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PREDICTOR EXAM PT.1 > PREDICTOR CERTIFICATION EXAM 1 > Flashcards

PREDICTOR CERTIFICATION EXAM 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following patient care items would be classified as noncritical?

a.
hypodermic needles

b.
colonoscopes

c.
pulse oximeters

d.
laryngoscopes

A

c.
pulse oximeters

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2
Q

During manual cleaning of surgical instruments, what type of solution should be used?

a.
cold sterile water and enzymatic solution with low pH

b.
hot water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with high pH

c.
cold water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with high pH

d.
lukewarm water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with neutral pH

A

d.
lukewarm water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with neutral pH

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3
Q

Which of the following statements regarding peracetic acid sterilized items is CORRECT?

a.
Items must be wrapped with Tyvek wrappers instead of cellulose-based wrappers.

b.
Cassettes are not sealed, due to liquid immersion during the process, so they cannot be stored.

c.
Aeration times will add hours to the total sterilization cycle time.

d.
Paper filters in the top lid and bottom of container must be changed for each cycle

A

b.
Cassettes are not sealed, due to liquid immersion during the process, so they cannot be stored.

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4
Q

Before opening any sterilely packaged item, what is MOST important to verify about the package?

a.
internal indicator/integrator

b.
integrity of package

c.
sterilization cycle number

d.
date sterilized

A

b.
integrity of package

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5
Q

What is the common name for the high-level disinfectant sodium hypochlorite?

a.
ammonia

b.
vinegar

c.
bleach

d.
peroxid

A

c.
bleach

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6
Q

Which of the following would be appropriate for use on animate surfaces?

a.
antiseptic

b.
sterilant

c.
disinfectant

d.
decontaminant

A

a.
antiseptic

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7
Q

Which of the following surgical team members would be primarily responsible for maintaining the patient’s operative record and transporting the patient to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU)?

a.
circulating RN

b.
surgical technologist

c.
surgeon

d.
anesthesia provider

A

a.
circulating RN

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8
Q

Which term describes the surgical technologist’s foundational commitment to professional honesty, confidentiality, fair treatment, cost containment, and attention to the highest level of surgical patient care?

a.
policy and procedure

b.
aseptic principles

c.
job description

d.
surgical conscience

A

d.
surgical conscience

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9
Q

Which term describes the relationship between the CST and the patient or the patient’s family?

a.
professional

b.
social

c.
therapeutic

d.
medica

A

c.
therapeutic

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10
Q

Which of the following roles is defined by the American College of Surgeons (ACS) as providing aid in exposure, hemostasis, and other technical functions that help the surgeon carry out a safe operation with optimal results for the patient?

a.
second scrub

b.
first scrub

c.
surgical first assistant

d.
assistant circulator

A

c.
surgical first assistant

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11
Q

What do conscientiousness, problem solving, skills competency, teamwork, and commitment to continuing education represent for a CST?

a.
religious philosophies

b.
professional traits

c.
legal doctrines

d.
college prerequisites

A

b.
professional traits

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12
Q

Which acronym represents an organization that serves as both an insurer and provider of medical services?

a.
HMO

b.
CEO

c.
FDA

d.
CDC

A

a.
HMO

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13
Q

If a patient suffered a burn as a result of improper application of the ESU dispersive (grounding) pad, the individual team member responsible may be found guilty in a lawsuit of which of the following?

a.
intentional tort

b.
negligence

c.
battery

d.
assault

A

b.
negligence

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14
Q

Which part of the patient’s medical record documentation would contain pre-op and post-op diagnoses, positioning, skin prep, start and stop times, counts, and dressings?

a.
intraoperative record

b.
anesthesia record

c.
advance directive

d.
informed consent

A

a.
intraoperative record

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15
Q

Which of the following terms describes a civil wrong that may be intentional or unintentional?

a.
liability

b.
complaint

c.
indictment

d.
tort

A

d.
tort

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16
Q

For which of the following processes are identification and reporting of unsafe conditions and hazards MOST critical?

a.
risk management

b.
informed consent

c.
advance directives

d.
unintentional torts

A

a.
risk management

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17
Q

Graduates of CAAHEP or ABHES programs are eligible to sit for the CST or CSFA examinations administered by:

a.
CSPS

b.
AST

c.
ARC/STSA

d.
NBSTSA

A

d.
NBSTSA

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18
Q

Which of the following is an example of an intentional tort pertaining to surgical patient care?

a.
A patient suffers a burn due to hot instruments.

b.
Restraints are used on a patient who threatens to leave.

c.
A tissue specimen is misplaced by a transporter.

d.
A retained surgical sponge is discovered in subsequent procedure.

A

b.
Restraints are used on a patient who threatens to leave.

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19
Q

Which of the following needs of the surgical patient is related to anatomy and physiology, genetics, and pathology?

a.
spiritual

b.
psychological

c.
physical

d.
social

A

c.
physical

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20
Q

Which of the following terms represents a positive physical and psychological state of a patient?

a.
distress

b.
euthanasia

c.
eustress

d.
dyspnea

A

c.
eustress

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21
Q

Which of the following religions typically prohibits its followers from receiving blood transfusions?

a.
Protestant

b.
Roman Catholic

c.
Mormon

d.
Jehovah’s Witnes

A

d.
Jehovah’s Witnes

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the “Five Stages of Grief”?

a.
acceptance

b.
bargaining

c.
denial

d.
repression

A

d.
repression

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23
Q

What does Sister Callista Roy define as “all conditions, circumstances, and influences that surround and affect the development and behavior of the person”?

a.
development

b.
environment

c.
adaptation

d.
synchronization

A

b.
environment

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24
Q

Denial, rationalization, regression, and repression are common forms of what type of mechanisms?

a.
diagnostic

b.
coping

c.
treatment

d.
physiological

A

b.
coping

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25
Q

The term golden hour refers to reduction of morbidity and mortality of which type of patient population?

a.
trauma victims

b.
organ transplant recipients

c.
premature neonates

d.
pregnant patient

A

a.
trauma victims

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26
Q

Conditions such as severe arthritis, contractures, and tremors are categorized under which type of challenge?

a.
physical

b.
developmental

c.
sensory

d.
cognitive

A

a.
physical

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27
Q

Which diagnosis could create a social stigma and possible overdramatization of exposure risk by health care workers?

a.
morbid obesity

b.
carcinoma of the lung

c.
human immunodeficiency virus

d.
type II diabetes mellitus

A

c.
human immunodeficiency virus

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28
Q

What is the MOST common type of shock seen in infants and children?

a.
hypovolemic

b.
cardiogenic

c.
septic

d.
hypervolemic

A

c.
septic

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29
Q

What other condition frequently suffered by obese patients and discovered intraoperatively may be treated surgically in conjunction with a bariatric procedure?

a.
degenerative osteoarthritis

b.
obstructive sleep apnea

c.
cholelithiasis

d.
non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

A

c.
cholelithiasis

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30
Q

Which broad category of routes of transmission of microorganisms includes food, water, and medical devices and equipment?

a.
droplet

b.
common vehicle

c.
vector-borne

d.
airborne

A

b.
common vehicle

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31
Q

Which of the following is the mnemonic used to remember the steps to take in the event of a surgical fire?

a.
RACE

b.
PASS

c.
PMMA

d.
RAST

A

a.
RACE

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32
Q

Equipment with the highest potential for serving as ignition sources in surgical fires include all of the following EXCEPT:

a.
laser fibers or beams

b.
electrosurgical units

c.
phacoemulsification probes

d.
fiber-optic light cables

A

c.
phacoemulsification probes

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33
Q

What are the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines for OR air exchanges per hour?

a.
20-25 with 90% filtered recirculated air

b.
10-15 with 90% filtered recirculated air

c.
10-15 with 20% fresh outside air

d.
20-25 with 20% fresh outside air

A

d.
20-25 with 20% fresh outside air

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34
Q

What distance from the impact site of a laser beam on tissue should the smoke evacuator be positioned to capture 98% of the plume?

a.
1 cm

b.
5 cm

c.
2 cm

d.
10 cm

A

a.
1 cm

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35
Q

Which governmental agency mandates that operating rooms have a biohazard exposure control plan and make personal protective equipment available for personnel at risk?

a.
OSHA

b.
NRC

c.
EPA

d.
FDA

A

a.
OSHA

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36
Q

The post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) was previously often referred to as:

a.
recovery

b.
isolation

c.
outpatient

d.
holding

A

a.
recover

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37
Q

What is the term for the precision of a laser beam and is based on the area exposed, the time activated, and the power setting?

a.
amplification

b.
coherence

c.
collimation

d.
fluence

A

d.
fluence

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38
Q

Which of the following terms is defined as the extent to which a machine, microscope, human, or robot can differentiate between two objects?

a.
degrees of rotation

b.
resolution

c.
binaural hearing

d.
telechi

A

b.
resolution

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39
Q

What term describes an item that enhances or allows for the flow of alternating or direct electrical current?

a.
transmitter

b.
insulator

c.
neutralizer

d.
conductor

A

d.
conductor

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40
Q

Which of the following lasers falls into the invisible part of the electromagnetic spectrum, is absorbed by cellular fluid, and is not dependent on tissue color?

a.
Ho:YAG

b.
argon

c.
CO2

d.
Nd:YAG

A

c.
CO2

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41
Q

The electromagnetic waves that create radio and television signals are measured in wave cycles per second termed:

a.
frequency

b.
resistance

c.
wattage

d.
voltag

A

a.
frequency

42
Q

Which generation of robots does NOT have any degree of artificial intelligence (AI) and requires consistent oversight?

a.
first

b.
fourth

c.
second

d.
third

A

a.
first

43
Q

What is the term for the process of lubricating stiffened stainless steel surgical instruments by immersion in a water-soluble solution?

a.
dunking

b.
milking

c.
greasing

d.
bathing

A

b.
milking

44
Q

Which type of packaging system has filters and removable locking devices?

a.
woven wrapped

b.
nonwoven wrapped

c.
rigid containers

d.
paper-plastic peel packs

A

c.
rigid containers

45
Q

Personnel in CSPD who must move instruments from the ethylene oxide sterilizer to an aeration room should do which of the following with the cart to reduce their exposure to vented gases?

a.
open a window

b.
pull it

c.
push it

d.
cover it with plastic

A

b.
pull it

46
Q

Where should the biological test pack be placed on the steam sterilization cart for the first run of the day?

a.
bottom rack, back of sterilizer, under the injection valve

b.
top rack, front of sterilizer, over the drain

c.
bottom rack, front of sterilizer, over the drain

d.
top rack, back of sterilizer, under the injection valve

A

c.
bottom rack, front of sterilizer, over the drain

47
Q

When a sterilely attired surgical technologist drapes an unsterile table, he or she opens the drape:

a.
toward sides and pulls drape down well below edge

b.
by shaking out folds first and laying it across table

c.
away from him- or herself first

d.
toward him- or herself first

A

d.
toward him- or herself first

48
Q

Why are items disinfected or sterilized in activated glutaraldehyde dried prior to submersion?

a.
Moisture will create a toxic chemical reaction with sterilant.

b.
Moisture will prevent sterilant from reaching all surfaces.

c.
Moisture will eventually dilute the concentration to ineffective levels.

d.
Moisture will cause air bubbles to form and prevent full contact

A

c.
Moisture will eventually dilute the concentration to ineffective levels.

49
Q

The treatment for DIC includes:

a.
transfusion of fresh frozen plasma

b.
all of the above

c.
cryoprecipitate

d.
heparin

A

b.
all of the above

50
Q

The Delayed, Immediate, Minimal, and Expectant (DIME) categories are used in:

a.
labor and delivery

b.
surgical scheduling

c.
disaster triage

d.
weapons grading

A

c.
disaster triage

51
Q

​The 20101 AHA Guidelines for CPR stress activation of the ERS and follow:

a.
​ABC (airway, breathing, chest compressions)

b.
​none of the above

c.
​CAB (chest compressions, airway, breathing)

d.
​BCA (breathing, chest compressions, airway)

A

c.
​CAB (chest compressions, airway, breathing)

52
Q

​Which of the following is a mild form of shock, due to the increase in blood flow to the skin, thus causing a reduction of blood flow to vital organs

a.
​heat cramps

b.
​heat exhaustion

c.
​hyperthermia

d.
​heat stroke

A

b.
​heat exhaustion

53
Q

The depth of compressions for adults should be:

a.
1 1/2 inches

b.
3 inches

c.
2 inches

d.
1 inch

A

c.
2 inches

54
Q

By what name is the International System of Units more commonly known?

a.
metric system

b.
quantitative system

c.
household system

d.
apothecary system

A

a.
metric system

55
Q

Which type of reaction occurs when a drug potentiates or enhances the effect of another substance?

a.
agonistic

b.
anaphylactic

c.
antagonistic

d.
additive

A

a.
agonistic

56
Q

What side effects after the use of the dissociative agent ketamine HCl make it contraindicated for use on adults?

a.
urinary incontinence

b.
morbid hallucinations

c.
hangover feeling

d.
vomiting and nausea

A

b.
morbid hallucinations

57
Q

In which anatomical organ does biotransformation of drugs most often take place?

a.
colon

b.
kidney

c.
brain

d.
liver

A

d.
liver

58
Q

What type of anesthesia nerve block involves injecting local anesthetics with Wydase around the optic nerves?

a.
caudal

b.
retrobulbar

c.
Bier

d.
epidural

A

b.
retrobulbar

59
Q

The thin, compressed sponges used during neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate neural structures are called:

a.
Kitners

b.
Cottonoids

c.
laps

d.
Ray-Tecs

A

b.
Cottonoids

60
Q

What is the term for the cut-in lines in the jaws or hemostatic clamps and tissue forceps?

a.
serrations

b.
suppressions

c.
secretions

d.
striations

A

a.
serrations

61
Q

Which type of surgical drape is designed to expose small anatomical structures such as the eyes and ears?

a.
aperture

b.
incise

c.
stockinette

d.
nonfenestrate

A

a.
aperture

62
Q

The surgical technologist (ST) and circulating RN verify a drug’s name, strength, expiration, and amount together; then the ST labels any container holding it; and states the drug name and strength aloud to the surgeon as it is being passed.

True
False

A

True

63
Q

Which type of surgical device provides a bloodless surgical field by way of extremity compression?

a.
suction system

b.
sequential compression device

c.
pneumatic tourniquet

d.
phaco-emulsifier

A

c.
pneumatic tournique

64
Q

What is the geometric shape usually achieved by the placement of the first layer of sterile surgical drapes?

a.
circle

b.
square

c.
triangle

d.
rectangle

A

b.
square

65
Q

Which device can be used sterilely by an ENT or neurosurgeon or unsterilely by an anesthesia provider to determine location, function, or conduction of certain anatomical structures?
a.
phaco-emulsifier

b.
cryotherapy unit

c.
bayonet ESU bipolar forceps

d.
nerve stimulator

A

d.
nerve stimulator

66
Q

Which needle has the cutting edge on the outside curvature of the needle body?

a.
reverse

b.
Keith straight

c.
conventional

d.
spatula

A

a.
reverse

67
Q

Avitene®, Gelfoam®, and Surgicel® are examples of mechanical methods of hemostasis.

True
False

A

False

68
Q

What kind of wound is a sacral decubitus ulcer?

a.
closed

b.
contusion

c.
clean

d.
chronic

A

d.
chronic

69
Q

If tissue is approximated too tightly, it can result in:

a.
granulation

b.
adhesions

c.
ischemia

d.
keloids

A

c.
ischemia

70
Q

Which wound classification would be assigned to a vaginal hysterectomy with anterior and posterior colporrhaphy?

a.
Class IV

b.
Class I

c.
Class II

d.
Class III

A

c.
Class II

71
Q

What is the primary reason bolsters are used with retention sutures?

a.
to prevent sutures from cutting into the skin

b.
to stabilize heavy dressings without use of tape

c.
to prevent dressings from touching the suture line

d.
to facilitate easy postop suture remova

A

a.
to prevent sutures from cutting into the skin

72
Q

Which position is routinely used for flexible colonoscopy procedures and may be performed on the patient’s stretcher?

a.
lithotomy

b.
Kraske

c.
Fowler’s

d.
Sims’

A

d.
Sims’

73
Q

In preparing a patient for surgery, which of the following should be removed to facilitate oxygen blood level assessment?

a.
dentures

b.
makeup

c.
hearing aids

d.
nail polish

A

d.
nail polish

74
Q

The purpose of the preoperative skin prep is to sterilize the patient’s skin to prevent surgical site infections.

True
False

A

False

75
Q

The main purpose of the surgical skin prep is to:

a.
sterilize the patient’s skin to prevent post-op surgical site infections

b.
remove all resident and transient flora from the planned incision site

c.
provide a visible area of paint where the incision will be made

d.
reduce the microbial count on the skin to an irreducible minimum

A

d.
reduce the microbial count on the skin to an irreducible minimum

76
Q

What is the proper way to open a small, sterilely wrapped item for delivery to the sterile field?

a.
Right flap is pulled and tucked into palm, left flap is pulled and tucked, top flap is pulled and opened toward self, and the bottom flap is opened away from self and secured before tossing onto field.

b.
First flap is pulled and opened away from self and tucked into palm, side flaps are pulled and tucked into palm, and last flap is pulled toward self and secured before tossing item onto field.

c.
Left flap is pulled and tucked into palm, right flap is pulled and tucked, top flap is pulled and opened away from self and tucked, and bottom flap is pulled toward self and secured before tossing item onto field.

d.
First flap is pulled and opened toward self, the side flaps are pulled open, and the last flap is pulled and opened away from self; then item is tossed onto field

A

b.
First flap is pulled and opened away from self and tucked into palm, side flaps are pulled and tucked into palm, and last flap is pulled toward self and secured before tossing item onto field.

77
Q

Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils are types of white blood cells.

True
False

A

True

78
Q

Cholangiography is the diagnostic study that images which anatomical structure?

a.
common bile duct

b.
urinary system

c.
upper GI tract

d.
large intestine

A

a.
common bile duct

79
Q

Intraoperative fluoroscopy for cholangiography would require which of the following?

a.
x-ray guidewires

b.
radiopaque OR table

c.
radiolucent OR table

d.
x-ray film cassettes

A

c.
radiolucent OR table

80
Q

All of the following studies expose the patient to ionizing radiation EXCEPT:

a.
myelogram

b.
angiogram

c.
MRI scan

d.
CT scan

A

c.
MRI scan

81
Q

In normal blood gas ranges, arterial oxygen saturation should be at or near what percentage range of capacity?

a.
25% to 40%

b.
96% to100%

c.
50% to 79%

d.
10% to 20%

A

b.
96% to100%

82
Q

Contrast media are routinely introduced:

a.
sublingually

b.
intravenously

c.
rectally

d.
topically

A

b.
intravenously

83
Q

In which of the following abdominal incisions would the linea alba be opened down to the peritoneum?

a.
McBurney

b.
Kocher subcostal

c.
median vertical

d.
transverse

A

c.
median vertical

84
Q

The triangle of Calot is an anatomical space bounded by structures in which surgical procedure?

a.
appendectomy

b.
thyroidectomy

c.
herniorrhaphy

d.
cholecystectomy

A

d.
cholecystectomy

85
Q

Which of the following is the MOST common permanent colostomy?

a.
end-loop

b.
end

c.
loop

d.
sigmoid

A

d.
sigmoid

86
Q

What term describes a benign condition of breast enlargement in men?

a.
macromastia

b.
hypoplasia

c.
micromastia

d.
gynecomastia

A

d.
gynecomastia

87
Q

Which handheld retractors are frequently used to retract tissues during thyroidectomy?

a.
Harrington

b.
Green

c.
Weinberg

d.
malleable

A

b.
Green

88
Q

The skin incision for a thyroidectomy will follow which anatomical lines?

a.
semilunar

b.
midclavicular

c.
Langer’s

d.
anterior axillar

A

c.
Langer’s

89
Q

Instruments used for closure of the vaginal cuff in total abdominal hysterectomy are:

a.
used to elevate the fascia during closure

b.
flash sterilized by the circulator

c.
isolated as contaminated

d.
discarded in the trash

A

c.
isolated as contaminated

90
Q

Which medication may be injected into the uterus for hemostasis, before closure of the uterus in a cesarean section?

a.
Lugol’s

b.
Hyskon

c.
dextran

d.
oxytocin

A

d.
oxytocin

91
Q

What is the general term for the treatment method that destroys genital condylomata with a carbon dioxide laser?

a.
ablation

b.
curettage

c.
exenteration

d.
suspension

A

a.
ablation

92
Q

What is another name for the ovarian suspensory ligament?

a.
cardinal

b.
round

c.
uterosacral

d.
infundibulopelvic

A

d.
infundibulopelvic

93
Q

Which anatomical structure is located anterior to the symphysis pubis and superior to the vaginal opening?

a.
mons pubis

b.
perineum

c.
labia majora

d.
urethral orifice

A

a.
mons pubis

94
Q

What is the term for the six muscles that provide movement of the eye?

a.
intrinsic

b.
accessory

c.
extrinsic

d.
involuntary

A

c.
extrinsic

95
Q

Which two structures form the external tunic of the globe of the eye?

a.
macula and retina

b.
cornea and sclera

c.
ciliary body and choroid coat

d.
pupil and iris

A

b.
cornea and sclera

96
Q

For which surgical procedure would an Fragmatome be used?

a.
vitrectomy

b.
enucleation

c.
strabismus correction

d.
keratoplast

A

a.
vitrectomy

97
Q

Misalignment or deviation from coordinated movement of the eyes is:

a.
macular degeneration.

b.
astigmatism

c.
strabismus

d.
retinal detachment

A

c.
strabismus

98
Q

The normal condition of the lens of the eye is:

a.
transparent and biconvex

b.
opaque and biconvex

c.
opaque and biconcave

d.
transparent and biconcave

A

a.
transparent and biconvex

99
Q

If looking at the right eye of a patient and assigning clock positions of 12, 3, 6, and 9 o’clock to the rectus eye muscles, which of the following would be CORRECT?

a.
12 = superior; 3 = medial; 6 = inferior; 9 = lateral

b.
12 = superior; 3 = lateral; 6 = inferior; 9 = medial

c.
12 = inferior; 3 = medial; 6 = lateral; 9 = superior

d.
12 = inferior; 3 = lateral; 6 = medial; 9 = superior

A

a.
12 = superior; 3 = medial; 6 = inferior; 9 = lateral

100
Q

Which gas can cause expansion of the middle ear and therefore is contraindicated in tympanic graft cases?

a.
oxygen

b.
argon

c.
nitrous oxide

d.
carbon dioxid

A

c.
nitrous oxide

PREDICTOR EXAM PT.1 (1 decks)

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