasternal notch

A

d.
suprasternal notch

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34
Q

Where is the balloon dilator inserted percutaneously in coronary artery angioplasty?

a.
subclavian artery

b.
radial artery

c.
femoral artery

d.
carotid artery

A

c.
femoral artery

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35
Q

What is the name of the frequently used balloon embolectomy catheter?

a.
Robinson

b.
Foley

c.
Fogarty

d.
Groshong

A

c.
Fogarty

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36
Q

Which diagnostic study is considered the gold standard for evaluation of vascular disease?

a.
angiography

b.
PET scan

c.
CT scan

d.
radiography

A

a.
angiography

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37
Q

How far beyond the atherosclerotic lesion should a balloon in angioplasty reach?

a.
1-2 mm

b.
1-2 cm

c.
3-5 mm

d.
3-5 cm

A

b.
1-2 cm

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38
Q

The CORRECT sequence of steps for an arteriotomy for embolectomy or thrombectomy is:

a.
#12 blade, 14 g angiocath insertion, removal of stylet, insertion of Fogarty catheter

b.
#11 blade, Potts-Smith scissors, insertion of Fogarty catheter

c.
#15 blade, Metzenbaum scissors, Yankauer suction, insertion of Fogarty catheter

d.
#10 blade, Metzenbaum scissors, insertion of Fogarty catheter

A

b.
#11 blade, Potts-Smith scissors, insertion of Fogarty cathete

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39
Q

Javid and Argyle are examples of which type of device used in select vascular procedures?

a.
guidewires

b.
shunts

c.
catheters

d.
peel-away sheaths

A

b.
shunts

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40
Q

Which position is usually used for microdecompression endoscopic diskectomy?

a.
lithotomy

b.
lateral

c.
supine

d.
prone

A

b.
lateral

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41
Q

What is the name of the set of instruments used for anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion that includes retractors, spreaders, bone dowel cutters, impactors, and others?

a.
Greenburg

b.
Yasargil

c.
Cloward

d.
Mayfield

A

c.
Cloward

42
Q

The skull flap can be reattached to the cranium by small titanium plates and screws or with stainless steel wire.

True
False

A

True

43
Q

What is another name for the first cervical vertebra (C-1)?

a.
cauda equine

b.
odontoid

c.
axis

d.
atlas

A

d.
atlas

44
Q

Which of the following is used for scalp hemostasis and resembles a Crile or Kelly hemostat except the curve is to the side?

a.
Leksell

b.
Raney

c.
Dandy

d.
Cushing

A

c.
Dandy

45
Q

Which facial sinus is used for surgical approach to a pituitary adenoma rather than traditional craniotomy?

a.
sphenoid

b.
frontal

c.
ethmoid

d.
maxillary

A

a.
sphenoid

46
Q

The plantar region is:

a.
located in the upper extremities.

b.
the bottom of the foot.

c.
proximal to the knee.

d.
the groin

A

b.
the bottom of the foot.

47
Q

The head is located ___________ to the chest.

a.
anterior

b.
inferior

c.
deep

d.
superior

A

d.
superior

48
Q

With which word is lower back pain associated?

a.
Flank

b.
Inguinal

c.
Lumbar

d.
Popliteal

A

c.
Lumbar

49
Q

An electrolyte:

a.
dissociates into ions.

b.
yields only cations.

c.
always yields H+ and lowers pH.

d.
always removes H+ and increases pH

A

a.
dissociates into ions.

50
Q

An atom has 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron. What will convert this atom to a cation?

a.
Add 1 neutron.

b.
Add 1 proton.

c.
Lose 1 electron.

d.
Add 1 proton, 2 neutrons, and 1 electron

A

c.
Lose 1 electron

51
Q

Which of the following is (are) found on the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

a.
Ribosomes

b.
Cilia

c.
Lysosomes

d.
DNA

A

a.
Ribosomes

52
Q

A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A contains a 20% NaCl solution while compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The membrane is permeable to both water and Na+ and Cl−. Initially,

a.
Na+ and Cl− diffuse from compartment B to compartment A.

b.
water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A.

c.
Na+ and Cl−diffuse from compartment A to compartment B.

d.
Na+ diffuses from compartment A to compartment B and Cl− diffuses from compartment B to compartment A.

A

a.
Na+ and Cl− diffuse from compartment B to compartment A.

53
Q

Lactic acidosis:

a.
is caused only by rapid and incomplete catabolism of fatty acids.

b.
is accompanied by the formation of large amounts of ATP.

c.
develops in response to prolonged anaerobic catabolism.

d.
is caused only by extreme exercise characterized by muscle soreness.

A

c.
develops in response to prolonged anaerobic catabolism.

54
Q

Glycolysis ends with the production of:

a.
carbon dioxide and water.

b.
lactic acid.

c.
glucose.

d.
enzymes of the electron transport chain

A

b.
lactic acid.

55
Q

Which word best characterizes Typhoid Mary?

a.
Immune

b.
Symptomatic

c.
Carrier

d.
Fomite

A

c.
Carrier

56
Q

Identify the portal of exit and mechanism for most diseases that are spread by droplet infection.

a.
Urinary system by contaminated urine

b.
Respiratory system by coughing or sneezing

c.
Digestive system through contaminated feces

d.
Central nervous system through contaminated cerebrospinal fluid

A

b.
Respiratory system by coughing or sneezing

57
Q

Which of the following is most descriptive of tendons, ligaments, fascia, and capsules?

a.
Designed for rapid diffusion of O2 and CO2

b.
Hormone secreting

c.
Tough, dense, fibrous, connective

d.
Cells form large sheets resembling floor tiles

A

c.
Tough, dense, fibrous, connective

58
Q

Simple squamous, pseudostratified, simple cuboidal, and stratified squamous:

a.
form tendons and connect muscle to bone.

b.
form ligaments and connect bone to bone.

c.
form continuous sheets and function in secretion, transport, and protection.

d.
are types of nervous tissue.

A

c.
form continuous sheets and function in secretion, transport, and protection.

59
Q

Freckles and moles are caused by an accumulation of:

a.
bilirubin.

b.
vernix caseosa.

c.
melanin.

d.
keratin.

A

c.
melanin.

60
Q

The stratum germinativum and the stratum corneum are layers of the:

a.
epidermis.

b.
hypodermis.

c.
subcutaneous tissue.

d.
dermis.

A

a.
epidermis

61
Q

Which of the following describes both the hallux and pollex?

a.
Hand

b.
Metacarpal

c.
Phalanges

d.
Ball and socket

A

c.
Phalanges

62
Q

Which of the following is most descriptive of the calcaneus?

a.
Pollex

b.
Phalange

c.
Hand

d.
Tarsal bone

A

d.
Tarsal bone

63
Q

An aponeurosis:

a.
is flat, sheetlike fascia.

b.
is composed of connective tissue.

c.
forms a site of attachment for skeletal muscle.

d.
all is applicable

A

d.
all is applicable

64
Q

Which of the following does not refer to the thin filament?

a.
Myosin binding site

b.
Troponin

c.
Tropomyosin

d.
Myosin

A

d.
Myosin

65
Q

Which of the following best describes the tentorium?

a.
Extension of the dura mater

b.
Lining of the cerebral ventricles and central canal

c.
Another name for the arachnoid mater

d.
Another name for the corpus callosu

A

a.
Extension of the dura mater

66
Q

What is the name of the motor speech area located in the frontal lobe?

a.
The brain stem

b.
The pons

c.
Broca’s area

d.
The diencephalon

A

c.
Broca’s area

67
Q

The Babinski reflex is elicited by:

a.
shining light into the eyes.

b.
tapping the patellar tendon.

c.
tapping the Achilles tendon.

d.
stroking the sole of the foot.

A

d.
stroking the sole of the foot.

68
Q

The tenth cranial nerve, the _____ nerve, “wanders” outside the head area and innervates the heart and gastrointestinal systems.

a.
trigeminal

b.
vagus

c.
olfactory

d.
spinal accessory

A

b.
vagus

69
Q

Which of the following is least associated with monoamine oxidase (MAO)?

a.
Enzyme that degrades norepinephrine

b.
Found within all cholinergic nerve terminals

c.
Associated with sympathetic activity

d.
Associated with adrenergic fibers

A

b.
Found within all cholinergic nerve terminals

70
Q

Which of the following is least related to the sympathetic nervous system?

a.
Vagomimetic effect

b.
Adrenergic fibers

c.
Alpha and beta receptors

d.
Paravertebral ganglia

A

a.
Vagomimetic effect

71
Q

Refracted light should focus on the:

a.
lens.

b.
optic chiasm.

c.
optic disc.

d.
retina.

A

d.
retina.

72
Q

Which of the following is most related to the sense of hearing?

a.
Semicircular canals

b.
First cranial nerve

c.
Organ of Corti

d.
Vestibular nerve

A

c.
Organ of Corti

73
Q

What two effects does PTH exert on the kidneys?

a.
Blocks sodium reabsorption and increases the excretion of water.

b.
Increases calcium reabsorption and increases the excretion of phosphate in the urine.

c.
Decreases the reabsorption of both calcium and phosphate.

d.
Increases the excretion of H+ and the excretion of bicarbonate.

A

b.
Increases calcium reabsorption and increases the excretion of phosphate in the urine.

74
Q

Which of the following steroids is an androgen?

a.
Progesterone

b.
Testosterone

c.
Estrogen

d.
Aldosterone

A

b.
Testosterone

75
Q

Which group is incorrect?

a.
Steps in hemostasis: blood vessel spasm, platelet plug, coagulation

b.
Antigens: A, B, Rh factor

c.
Blood cells: fibrinogen, albumin, globulins

d.
Types of anemia: iron deficiency, pernicious, sickle cel

A

c.
Blood cells: fibrinogen, albumin, globulins

76
Q

The word icterus refers to:

a.
infection.

b.
bleeding.

c.
jaundice.

d.
fever.

A

c.
jaundice.

77
Q

What is the significance of elevated plasma levels of AST, CPK, and LDH?

a.
Myocardial damage as in myocardial infarction

b.
A normal myocardial response to exercise

c.
An increase in coronary blood flow

d.
Early-onset exertional angina

A

a.
Myocardial damage as in myocardial infarction

78
Q

Which of the following is true of the myocardium?

a.
Is nourished by the coronary arteries.

b.
Contracts in response to electrical signals.

c.
Is thicker in the left ventricle than in the right ventricle.

d.
All are correct.

A

d.
All are correct.

79
Q

Which of the following is most likely to increase stroke volume?

a.
A (+) inotropic drug

b.
A vagolytic drug

c.
A (−) chronotropic drug

d.
A beta1-adrenergic blocker

A

a.
A (+) inotropic drug

80
Q

Atropine, a muscarinic blocker,

a.
increases heart rate.

b.
causes bradycardia.

c.
is also classified as sympathomimetic.

d.
is vagomimetic

A

a.
increases heart rate.

81
Q

Which artery is most often used to evaluate the pulse?

a.
Carotid

b.
Brachial

c.
Femoral

d.
Radial

A

d.
Radial

82
Q

Which of the following should be colored blue?

a.
Umbilical vein

b.
Jugulars

c.
Celiac trunk

d.
Pulmonary veins

A

b.
Jugulars

83
Q

A patient has a heart rate of 128 beats/min, a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, and an ejection fraction of 35%. The pulse pressure is:

a.
65%.

b.
30 mm Hg.

c.
150 mm Hg.

d.
unknown from the data

A

b.
30 mm Hg

84
Q

Which of the following elevates blood pressure?

a.
Diuretics

b.
Vasodilators

c.
Vasopressors

d.
Antihypertensive drugs

A

c.
Vasopressor

85
Q

What structure is concerned with the processing and maturation of T lymphocytes?

a.
Medulla oblongata

b.
Thymus gland

c.
Coronary sinus

d.
Pericardium

A

b.
Thymus gland

86
Q

Which of the following is true about lymph? It is:

a.
absorbed by lymphatic capillaries from the interstitium.

b.
filtered by the lymphatic capillaries into the interstitium.

c.
secreted by the subclavian veins into the large lymphatic ducts.

d.
synthesized and stored within the lymph nodes

A

a.
absorbed by lymphatic capillaries from the interstitium.

87
Q

Which of the following best describes an abscess?

a.
Blood-free serous fluid

b.
Walled-off area of dead cells and their secretions

c.
A systemic infection

d.
Spread ofWhich of the following is not considered to be a cause of secondary immunodeficiency disorder?
infected cells to the brain

A

b.
Walled-off area of dead cells and their secretions

88
Q

Which of the following is not considered to be a cause of secondary immunodeficiency disorder?

a.
Stress

b.
Drug-induced immune deficiency

c.
Radiation therapy

d.
Elevated CD4+ T-cell count

A

d.
Elevated CD4+ T-cell count

89
Q

The respiratory tract:

a.
includes the mouth, pharynx, trachea, and esophagus.

b.
contains conductance, resistance, and exchange structures.

c.
is lined with serous pleural membranes and cilia.

d.
begins with the nose and mouth and ends at the bronchioles

A

b.
contains conductance, resistance, and exchange structures.

90
Q

Surfactants are found within the:

a.
pulmonary capillaries.

b.
trachea.

c.
alveoli.

d.
intrapleural space

A

c.
alveoli.

91
Q

Which flap of tissue prevents food and water from entering the respiratory passages?

.
Appendix

b.
Uvula

c.
Palatine tonsils

d.
Epiglottis

A

d.
Epiglottis

92
Q

The stomach mixes and mashes a bolus of food that is called:

a.
feces.

b.
flatus.

c.
chyle.

d.
chyme.

A

d.
chyme.

93
Q

Low levels of oxygen stimulate the kidneys to secrete which hormone?

a.
Renin

b.
Aldosterone

c.
Erythropoietin

d.
Converting enzyme

A

c.
Erythropoietin

94
Q

Renin activates:

a.
aldosterone.

b.
converting enzyme.

c.
angiotensinogen.

d.
angiotensin II.

A

c.
angiotensinogen.

95
Q

Which hormone is also called interstitial cell–stimulating hormone and stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone?

a.
FSH

b.
Estrogen

c.
Luteinizing hormone

d.
Chorionic gonadotropin

A

c.
Luteinizing hormon

96
Q

What is the male copulatory organ called?

a.
Penis

b.
Vas deferens

c.
Prostate gland

d.
Testes

A

a.
Penis

97
Q

Which of the following is most associated with organogenesis?

a.
Embryonic period

b.
Implantation

c.
Third trimester

d.
Neonatal period

A

a.
Embryonic period

98
Q

Which of the following is true of parturition?

a.
The fetus becomes a neonate.

b.
Refers to the birth process.

c.
Can only occur after 36 weeks of pregnancy.

d.
Both The fetus becomes a neonate and Refers to the birth process.

A

d.
Both The fetus becomes a neonate and Refers to the birth process.

99
Q

A patient with pulmonary edema is receiving furosemide (Lasix), a kaliuretic diuretic. He has lost 6.6 lb over a 48-hour period. Which of the following statements is true?

a.
He is probably hyperkalemic secondary to the diuretic therapy.

b.
He has lost 12 L of water.

c.
His skin is “tenting.”

d.
He has lost 3 L of water.

A

d.
He has lost 3 L of water.

100
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of acidosis?

a.
pH of 7.55

b.
A decrease in the concentration of hydrogen ion in the blood

c.
Urinary excretion of bicarbonate

d.
pH less than 7.35

A

d.
pH less than 7.35

PREDICTOR EXAM PT.2 (1 decks)

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