Preconception Care/ Pregnancy Care Flashcards

1
Q

When is the best time to engage in preventive health discussions for pregnancy?
A. During the first trimester
B. During the “fourth trimester”
C. Before pregnancy is planned
D. After a missed period

A

C. Before pregnancy is planned

Correct: Preventive discussions before conception allow time for interventions like folic acid supplementation.
Incorrect Options:
A: Preventive discussions are most effective before pregnancy.
B: The “fourth trimester” is for postnatal care, not initial prevention.
D: After a missed period may be too late for critical interventions.

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2
Q

What is pica, and why is it a concern during pregnancy?
A. Craving for high-sugar foods; it increases gestational diabetes risk
B. Consumption of nutritionally void substances; it may replace healthful foods
C. Preference for bland diets; it can lead to iron deficiency
D. A rare genetic condition; it poses no significant risks

A

B. Consumption of nutritionally void substances; it may replace healthful foods

Correct Answer Explanation:
Pica is the craving and consumption of non-nutritive substances such as dirt, clay, chalk, ice, or even paint chips. These behaviors can lead to nutritional deficiencies, such as iron or zinc deficiency, because the substances consumed may replace healthy foods in the diet. Pica during pregnancy often signals an underlying nutritional imbalance, particularly iron deficiency anemia, which needs to be addressed with appropriate supplementation and dietary adjustments.

Incorrect Options Clarified:

A: Sugar cravings, while common in pregnancy, do not fall under the definition of pica. They are typically related to hormonal changes and energy demands.
C: Pica does not refer to eating bland foods. It involves non-food items with no nutritional value.
D: Pica does pose risks, such as toxic exposure (e.g., lead in paint chips) or digestive blockages, making it a significant health concern during pregnancy.

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3
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding exercise during pregnancy?
A. Pregnant women should avoid all forms of exercise.
B. Balance issues and joint relaxation may increase the risk of orthopedic injury.
C. Exercise during pregnancy has been shown to harm fetal development.
D. Exhaustion and overheating during exercise are not concerns for pregnant women.

A

B. Balance issues and joint relaxation may increase the risk of orthopedic injury.
Correct Answer Explanation:
These issues arise as pregnancy progresses, increasing injury risk. Pregnancy introduces balance issues due to a shifting center of gravity and joint relaxation caused by increased levels of the hormone relaxin. These factors can heighten the risk of falls and orthopedic injuries, especially during high-impact or unstructured exercise. Safe exercises during pregnancy are those that promote strength, flexibility, and endurance without overexertion or excessive joint stress. Examples include:

Low-impact aerobic exercises: Walking, swimming, and stationary cycling.
Prenatal yoga or pilates: Focuses on flexibility and strength while improving balance and reducing stress.
Strength training: Using light weights or resistance bands with controlled movements to avoid strain.
Kegel exercises: Strengthen pelvic floor muscles to support pregnancy and aid postpartum recovery.

Incorrect Options Clarified:

A: Exercise is not inherently dangerous during pregnancy. In fact, it provides numerous benefits, such as improved circulation, reduced back pain, and better mental health. However, activities involving high impact, heavy lifting, or the risk of falls (e.g., skiing, horseback riding) should be avoided.
C: Exercise does not harm fetal development when done safely and with guidance. It improves overall pregnancy outcomes, including reduced risk of gestational diabetes and preeclampsia.
D: Exhaustion and overheating are concerns, but they can be mitigated by avoiding strenuous activities, staying hydrated, and exercising in a cool environment.

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4
Q

What are the risks associated with tobacco and nicotine use during pregnancy?
A. High birth weight and delayed labor
B. Placental abruption, low birth weight, and orofacial clefts
C. Reduced susceptibility to respiratory infections
D. Faster postnatal growth in newborns

A

B. Placental abruption, low birth weight, and orofacial clefts

Correct: Tobacco and nicotine use increase these risks.
Incorrect Options:
A, C, D: These do not accurately reflect tobacco risks.

Effects of Nicotine Use in Pregnancy
Correct Answer Explanation:
Tobacco and nicotine exposure during pregnancy significantly increase the risks of placental abruption, low birth weight, and orofacial clefts:

Placental abruption: Smoking reduces blood flow to the placenta due to nicotine-induced vasoconstriction, which can result in the placenta detaching prematurely from the uterine wall. This is a life-threatening condition for both the mother and fetus.
Low birth weight: Nicotine and carbon monoxide from cigarettes .
Orofacial clefts (e.g., cleft lip and palate): Smoking during pregnancy interferes with embryonic development by exposing the fetus to teratogens, increasing the likelihood of these birth defects.

  1. Hypoxia (Reduced Oxygen Supply)
    Tobacco smoke contains carbon monoxide (CO) and nicotine, which interfere with oxygen delivery:
  2. Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin binding sites with a much higher affinity than oxygen, reducing the amount of oxygen transported in the blood. The reduce oxygen availability to the fetus restricts fetal growth.
  3. Nicotine causes vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels), further restricting oxygen and nutrient flow to the placenta and fetus.
  4. Effects:
    Low birth weight: Reduced oxygen leads to poor fetal growth and development.
    Placental complications: Hypoxia increases the risk of placental abruption and prelabor rupture of membranes.
  5. Fetotoxic and Teratogenic Chemicals
    Tobacco smoke contains over 7,000 chemicals, including nicotine, cyanide, carbon monoxide, cadmium, lead, and hydrocarbons. These substances:
    Directly damage fetal DNA, leading to developmental defects.
    Disrupt normal cellular signaling and development in fetal tissues.

Effects:
Congenital defects: Orofacial clefts, limb reduction defects, and Poland sequence result from disrupted vascular or cellular development.

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS): Nicotine exposure impairs brainstem development, affecting breathing and arousal responses.
3. Vascular Effects
Nicotine and other chemicals in cigarettes cause generalized vasoconstriction, including in the uteroplacental circulation.
Placental blood flow decreases, impairing nutrient and oxygen delivery to the fetus.
Effects:
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR): Fetal growth slows due to insufficient nutrients and oxygen.
Preterm birth: Smoking can trigger preterm labor through placental dysfunction or inflammation.
4. Inflammatory and Oxidative Stress
Smoking induces systemic inflammation and oxidative stress in the mother, which can cross the placenta and affect fetal tissues.

Inflammatory cytokines and oxidative damage disrupt normal development.
Effects:

Preterm labor: Inflammation can weaken fetal membranes, causing early rupture.
Low birth weight: Oxidative stress hinders proper cellular development.
5. Hormonal Disruption
Smoking alters maternal hormonal levels, including reducing estrogen and progesterone production, which are essential for maintaining pregnancy.
Effects:

Ectopic pregnancy: Smoking slows down and even paralyzes the cilia in the fallopian tubes, increasing the likelihood of implantation outside the uterus. It also does this in the lungs leading to increase mucus production and infections.
Miscarriage: Hormonal imbalances can lead to pregnancy loss.
6. Direct Impact on Male and Female Gametes
In women, smoking damages oocyte DNA and accelerates follicular depletion, reducing fertility.
In men, smoking impairs sperm quality, including motility and DNA integrity, which can affect embryo development and increase miscarriage risk.
Why These Effects Are Particularly Harmful During Pregnancy
The fetus relies entirely on the mother for oxygen, nutrients, and a healthy environment to grow. Smoking disrupts this environment by:

How does smoking affect the oocyte and sperm?
Effects on the oocyte:

Smoking generates reactive oxygen species (ROS), which can damage DNA in the oocyte.
It reduces the ovarian reserve by accelerating the loss of follicles, potentially leading to earlier ovarian aging or infertility.
Smoking can also impair oocyte quality, affecting fertilization and embryo development.
Effects on sperm:

Smoking reduces sperm motility (the ability to swim efficiently toward the egg).
It increases DNA fragmentation in sperm, leading to reduced fertility and potential risks for the offspring.
Smoking decreases sperm count and alters the morphology (shape) of sperm.

Limiting the oxygen and nutrient supply.
Exposing the fetus to toxic substances.
Increasing the risk of complications like placental abruption, preterm labor, and fetal growth restriction.
Incorrect Options Clarified:

A, C, D: Tobacco use during pregnancy is not primarily associated with neural tube defects, congenital heart defects, or gastrointestinal abnormalities. While smoking impacts overall fetal health, these risks are not directly tied to nicotine use.

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5
Q

Why is cannabis use during pregnancy discouraged?
A. It may increase protein levels in the fetus.
B. It has been proven to enhance neurodevelopment.
C. It is associated with low birth weight and impaired fetal neurodevelopment.
D. It has no significant risks if used medicinally for nausea.

A

C. It is associated with low birth weight and impaired fetal neurodevelopment

Correct: Cannabis poses risks to fetal growth and development.

Effects of Marijuana Use in Pregnancy
Correct Answer Explanation:
Cannabis use during pregnancy is associated with low birth weight and impaired fetal neurodevelopment:

Low birth weight: THC, the active psychoactive compound in cannabis, crosses the placenta, reducing oxygen and nutrient supply to the fetus. This can inhibit normal fetal growth.
Impaired fetal neurodevelopment: THC interacts with the endocannabinoid system, which plays a critical role in brain development. Prenatal exposure to cannabis is linked to cognitive delays, attention deficits, and behavioral problems in childhood.
Additional risks include preterm labor and stillbirth, particularly when cannabis is used in conjunction with tobacco or other substances.
Incorrect Options Clarified:

A, B, D: These do not reflect cannabis-specific risks. For example, cannabis is not strongly linked to structural anomalies or placental issues like abruption but instead affects fetal growth and neurodevelopment.

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6
Q

What is the primary management goal for asthma during pregnancy?
A. Minimizing the use of medications to avoid teratogenic effects
B. Preventing maternal hypoxia to ensure adequate fetal oxygenation
C. Avoiding all asthma triggers without lifestyle modifications
D. Reducing the frequency of prenatal monitoring visits

A

B. Preventing maternal hypoxia to ensure adequate fetal oxygenation

Correct: This is the primary goal of asthma management in pregnancy.

Asthma Management in Pregnancy
Correct Answer Explanation:
The primary goal of asthma management during pregnancy is preventing maternal hypoxia to ensure adequate fetal oxygenation:

During pregnancy, the fetus is entirely dependent on the mother’s oxygen supply. Poorly managed asthma increases the risk of hypoxia, which can lead to intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), preterm delivery, and even fetal demise.
Exacerbations of asthma during pregnancy can also increase maternal morbidity, including preeclampsia and the need for emergency care. Proper use of inhalers, medications like bronchodilators, and corticosteroids is critical.
Asthma’s Unique Challenges During Pregnancy:

Physiological changes: Pregnancy causes diaphragmatic elevation, increased oxygen demand, and nasal congestion, which can exacerbate asthma symptoms.
Medication considerations: While some patients may hesitate to use asthma medications during pregnancy, uncontrolled asthma poses far greater risks to both the mother and fetus than the use of appropriately managed inhaled or systemic therapies.
Incorrect Options Clarified:

A: Asthma management does not focus on preventing premature rupture of membranes.
C: Controlling allergic rhinitis is secondary to managing maternal oxygenation.
D: Maternal corticosteroid use is not the primary focus but rather a treatment tool when indicated.

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7
Q

What condition is indicated by an increased craving for and consumption of non-food items like clay or dirt during pregnancy?
A. Protein deficiency
B. Pica
C. Gastrointestinal pathology
D. Acid reflux

A

B. Pica

Correct: Pica involves cravings for non-food substances.
Incorrect Options:
A, C, D: These are unrelated to the symptoms of pica.

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8
Q

Which of the following strategies is recommended for smoking cessation during pregnancy?
A. Behavioral counseling using the five As framework
B. Using unregulated nicotine replacement products
C. Waiting until after pregnancy to quit
D. Limiting cigarette use to one per day

A

A. Behavioral counseling using The Five As Framework for Smoking Cessation
The Five As framework is a structured approach recommended for smoking cessation in healthcare settings:

Ask: Identify tobacco use by directly inquiring about smoking habits at every visit.
Example: “Do you currently smoke or use any form of tobacco?”
Advise: Provide clear, personalized advice to quit, emphasizing the benefits of cessation for both mother and fetus.
Example: “Quitting smoking now will improve your baby’s growth and development.”
Assess: Determine the patient’s willingness to quit.
Example: “On a scale from 1 to 10, how ready do you feel to quit smoking?”
Assist: Help the patient develop a quit plan, offer resources (e.g., counseling, nicotine replacement therapy when appropriate), and address barriers.
Example: Offer referral to a smoking cessation program or suggest coping strategies for cravings.
Arrange: Schedule follow-ups to provide ongoing support and monitor progress.
Example: “Let’s check in at your next visit to see how things are going.”

Incorrect Options Clarified:
B, C, D: Strategies like punitive measures, non-personalized advice, or generic educational materials are not as effective as the personalized, evidence-based Five As approach.

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9
Q

What are the potential effects of alcohol use during pregnancy?
A. Fetal growth acceleration and fewer birth complications
B. Reduced risk of neurodevelopmental disorders
C. Increased risk of Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders and miscarriage
D. Improved maternal mental health and pregnancy outcomes

A

C. Increased risk of Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders and miscarriage

Correct Answer Explanation:
Alcohol consumption during pregnancy is associated with the following major risks:

Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders (FASDs):
FASDs include a range of physical, behavioral, and neurodevelopmental impairments caused by prenatal alcohol exposure.
Characteristic features: growth restriction, facial anomalies (e.g., smooth philtrum, thin upper lip), and cognitive or behavioral deficits (e.g., ADHD, learning disabilities).
Alcohol disrupts fetal brain development, particularly during the first trimester when critical structures form.
Miscarriage and stillbirth:
Alcohol increases the risk of miscarriage, particularly with heavy or binge drinking.
It disrupts placental function and may cause fetal hypoxia or abnormal cellular development, leading to pregnancy loss.
Preterm birth and low birth weight: Alcohol can impair placental function, leading to restricted fetal growth.
Incorrect Options Clarified:

A, B, D: While alcohol use can affect overall fetal health, these options do not specifically address the risks of FASDs, miscarriage, or stillbirth.

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10
Q

What is the role of preconception counseling for women with diabetes?
A. To delay conception until after the age of 35
B. To reduce maternal and fetal risks by maintaining preconceptional hemoglobin A1c levels below 7%
C. To encourage the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors during pregnancy
D. To avoid addressing end-organ damage during pregnancy

A

To reduce maternal and fetal risks by maintaining preconceptional hemoglobin A1c levels below 7%

Correct Answer Explanation:
Maintaining preconceptional hemoglobin A1c levels below 7% is critical for reducing maternal and fetal risks associated with diabetes:

Congenital anomalies: Elevated HbA1c (>7%) during the first trimester increases the risk of neural tube defects, congenital heart defects, and other malformations. These risks are directly related to poor glycemic control in early pregnancy.
Preterm birth and macrosomia: High HbA1c levels increase the likelihood of fetal overgrowth (macrosomia), which complicates delivery and may lead to birth injuries or necessitate a cesarean section.
Preeclampsia: Poor glycemic control contributes to hypertension and increases the risk of preeclampsia.
Stillbirth: Persistent hyperglycemia can impair placental function, leading to fetal hypoxia and stillbirth.
Additional Goals of Preconception Counseling in Diabetes:

Optimize blood glucose control with lifestyle interventions and medications.
Identify and address complications like retinopathy, nephropathy, and cardiovascular issues that may worsen during pregnancy.
Incorrect Options Clarified:

A, C, D: The primary focus of preconception counseling is glycemic control to minimize maternal and fetal complications. These options do not adequately reflect this goal.

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11
Q

Which of the following infections is an asthmatic pregnant individual at higher risk for, requiring preventive measures during pregnancy?
a) Influenza
b) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
c) COVID-19
d) All of the above

A

D) All of the above
1. Influenza
Increased Risk:
Pregnancy and asthma both independently increase the likelihood of complications from the flu, including pneumonia, bronchitis, and exacerbations of asthma symptoms.
Influenza can lead to hospitalization, preterm labor, and fetal complications such as restricted growth or stillbirth if untreated.
Preventive Measures:
Annual influenza vaccination (inactivated form) is strongly recommended for all pregnant individuals, especially those with asthma.
Hand hygiene, avoiding sick contacts, and prompt treatment with antivirals if infected (e.g., oseltamivir) are essential.
2. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
Increased Risk:
RSV, a common cause of respiratory illness, can result in bronchiolitis and pneumonia in high-risk populations, including asthmatic pregnant individuals.
Asthma exacerbations triggered by RSV can cause decreased oxygen delivery to both the mother and fetus, increasing the risk of hypoxia and fetal distress.
Preventive Measures:
In 2023, the FDA approved an RSV vaccine for use in late pregnancy to protect both the mother and newborn during the vulnerable postpartum period.
General precautions include avoiding exposure to crowded or high-risk areas during RSV season.
3. COVID-19
Increased Risk:
Asthma increases susceptibility to severe respiratory complications from COVID-19, such as pneumonia and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
Pregnancy further amplifies risks, including preterm delivery, severe illness, and potential effects on fetal growth and neurodevelopment.
Preventive Measures:
The COVID-19 vaccine and boosters are recommended for pregnant individuals to reduce the risk of severe illness.
Wearing masks in crowded places, practicing hand hygiene, and ensuring good asthma control minimize infection risk.
Why Preventive Care is Vital
Respiratory infections worsen asthma by increasing airway inflammation, bronchospasm, and mucus production, leading to acute exacerbations.
Poorly controlled asthma increases the risk of maternal hypoxia, which can result in fetal hypoxia, growth restriction, and preterm birth.
Conclusion
Correct Answer: d) All of the above
Pregnant individuals with asthma should be vaccinated against influenza and COVID-19 and may benefit from the new RSV vaccine. In addition to vaccination, good asthma management, infection prevention, and early treatment of symptoms are essential to mitigate risks.

More info on why:

  1. Changes in the Immune System
    Shift to a T-helper 2 (Th2)-dominant immune response:
    During pregnancy, the immune system adjusts to protect the fetus, which is considered semi-allogenic (partially foreign). This results in a reduced Th1-cell-mediated immune response, which is essential for fighting off viruses like influenza.
    Weakened antiviral response: Pregnant individuals may have a less robust ability to clear viral infections, making them more susceptible to complications.
    Increased susceptibility to secondary infections: A weakened immune response can lead to bacterial superinfections, such as pneumonia.
  2. Cardiopulmonary Changes
    Increased oxygen demand:
    The growing fetus requires more oxygen, leading to elevated maternal respiratory rates and changes in lung mechanics. This increased demand makes the respiratory system more vulnerable to stress caused by influenza.
    Reduced lung capacity:
    As the uterus enlarges, it compresses the diaphragm, reducing lung expansion. This can exacerbate respiratory symptoms and make conditions like pneumonia more dangerous.
  3. Increased Inflammatory Response
    Heightened inflammatory state:
    While the immune system shifts to protect the fetus, there is an increase in systemic inflammation during pregnancy. When infected with the flu, this exaggerated inflammatory response can lead to more severe symptoms and complications like acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
  4. Risk of Complications
    Severe respiratory symptoms:
    Influenza can lead to worsening of asthma or other underlying respiratory conditions, causing severe breathing difficulties.
    Maternal hypoxia:
    Reduced oxygen levels in the mother can compromise oxygen delivery to the fetus, increasing the risk of fetal hypoxia, growth restriction, and preterm labor.
    Increased hospitalizations:
    Pregnant individuals with the flu are more likely to require hospitalization and intensive care than non-pregnant individuals of the same age.
  5. Impact on the Fetus
    Influenza infection in pregnancy has been associated with:
    Fetal growth restriction
    Preterm birth
    Stillbirth
    Neurodevelopmental issues later in childhood, potentially linked to maternal fever during critical periods of development.
    Preventive Measures
    Annual Influenza Vaccination:
    Safe and recommended during any trimester of pregnancy, it protects both the mother and baby (by passive antibody transfer).
    Early Antiviral Treatment:
    Medications like oseltamivir (Tamiflu) can reduce the severity and duration of illness if started promptly.
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12
Q

Acid Reflux:
* Prevalence: Up to 72% in the third trimester due to compression of the upper gastrointestinal tract.
* Effective management of reflux is essential to minimize asthma exacerbations.Which of the following medications is recommended for managing gastroesophageal reflux (GERD), a common asthma trigger during pregnancy due to *

a) Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)
b) Beta-blockers
c) Opioids
d) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

A

Correct Answer: a) Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)

Explanation: GERD is a common issue in pregnancy and
PPIs are a class of medications commonly used to manage GERD. They work by reducing stomach acid production, alleviating reflux symptoms, and minimizing complications such as asthma exacerbations triggered by GERD. PPIs are considered safe and effective during pregnancy when clinically indicated.

Rationale for incorrect:
b) Beta-blockers - are used to manage cardiovascular conditions such as hypertension or arrhythmias. They do not address GERD symptoms or reduce acid production in the stomach.

c) Opioids - are pain-relief medications and do not have any role in managing GERD. In fact, opioids can worsen GERD symptoms by reducing gastrointestinal motility, which may exacerbate reflux.

d) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) -NSAIDs, such as ibuprofen, can irritate the stomach lining and increase the risk of gastric ulcers. They are contraindicated for managing GERD and may worsen symptoms.

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13
Q

What is the primary goal of stepwise asthma treatment during pregnancy?
a) Minimizing medication use
b) Maximizing fetal exposure to oxygen
c) Reducing maternal weight gain
d) Avoiding all inhaled corticosteroids

A

Correct Answer: b) Maximizing fetal exposure to oxygen
Explanation: Asthma management during pregnancy prioritizes optimal oxygenation for both the mother and fetus. Inhaled corticosteroids are commonly used when needed to achieve this.

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14
Q

What is the diagnostic criterion for chronic hypertension in pregnancy?
A. Blood pressure ≥ 130/80 mmHg before 30 weeks of gestation
B. Blood pressure ≥ 140/90 mmHg before 20 weeks of gestation or persisting postpartum
C. Blood pressure ≥ 160/110 mmHg at any point during pregnancy
D. Blood pressure ≥ 140/90 mmHg detected after 28 weeks of gestation

A

B. Blood pressure ≥ 140/90 mmHg before 20 weeks of gestation or persisting postpartum
Correct. Chronic hypertension is defined by blood pressure readings of ≥140/90 mmHg on two occasions at least 4 hours apart prior to 20 weeks of gestation or Hypertension that starts during pregnancy continuing beyond the postpartum period.

A. Blood pressure ≥ 130/80 mmHg before 30 weeks of gestation
Incorrect. While 130/80 mmHg is the threshold for hypertension in the general population, chronic hypertension in pregnancy is diagnosed earlier than 20 weeks of gestation.

C. Blood pressure ≥ 160/110 mmHg at any point during pregnancy
Incorrect. This threshold indicates severe hypertension but does not define chronic hypertension.

D. Blood pressure ≥ 140/90 mmHg detected after 28 weeks of gestation
Incorrect. Hypertension after 28 weeks is typically gestational hypertension unless it persists postpartum.

Diagnosis Criteria:
* Blood pressure ≥ 140/90 mmHg on at least two separate
occasions 4 hours apart.
* Chronic hypertension affects 1% to 2% of pregnancies in the United States, with rising prevalence due to population aging and increasing comorbidities.

Preeclampsia Postpartum Monitoring:
* Monitor blood pressure closely for at least 72 hours postpartum and again 7 to 10 days after delivery.
* Educate patients about the signs and symptoms of preeclampsia, which can develop up to six weeks postpartum.

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15
Q

Which of the following is the primary cause of chronic hypertension in pregnancy?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Renal disease
C. Primary hypertension
D. Collagen vascular disease

A

C. Primary hypertension
Correct. The most frequent cause of chronic hypertension in pregnancy is primary (essential) hypertension, with no identifiable secondary cause.

A. Diabetes mellitus
Incorrect. Diabetes may contribute to hypertension but is not the primary cause.

B. Renal disease
Incorrect. Renal conditions can cause secondary hypertension, but primary hypertension is more common.

D. Collagen vascular disease
Incorrect. While collagen vascular diseases (e.g., lupus) can lead to secondary hypertension, they are not the primary cause.

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16
Q

Which demographic group is at highest risk for chronic hypertension during pregnancy?
A. Hispanic women under 30 years old
B. White women over 40 years old
C. Black women over 35 years old
D. Asian women of all ages

A

C. Black women over 35 years old
Correct. Black women have a significantly higher prevalence of chronic hypertension, and age further increases risk.

A. Hispanic women under 30 years old
Incorrect. Hispanic women generally have a lower risk of chronic hypertension compared to Black women.

B. White women over 40 years old
Incorrect. Age is a risk factor, but Black women have the highest overall prevalence of chronic hypertension.

D. Asian women of all ages
Incorrect. Asian women have a lower prevalence of chronic hypertension compared to Black or White women.

Demographics:
* Race: Black women are twice as likely to experience chronic hypertension
compared to white women.
1. Age: Higher prevalence in women aged 35 years or older.
Primary Causes:
* 90% due to primary hypertension.
* Remaining 10% linked to conditions like renal disease, thyroid disease, diabetes
mellitus, and collagen vascular disease.

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17
Q

Q4. How does pregnancy physiologically influence blood pressure in the first half of pregnancy?
A. Blood pressure rises above baseline due to increased vascular resistance
B. Blood pressure decreases due to reduced systemic vascular resistance
C. Blood pressure remains stable due to hormonal balance
D. Blood pressure spikes unpredictably due to comorbidities

A

B. Blood pressure decreases due to reduced systemic vascular resistance
Correct. In early pregnancy, systemic vascular resistance decreases due to hormonal changes, leading to a decline in blood pressure.

A. Blood pressure rises above baseline due to increased vascular resistance
Incorrect. Vascular resistance decreases in early pregnancy, reducing blood pressure.

C. Blood pressure remains stable due to hormonal balance
Incorrect. Blood pressure typically decreases during the first half of pregnancy.

D. Blood pressure spikes unpredictably due to comorbidities
Incorrect. Pregnancy-related blood pressure changes are usually predictable, with a decrease in early pregnancy.

Key Physiological Changes of Cardiovascular System during pregnancy
Decreased systemic vascular resistance (SVR): Progesterone causes smooth muscle relaxation, which reduces SVR, leading to lower blood pressure during the first half of pregnancy (first 20 weeks of gestation).
Increased plasma volume and cardiac output: These adaptations ensure adequate blood supply to the placenta and fetus.

Effect on Blood Pressure:
First half of pregnancy: Blood pressure typically decreases due to reduced SVR.
Later pregnancy: Blood pressure rises back to baseline or slightly higher as SVR normalizes and the demands on the cardiovascular system increase.
These changes help optimize maternal-fetal circulation while accommodating the physiological stress of pregnancy.

  • In the second half of pregnancy (after 20 weeks), blood pressure tends to return to baseline or slightly increase due to the growing demands on the cardiovascular system and increased plasma volume.
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18
Q

Which complication is most strongly associated with uncontrolled chronic hypertension during pregnancy?
A. Preterm labor
B. Preeclampsia
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Low birth weight

A

B. Preeclampsia
Correct. Chronic hypertension significantly increases the risk of preeclampsia, a severe and life-threatening complication.

A. Preterm labor
Incorrect. While possible, preterm labor is less directly linked to chronic hypertension than preeclampsia.

C. Gestational diabetes
Incorrect. Gestational diabetes is not directly associated with chronic hypertension.

D. Low birth weight
Incorrect. Low birth weight is a potential outcome but less directly linked than preeclampsia.

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19
Q

. What is the two- to four-fold increased fetal risk associated with maternal chronic hypertension?
A. Preterm delivery
B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
C. Stillbirth or perinatal death
D. Neonatal congenital anomalies

A

C. Stillbirth or perinatal death
Correct. Chronic hypertension is associated with a two- to four-fold increase in stillbirth and perinatal death risk.

A. Preterm delivery
Incorrect. While possible, the increase in risk is more substantial for stillbirth.

B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
Incorrect. IUGR is a known complication but does not account for the highest risk increase.

D. Neonatal congenital anomalies
Incorrect. Congenital anomalies are not directly linked to chronic hypertension.

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20
Q

What is the blood pressure goal during pregnancy to prevent severe complications?
A. < 120/80 mmHg
B. < 130/85 mmHg
C. < 140/90 mmHg
D. < 160/110 mmHg

A

C. < 140/90 mmHg
Correct. This is the recommended target to minimize maternal and fetal risks while maintaining adequate perfusion.

A. < 120/80 mmHg
Incorrect. Aggressive control to this level may compromise placental perfusion.

B. < 130/85 mmHg
Incorrect. This goal is lower than necessary for pregnancy-related hypertension management.

D. < 160/110 mmHg
Incorrect. This is the threshold for severe hypertension, not the target for control.

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21
Q

At what gestational age should low-dose aspirin ideally be initiated for high-risk preeclampsia prevention?
A. 4–8 weeks
B. 12–16 weeks
C. 20–24 weeks
D. 28–32 weeks

A

B. 12–16 weeks
Correct. Low-dose aspirin is most effective when started between 12–16 weeks of gestation.

A. 4–8 weeks
Incorrect. Initiating aspirin this early is unnecessary and not evidence-based.

C. 20–24 weeks
Incorrect. Starting aspirin after 20 weeks is less effective in preventing preeclampsia.

D. 28–32 weeks
Incorrect. Starting this late would not significantly prevent preeclampsia.

Preeclampsia prevention Strategies:
* Calcium Supplementation:
* May reduce the risk of preeclampsia in populations with low dietary calcium intake.
* Lifestyle Modifications:
* Encourage healthy diet, regular physical activity, and weight
management before and during pregnancy.
* Optimize chronic conditions before pregnancy

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22
Q

What lifestyle modification is contraindicated for managing chronic hypertension during pregnancy?
A. Sodium restriction
B. Weight loss
C. Moderate exercise
D. Smoking cessation

A

B. Weight loss
Correct. Weight loss during pregnancy is contraindicated as it can harm fetal growth.

A. Sodium restriction
Incorrect. Moderate sodium restriction is generally safe and can support blood pressure control.

C. Moderate exercise
Incorrect. Exercise is beneficial unless contraindicated for specific conditions.

D. Smoking cessation
Incorrect. Smoking cessation is always recommended for maternal and fetal health.

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23
Q

What is the approximate prevalence of prenatal depression in pregnant individuals?
A. 1% to 5%
B. 6.5% to 13%
C. 15% to 20%
D. 25% to 30%

A

B. 6.5% to 13%
Correct. This is the estimated prevalence of prenatal depression based on population studies.

A. 1% to 5%
Incorrect. This range significantly underestimates the prevalence.

C. 15% to 20%
Incorrect. This range is slightly higher than the typical prevalence.

D. 25% to 30%
Incorrect. This range is significantly higher than observed prevalence rates.

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24
Q

What additional feature is required to diagnose preeclampsia in a pregnant patient with blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg?
A. Proteinuria ≥ 0.3 g in a 24-hour urine collection
B. Presence of fetal growth restriction
C. Severe headache unresponsive to medication
D. Any of the above

A

Answer: D Any of the above
Correct. Preeclampsia diagnosis requires hypertension and one of these features, making this the best choice
Explanations:

A. Proteinuria ≥ 0.3 g in a 24-hour urine collection
Correct. Proteinuria is one of the key diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia when hypertension is present.
B. Presence of fetal growth restriction
Correct. Fetal growth restriction is an associated complication that can confirm preeclampsia.
C. Severe headache unresponsive to medication
Correct. Severe headaches are a clinical feature of severe preeclampsia.

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25
Q

How long after delivery can chronic hypertension typically persist in women with preeclampsia?
A. 1 week postpartum
B. 6 weeks postpartum
C. 12 weeks postpartum
D. Indefinitely, if undiagnosed

A

Answer: D. Indefinitely, if undiagnosed
Correct. Chronic hypertension is a long-term condition that persists unless managed or treated.

Explanations:

A. 1 week postpartum
Incorrect. While blood pressure may start to stabilize postpartum, chronic hypertension can persist much longer.
B. 6 weeks postpartum
Incorrect. This is the resolution timeframe for gestational hypertension, not chronic hypertension.
C. 12 weeks postpartum
Incorrect. Chronic hypertension, by definition, persists beyond 12 weeks postpartum.

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26
Q

Risk Factors for Prenatal Depression
Q3. Which of the following is a major risk factor for prenatal depression?
A. Lack of prenatal vitamins
B. History of major depressive disorder (MDD)
C. Gestational diabetes mellitus
D. Age under 25 years

A

B. History of major depressive disorder (MDD)
Correct. A previous history of depression is the strongest predictor of prenatal depression.

Explanations:

A. Lack of prenatal vitamins
Incorrect. While nutritional deficiencies can affect overall health, they are not a major risk factor for prenatal depression.

C. Gestational diabetes mellitus
Incorrect. While gestational diabetes can increase stress, it is not a leading cause of prenatal depression.
D. Age under 25 years
Incorrect. Age alone is not a primary risk factor unless combined with other vulnerabilities like lack of social support.

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27
Q

When should routine screening for depression occur during pregnancy?
A. First trimester only
B. First and third trimesters
C. Every trimester and postpartum
D. Postpartum only

A

C. Every trimester and postpartum
Correct. Guidelines recommend frequent screening during pregnancy and postpartum for early detection and intervention.

Explanations:

A. First trimester only
Incorrect. Depression can emerge at any point during pregnancy, so one-time screening is insufficient.
B. First and third trimesters
Incorrect. Screening only during these trimesters may miss cases developing in the second trimester.
D. Postpartum only
Incorrect. While postpartum depression is a concern, antenatal depression should also be screened.

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28
Q

What fetal complication is most strongly associated with untreated maternal prenatal depression?
A. Macrosomia
B. Preterm birth
C. Neural tube defects
D. Fetal arrhythmias

A

B. Preterm birth
Correct. Untreated maternal depression increases stress levels, which are strongly linked to preterm labor and delivery.

Explanations:

A. Macrosomia
Incorrect. Macrosomia is more commonly linked to gestational diabetes than depression.
C. Neural tube defects
Incorrect. Neural tube defects are primarily linked to folic acid deficiency, not depression.
D. Fetal arrhythmias
Incorrect. Fetal arrhythmias are not associated with maternal depression.

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29
Q

Which antidepressant class is considered first-line for managing depression during pregnancy?
A. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
D. Benzodiazepines

A

Examples: Fluoxetine, Sertraline, Citalopram
Why SSRIs Are Safer:
Mechanism of Action: SSRIs selectively inhibit serotonin reuptake in the brain, which increases serotonin levels. They are better tolerated and have fewer side effects compared to older antidepressants like TCAs or MAOIs.
Safety Profile in Pregnancy: SSRIs are extensively studied in pregnancy. The most commonly used SSRIs (e.g., fluoxetine, sertraline) are associated with minimal risk of major congenital malformations. They are considered first-line for treating depression in pregnant women because untreated depression poses a greater risk to both the mother and the fetus.

Potential Risks:
Poor Neonatal Adaptation Syndrome (PNAS): This transient condition can include symptoms like irritability, jitteriness, and feeding difficulties but usually resolves within a few days after birth.
Pulmonary Hypertension of the Newborn (PPHN): There is a slight increased risk, but the absolute risk is very low.
Benefit-Risk Balance: For moderate-to-severe depression, the benefits of using SSRIs far outweigh the minimal risks.

A. Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)
Examples: Amitriptyline, Nortriptyline, Imipramine
Effects in Pregnancy:
Risks to the Fetus: TCAs cross the placenta and can lead to complications such as poor neonatal adaptation syndrome (e.g., jitteriness, irritability, respiratory distress). There may also be a small increased risk of congenital malformations, though this is not well-established.
Maternal Side Effects: TCAs have significant anticholinergic effects (e.g., dry mouth, constipation, sedation) and cardiovascular risks (e.g., arrhythmias), which can be particularly concerning in pregnancy due to altered maternal physiology.

C. Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)
Examples: Phenelzine, Tranylcypromine
Effects in Pregnancy:
Risks to the Fetus: MAOIs inhibit monoamine oxidase enzymes, leading to elevated levels of neurotransmitters like serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine. This can cause complications, including fetal growth restriction and congenital abnormalities.
Risks to the Mother: MAOIs interact with tyramine-containing foods (e.g., aged cheeses, cured meats) and other medications, potentially causing hypertensive crises (dangerous spikes in blood pressure).
Conclusion: MAOIs are generally avoided in pregnancy due to their unpredictable and severe risks.

D. Benzodiazepines
Examples: Diazepam, Lorazepam, Clonazepam
Effects in Pregnancy:
Risks to the Fetus: Benzodiazepines cross the placenta and are associated with:
Teratogenic Risks: Some studies suggest a slight increased risk of oral clefts, though data is inconclusive.
Neonatal Risks: “Floppy infant syndrome” (hypotonia, respiratory depression) and withdrawal symptoms (e.g., irritability, poor feeding) can occur if benzodiazepines are taken in the third trimester.
Risks to the Mother: Benzodiazepines can cause sedation, dependency, and withdrawal symptoms, which are not ideal in the context of pregnancy.
Conclusion: They are not used to treat depression and are typically reserved for short-term management of severe anxiety or insomnia when absolutely necessary.
Summary
SSRIs are first-line because they are effective, well-studied, and have minimal risks compared to other options.
TCAs and MAOIs are avoided due to side effects and fetal risks.
Benzodiazepines are not antidepressants and carry neonatal risks, limiting their use in pregnancy.

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30
Q

Which factor increases the risk of postpartum depression the most?
A. Short interval between pregnancies
B. Cesarean delivery
C. Antenatal depression
D. Advanced maternal age

A

C. Antenatal depression
Correct. A strong predictor of postpartum depression is untreated depression during pregnancy.

Explanations:
A. Short interval between pregnancies
Incorrect. While this may increase maternal stress, it is not the most significant risk factor.
B. Cesarean delivery
Incorrect. This may be associated with physical recovery stress but is not the primary risk factor.
D. Advanced maternal age
Incorrect. While advanced age may pose risks, it is not as significant as pre-existing depression.

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31
Q

What is the definition of infertility according to the general criteria?
A. The inability to achieve pregnancy over six months of unprotected intercourse.
B. The inability to achieve pregnancy over 12 months of unprotected intercourse.
C. A condition requiring medical intervention regardless of the duration of unprotected intercourse.
D. A condition primarily caused by male infertility factors.

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Infertility is defined as the inability to achieve pregnancy over 12 months of unprotected intercourse.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
(A): Six months applies to females over 35, not the general definition.
(C): While medical intervention may be necessary in some cases, this is not part of the general definition.
(D): Infertility can result from male, female, or combined factors, so this statement is overly narrow.

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32
Q

Which type of infertility refers to couples who have never achieved a pregnancy?
A. Primary infertility
B. Secondary infertility
C. Recurrent pregnancy loss
D. Oligoasthenozoospermia

A

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive despite having never achieved a pregnancy.
Why Others Are Incorrect:

(B): Secondary infertility applies to couples unable to conceive after having one or more previous pregnancies.
(C): Recurrent pregnancy loss refers to repeated miscarriages and is a subtype of primary or secondary infertility.
(D): Oligoasthenozoospermia is a condition involving reduced sperm count and motility, not a type of infertility.

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33
Q

When should infertility evaluation begin for a couple where the female partner is over 35 years old?
A. After 3 months of unprotected intercourse.
B. After 6 months of unprotected intercourse.
C. After 12 months of unprotected intercourse.
D. Immediately upon deciding to conceive.

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: For women over 35, infertility evaluation is recommended after 6 months of attempting pregnancy due to the age-related decline in fecundability.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
(A): Three months is not a standard guideline for evaluation.
(C): Twelve months applies to women under 35.
(D): Immediate evaluation is generally advised for women over 40, not those 35–39.

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34
Q

What is the significance of Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH) in infertility evaluation?
A. Predicts the likelihood of live birth.
B. Assesses ovarian reserve.
C. Determines the precise timing of ovulation.
D. Diagnoses thyroid disorders affecting fertility.

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: AMH is a marker used to assess ovarian reserve, independent of the menstrual cycle phase.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
(A): AMH does not predict the likelihood of live birth.
(C): Ovulation timing is better assessed using LH kits or basal body temperature.
(D): Thyroid disorders are diagnosed using serum TSH, not AMH.

35
Q

What is the recommended optimal frequency of intercourse during the fertile window to maximize conception chances?
A. Every day
B. Every 1–2 days
C. Every 3–4 days
D. Only on the day of ovulation

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Engaging in intercourse every 1–2 days during the fertile window ensures sperm availability and maximizes the chances of conception.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
(A): While daily intercourse is not harmful, it offers no significant advantage over every 1–2 days.
(C): Every 3–4 days may miss the optimal time for conception.
(D): Limiting intercourse to only the day of ovulation reduces overall chances.

36
Q

What is a common limitation of using basal body temperature (BBT) for ovulation detection?
A. It cannot confirm ovulation.
B. It only confirms ovulation retrospectively.
C. It gives false-positive results in women with PCOS.
D. It detects the LH surge.

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: BBT confirms ovulation retrospectively, showing a temperature rise after ovulation has occurred.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
(A): BBT can confirm ovulation but not predict it.
(C): False positives due to PCOS are associated with LH-based ovulation kits, not BBT.
(D): Detecting the LH surge is a function of urinary LH kits, not BBT.

37
Q

Which of the following is not assessed in a semen analysis for infertility evaluation?
A. Sperm count
B. Motility
C. Testosterone levels
D. Morphology

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Testosterone levels are part of endocrine testing but are not included in a standard semen analysis.

Why Others Are Incorrect:
(A), (B), and (D): Sperm count, motility, and morphology are standard parameters assessed during semen analysis.

38
Q

What percentage reduction in fecundability is seen in women aged 40–41 compared to those aged 30–31?
A) 14%
B) 19%
C) 53%
D) 59%

A

C is correct because women aged 40–41 have a 53% reduction in fecundability compared to women aged 30–31.
All these numbers are a reduction in fecundability compared to women aged 30-31 years old

A) 34-35 years old 14% reduction
B) 36–37 years: 19% reduction
D 42–44 years old 59%reduction

Fecundability Rate:
* Defined as the ability to achieve pregnancy within one
menstrual cycle.
* Timeline:
* Highest in the first 3 months of trying to conceive.
* Declines over the next 9 months.
* Pregnancy Rates:
* 85% of couples conceive within 12 months.
* 95% conceive within 24 months.

  • Adolescents (15–19 years):
  • 3.4% of U.S. births (2010, CDC)
  • Global birth rate: 11.9% (Althabe, 2015)
  • Higher risks:
  • Anemia
  • Preterm delivery
  • Preeclampsia (Usta, 2008)
  • Increased incidence of STDs during pregnancy (Niccolai, 2003)
  • Challenges:
  • Most pregnancies are unplanned.
  • Rarely seek preconception counseling.
39
Q

What is a major contributor to multifetal gestation in older women?
A) Maternal age alone
B) ART (Assisted Reproductive Technology) and ovulation induction
C) Dizygotic twinning alone
D) Chronic illnesses

A

Correct Answer: B) ART and ovulation induction
Explanation:

B is correct because ART and ovulation induction are the primary contributors to multifetal gestation in older women, despite maternal age also playing a role.
A and C are incorrect because maternal age and dizygotic twinning alone are less significant contributors compared to ART.
D is incorrect because chronic illnesses are not directly linked to multifetal pregnancies.

40
Q

Effects of Uncontrolled Asthma on Pregnancy
Which of the following is NOT a risk associated with uncontrolled asthma during pregnancy?
a) Preterm birth
b) Low birth weight
c) Placental abruption
d) Increased perinatal mortality

A

Correct Answer:
c) Placental abruption

Explanations:

a) Preterm birth: Correct, as uncontrolled asthma increases the risk of preterm birth.
b) Low birth weight: Correct, as uncontrolled asthma is associated with restricted fetal growth.
c) Placental abruption: Incorrect, as this is a complication more commonly associated with hypertension or preeclampsia, not asthma.
d) Increased perinatal mortality: Correct, as poorly managed asthma can increase perinatal mortality rates.

41
Q

Physiological Effects of Pregnancy on Blood Pressure
How does pregnancy typically affect blood pressure in the first half of gestation?
a) Blood pressure increases.
b) Blood pressure decreases.
c) Blood pressure remains unchanged.
d) Blood pressure fluctuates significantly.

A

Correct Answer:
b) Blood pressure decreases: Correct, reflecting the physiological changes of decreased systemic vascular resistance and increased plasma volume in early pregnancy.

Explanations:
a) Blood pressure increases: Incorrect, as systemic vascular resistance decreases during early pregnancy, typically causing a reduction in blood pressure.

c) Blood pressure remains unchanged: Incorrect, as pregnancy does cause noticeable changes in blood pressure patterns.
d) Blood pressure fluctuates significantly: Incorrect, as blood pressure changes follow predictable trends during pregnancy rather than fluctuating randomly.

42
Q

Seizure Disorders and Pregnancy
Which of the following is TRUE regarding seizure disorders during pregnancy?
a) Antiseizure medications significantly increase miscarriage risk.
b) Women with epilepsy have a higher risk of neonates with structural anomalies.
c) Polytherapy is safer than monotherapy for controlling seizures in pregnancy.
d) Folic acid supplementation is not recommended due to malformation risks.

A

Correct Answer:
b) Women with epilepsy have a higher risk of neonates with structural anomalies.

Explanations:
a) Antiseizure medications significantly increase miscarriage risk: Incorrect, as recent evidence shows antiseizure medications do not significantly increase the risks of miscarriage or stillbirth.
b) Women with epilepsy have a higher risk of neonates with structural anomalies: Correct, as epilepsy itself (independent of therapy) is associated with this risk.
c) Polytherapy is safer than monotherapy for controlling seizures in pregnancy: Incorrect, as polytherapy is associated with a higher malformation risk compared to monotherapy.
d) Folic acid supplementation is not recommended due to malformation risks: Incorrect, as folic acid 4mg QD oral supplementation is recommended for all women with epilepsy to reduce certain risks.

43
Q

Safe Vaccines During Pregnancy
Which of the following vaccines is considered safe for use during pregnancy?
a) Influenza vaccine
b) Varicella vaccine
c) MMR vaccine
d) Yellow fever vaccine

A

a) Influenza vaccine
Explanations:
a) Influenza vaccine: Correct, as killed virus vaccines, like the influenza vaccine, are safe for use during pregnancy.

b) Varicella vaccine: Incorrect, as live-virus vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy.
c) MMR vaccine: Incorrect, as MMR is a live-virus vaccine and should not be administered during pregnancy.
d) Yellow fever vaccine: Incorrect, as this is also a live-virus vaccine and contraindicated during pregnancy unless absolutely necessary in high-risk situations.

Here is a list of live vaccines:
Live Vaccines and Their Contraindication During Pregnancy
List of Live Vaccines:

Varicella-zoster (chickenpox)
Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR)
Polio (oral)
Yellow fever
Smallpox
Why Live Vaccines Are Contraindicated:

Live vaccines contain weakened but viable forms of the virus or bacteria.
There is a theoretical risk of vertical transmission from the mother to the fetus, which could cause congenital infection or malformation.
The fetus’s immune system is underdeveloped and unable to combat even attenuated pathogens effectively.

Safe Vaccines During Pregnancy:
* Toxoid-based vaccines: Safe before and during
pregnancy.

Examples of Toxoid Vaccines:
- Tetanus Toxoid (TT)- Prevents tetanus, caused by toxins from Clostridium tetani.

  • Diphtheria Toxoid- Protects against diphtheria, caused by toxins from Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

Toxoid vaccines are made from inactivated bacterial toxins (called toxoids). These vaccines stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies against the toxin without causing disease.

Why Toxoid Vaccines Are Safe in Pregnancy:
They contain no live components and cannot cause infection.
They only trigger immunity against the toxin, not the bacteria itself.

  • Killed bacteria or virus vaccines: Safe before and during pregnancy,
    including:
  • Influenza
  • Pneumococcus
  • Hepatitis B
  • Meningococcus
  • Rabies
44
Q

Management of Inadvertent Vaccination During Pregnancy
If a pregnant woman is inadvertently vaccinated with an MMR vaccine, what is the appropriate next step?
a) Terminate the pregnancy.
b) Monitor for theoretical risks but continue the pregnancy.
c) Start prophylactic antiviral treatment immediately.
d) Administer a killed-virus vaccine to counteract the effects.

A

**
b) Monitor for theoretical risks but continue the pregnancy: Correct, as current data suggests the risks are minimal and do not warrant termination.**

Explanations:

a) Terminate the pregnancy: Incorrect, as fetal risks are considered theoretical and not an indication for pregnancy termination.

c) Start prophylactic antiviral treatment immediately: Incorrect, as antivirals are not indicated in this situation.
d) Administer a killed-virus vaccine to counteract the effects: Incorrect, as this approach is neither practical nor necessary.

Inadvertent Vaccination During Pregnancy
Definition:

Inadvertent vaccination refers to a situation where a live vaccine is administered to a pregnant woman before the healthcare provider or patient realizes the pregnancy.
Theoretical Risks:

Fetal Infection: The attenuated virus or bacteria could potentially cross the placenta and infect the fetus.
Congenital Anomalies: The infection might lead to structural or functional malformations.
Miscarriage or Stillbirth: Severe fetal effects could increase these risks.
Current Evidence:

MMR and Varicella: Existing data suggests that these vaccines do not cause harm in most cases, and the risks are theoretical rather than observed.
Guidance: Pregnancy is typically continued with careful monitoring, as no routine adverse outcomes have been strongly linked to inadvertent live vaccination.

45
Q

What to Do if the Baby Is Affected by an Inadvertent Vaccination
Steps to Address Potential Fetal Effects and How to Know if the Baby Is Affected by Inadvertent Vaccination
Indicators of Potential Fetal Impact:

A

How to Know if the Baby Is Affected by Inadvertent Vaccination
Indicators of Potential Fetal Impact:

  1. Ultrasound Findings:
    - Abnormalities in fetal anatomy (e.g., cardiac or neural anomalies).
    - Signs of fetal infection like abnormal fluid accumulation (hydrops fetalis).
  2. Maternal Symptoms or History:
    - Symptoms of infection in the mother could indicate possible fetal exposure.
  3. Serological Evidence:
    - Maternal or fetal blood tests showing active infection (e.g., PCR testing for specific pathogens).

Reassurance:
Most live-virus vaccines (e.g., MMR or varicella) pose only a theoretical risk during pregnancy, and significant fetal harm is rare based on current data.

What to do if the baby is affected by an Inadvertent Vaccination
Consult a Specialist:
Involve a maternal-fetal medicine (MFM) specialist for detailed evaluation and management.

Monitor Pregnancy Progress:
Perform serial ultrasounds to assess fetal growth, anatomy, and development.
Look for structural anomalies or any signs of infection (e.g., hydrops fetalis or abnormal organ development).

Perform Additional Testing (if indicated):
Amniocentesis: Can detect certain congenital infections or abnormalities if there is significant concern.
Serological Testing: To check for maternal or fetal infection with the vaccine pathogen (e.g., varicella or rubella).

Counseling and Decision-Making:
Provide the parents with comprehensive information about risks and potential outcomes.
Offer psychological support and discuss options based on findings.

46
Q

Which of the following conditions is linked to mutations in the methylene tetrahydrofolate reductase gene?
a) Tay-Sachs disease
b) Neural-tube defects (NTDs)
c) Thalassemia
d) Phenylketonuria

A

Correct Answer: b) Neural-tube defects (NTDs)
Explanation: Neural-tube defects are associated with genetic mutations such as the 677C → T substitution in the methylene tetrahydrofolate reductase (MTHFR) gene.

Incorrect Answers:
a) Tay-Sachs disease: An autosomal recessive disorder common in Ashkenazi Jewish populations, unrelated to NTDs.
c) Thalassemia: A group of hemoglobinopathies caused by mutations in globin genes, not the MTHFR gene.
d) Phenylketonuria: A metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency in phenylalanine hydroxylase, unrelated to MTHFR mutations.

47
Q

Which of the following is the primary dietary intervention for women with phenylketonuria planning pregnancy?

a) High-protein diet
b) Folic acid supplementation
c) Phenylalanine-restricted diet
d) Iron supplementation

A

Correct Answer: c) Phenylalanine-restricted diet
Explanation: Women with phenylketonuria should adhere to a phenylalanine-restricted diet to reduce the risk of fetal malformations. This intervention should ideally begin three months before conception.

Incorrect Answers:
a) High-protein diet: High protein intake increases phenylalanine levels, worsening the condition.
b) Folic acid supplementation: Important for preventing NTDs but not the primary intervention for phenylketonuria.
d) Iron supplementation: Beneficial for anemia prevention but unrelated to phenylketonuria management.

48
Q

Which group is at higher risk for autosomal recessive disorders such as Tay-Sachs disease?
a) Individuals of Mediterranean descent
b) Southeast Asian individuals
c) Ashkenazi Jewish individuals
d) Individuals of Northern European descent

A

Correct Answer: c) Ashkenazi Jewish individuals
Explanation: Ashkenazi Jewish populations have an increased risk for several autosomal recessive disorders, including Tay-Sachs, Gaucher disease, and cystic fibrosis.

Incorrect Answers:
a) Mediterranean descent: Associated with thalassemia but not Tay-Sachs.
b) Southeast Asian individuals: High prevalence of thalassemia, not Tay-Sachs.
d) Northern European descent: Certain genetic conditions like cystic fibrosis are common but not typically linked to the Ashkenazi Jewish population.

49
Q

What is the recommended intervention for pregnant women who smoke?
a) Smoking cessation prior to pregnancy
b) Use of e-cigarettes during pregnancy
c) Reduction in smoking frequency during pregnancy
d) Continuing smoking if stress levels increase

A

Correct Answer: a) Smoking cessation prior to pregnancy
Explanation: Smoking cessation before or during pregnancy significantly reduces risks such as low birth weight, preterm birth, and stillbirth.
Incorrect Answers:
b) Use of e-cigarettes during pregnancy: Not recommended due to potential unknown risks of vaping.
c) Reduction in smoking frequency during pregnancy: While reducing frequency may help, full cessation is optimal.
d) Continuing smoking if stress levels increase: This increases risks to the fetus and is not a recommended approach.

50
Q

Why is IPV screening important during the preconception period?
a) It prevents low birth weight in all cases.
b) IPV screening is linked to reduced pregnancy complications.
c) IPV often escalates during pregnancy, increasing risks.
d) IPV is only relevant for women with a history of trauma.

A

Correct Answer: c) IPV often escalates during pregnancy, increasing risks.

Explanation: Intimate partner violence (IPV) can escalate during pregnancy, leading to serious complications such as hypertension, preterm delivery, and increased risk of homicide.
Incorrect Answers:
a) It prevents low birth weight in all cases: Screening identifies IPV but doesn’t directly prevent outcomes like low birth weight.
b) IPV screening is linked to reduced pregnancy complications: Screening itself doesn’t reduce complications but helps initiate interventions.
d) IPV is only relevant for women with a history of trauma: IPV can affect anyone, not just those with a prior trauma history.

51
Q

Which of the following is a complication linked to intimate partner violence (IPV) during pregnancy?
a) Hyperemesis
b) Gestational diabetes
c) Macrosomia
d) Postpartum hemorrhage

A

Correct Answer: a) Hyperemesis
Explanation: IPV during pregnancy is associated with complications like hyperemesis, hypertension, vaginal bleeding, preterm delivery, and low-birthweight neonates.

Incorrect Answers:
b) Gestational diabetes: Not directly linked to IPV but associated with metabolic or genetic factors.
c) Macrosomia: Opposite to low birth weight, this refers to larger-than-average fetal size, not related to IPV.
d) Postpartum hemorrhage: A potential pregnancy complication but not specifically linked to IPV.

52
Q

How does smoking affect fertility in women?
a) It decreases ovulation frequency.
b) It damages oocyte DNA and increases miscarriage risk.
c) It increases estrogen production, improving fertility.
d) It has no effect on fertility.

A

Correct Answer: b) It damages oocyte DNA and increases miscarriage risk.

Explanation: Smoking decreases fertility in women by damaging oocyte DNA, increasing the risk of miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, and accelerates menopause by 1-4 years. In men smoking impacts sperm quality. Smoking during pregnancy raises the risk of placental abruption and IUGR

Incorrect Answers:
a) It decreases ovulation frequency: Smoking affects DNA integrity, not directly ovulation frequency.
c) It increases estrogen production, improving fertility: Smoking reduces fertility and does not enhance hormone production.
d) It has no effect on fertility: This is false; smoking has a significant negative impact on fertility.

53
Q

Which congenital defect is most strongly linked to maternal smoking during pregnancy?
a) Cleft palate
b) Spina bifida
c) Clubfoot
d) Hydrocephalus

A

Correct Answer: a) Cleft palate
Explanation: Maternal smoking increases the risk of orofacial clefts (cleft lip and palate) by 1.5 times, as well as other defects like Poland sequence and limb reduction defects.

Incorrect Answers:
b) Spina bifida: Associated with folic acid deficiency, not smoking.
c) Clubfoot: Rarely linked to smoking and more likely influenced by genetic or positional factors.
d) Hydrocephalus: Not a known complication of smoking.

54
Q

Why is nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) not recommended during pregnancy?
a) It increases the risk of preterm birth.
b) It does not cross the placenta, rendering it ineffective.
c) It crosses the placenta and is not considered safe.
d) It is associated with gestational diabetes.

A

Correct Answer: c) It crosses the placenta and is not considered safe.

Explanation: Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) crosses the placenta and poses risks to the fetus, so it is not considered safe during pregnancy.
* Harmful Components: Nicotine, cyanide, carbon monoxide, lead,
cadmium, and other hydrocarbons.
* These substances are fetotoxic and have vasoactive effects or
reduce oxygen levels.

Incorrect Answers:
a) It increases the risk of preterm birth: Preterm birth is a risk of smoking, but the reason NRT is avoided is due to placental transfer.
b) It does not cross the placenta, rendering it ineffective: NRT does cross the placenta, which is why it is unsafe.
d) It is associated with gestational diabetes: No evidence links NRT to gestational diabetes.

55
Q

Which environmental pollutant is most strongly associated with fetal growth restriction due to placental accumulation?

A. Pesticides
B. Dioxins
C. Heavy metals (e.g., Lead, Mercury)
D. Particulate air pollution

A
56
Q

Which of the following statements about the perinatal microbiome is TRUE?

A. The perinatal microbiome is limited to the vaginal microbiome.
B. Microbial DNA has only been detected postnatally in fetal tissues.
C. A nutrient-rich maternal diet can positively influence the perinatal microbiome.
D. Antibiotic use during pregnancy does not affect the maternal microbiome.

A

Correct Answer: C. A nutrient-rich maternal diet can positively influence the perinatal microbiome.
Explanation:
C: Maternal diet directly shapes the microbiome, with probiotics and prebiotics contributing positively.

A: The perinatal microbiome extends beyond the vaginal microbiome to include the placenta, amniotic fluid, and fetal tissues.
B: Microbial DNA has been detected prenatally in amniotic fluid and fetal tissues, indicating microbial exposure before birth.
D: Antibiotic use disrupts the maternal microbiome and may negatively impact fetal microbial colonization.

What does the perinatal microbiome refer to?
The perinatal microbiome includes both the maternal microbiota (vaginal, gut, and possibly oral microbiomes) and the microbiota that colonizes the baby during and immediately after birth.

Does it include the vaginal microbiome?
Yes, the vaginal microbiome is part of the perinatal microbiome. During a vaginal delivery, the baby is exposed to and colonized by the vaginal microbiota, which significantly influences the baby’s microbiome development. If the baby is delivered via cesarean section, this exposure is bypassed, and the baby is colonized primarily by skin and environmental microbes.

57
Q

What is the FDA’s recommendation for NSAID use during pregnancy after 20 weeks of gestation?

A. NSAIDs are safe and require no monitoring.
B. NSAIDs should be avoided unless necessary, and amniotic fluid volume should be monitored if used for >48 hours.
C. NSAIDs should be discontinued by the end of the first trimester.
D. NSAIDs can be safely used throughout pregnancy without restrictions.

A

Correct Answer: B. NSAIDs should be avoided unless necessary, and amniotic fluid volume should be monitored if used for >48 hours.
Explanation:
B: The FDA recommends avoiding NSAIDs after 20 weeks due to risks of oligohydramnios and ductus arteriosus constriction. Monitoring amniotic fluid is crucial if NSAIDs are used beyond this point.
A: NSAIDs require close monitoring after 20 weeks, contrary to this option.
C: NSAIDs are typically safe in the first trimester and do not need universal discontinuation by that time.
D: This option overlooks the risks posed by NSAIDs in the later stages of pregnancy.

More info:
What do NSAIDs do to amniotic fluid?
Effect on amniotic fluid volume:
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) inhibit the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX), which is necessary for prostaglandin synthesis. Prostaglandins are involved in maintaining normal renal perfusion and urine production in the fetus. When NSAIDs are used:

They can reduce fetal urine output, leading to oligohydramnios (reduced amniotic fluid volume).
This risk increases with prolonged NSAID use (e.g., >48 hours) after 20 weeks gestation.
Effect on ductus arteriosus:
NSAIDs can prematurely constrict the ductus arteriosus, a critical fetal blood vessel, potentially causing pulmonary hypertension and other complications.

58
Q

What is the leading preventable cause of developmental disabilities worldwide?

A. Ethanol (alcohol)
B. Tobacco
C. Pesticides
D. Heavy metals

A

Correct Answer: A. Ethanol (alcohol)
Explanation:

A: Ethanol exposure during pregnancy leads to Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders (FASD), the leading preventable developmental disability globally.
B: Tobacco contributes to birth defects but is not the leading cause of preventable developmental disabilities.
C: Pesticides are linked to miscarriage and stillbirth but not preventable developmental disabilities.
D: Heavy metals cause developmental delays but are less preventable compared to alcohol exposure.

59
Q

Which herb is NOT listed as potentially harmful during pregnancy?
a) Cinnamon
b) Stinging Nettle
c) Aloe Vera
d) Ginseng

A

b) Stinging Nettle.
Explanation:
Stinging Nettle (Urtica dioica) is listed as having an unknown safety status during pregnancy, not as potentially harmful. This places it in a separate category from the herbs identified as explicitly harmful.

Cinnamon (Cinnamomum verum), Aloe Vera (Aloe barbadensis), and Ginseng (Panax ginseng) are all explicitly listed as potentially harmful during pregnancy.

Key Takeaways:
Herbs with unknown safety status, like Stinging Nettle, have insufficient research to confirm whether they are safe or harmful during pregnancy.
Potentially harmful herbs have evidence suggesting risks, such as uterine stimulation, hormonal effects, or toxicity.

60
Q

Which of the following is a potentially harmful herb for pregnant women?
a) Ginger
b) Pennyroyal
c) Cranberry
d) Chamomile

A

B) Pennyroyal

Potentially Harmful Herbs this was made in 2025:
1. Aloe Vera (Aloe barbadensis)
2. Ginseng (Panax ginseng)
3. Pennyroyal (Mentha pulegium)
4. Black Cohosh (Actaea racemosa)
5. Blue Cohosh (Caulophyllum thalictroides)
6. Thyme (Thymus vulgaris)
7. Parsley (Petroselinum crispum)
8. Cinnamon (Cinnamomum verum)

61
Q

Which of the following herbs has an unknown safety status during pregnancy?
a) Echinacea
b) Fenugreek
c) Garlic
d) Black Cohosh

A

Answer: b) Fenugreek

Herbs with Unknown Safety Status this was made in 2025:
1. Raspberry Leaf (Rubus idaeus)
2. Dandelion (Taraxacum officinale)
3. Stinging Nettle (Urtica dioica)
4. Fenugreek (Trigonella foenum-
graecum)
5. Licorice (Glycyrrhiza glabra)
6. Senna (Senna alexandrina)
7. Evening Primrose (Oenothera
biennis)

62
Q

Which of the following is considered a safe herb for use during pregnancy?

a) Ginger
b) Ginseng
c) Thyme
d) Licorice

A

Ginger

Ginger (Zingiber officinale):
Known for its anti-nausea properties, ginger is often used to alleviate morning sickness. Studies have shown it to be effective and safe for short-term use during pregnancy.

Peppermint (Mentha piperita):
Peppermint is commonly used for digestive issues like bloating and mild gastrointestinal discomfort, with no significant risks identified when consumed in moderate amounts.

Chamomile (Matricaria chamomilla):
Chamomile may help with relaxation and mild insomnia. It has a long history of use and is considered safe when consumed as tea in moderation, although caution is advised due to potential uterine stimulation in high doses.

Cranberry (Vaccinium macrocarpon):
Cranberry is often used to prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs). It is considered safe during pregnancy due to its lack of systemic absorption and its targeted action in the urinary tract.

Garlic (Allium sativum):
Garlic has antimicrobial and cardiovascular benefits. In moderate amounts used as a food ingredient, it is safe for pregnant women. However, excessive amounts may pose a risk of bleeding, so caution is advised in supplement form.

Echinacea (Echinacea purpurea):
Echinacea is commonly used to support immune function. Studies suggest it is safe for short-term use during pregnancy, although more research is needed.

63
Q

Which of the following is the recommended postpartum glucose screening timeline for women with a history of GDM?

A. 1–2 weeks postpartum
B. 4–12 weeks postpartum
C. 3–6 months postpartum
D. Annually starting 1 year postpartum

A

Correct Answer: B. 4–12 weeks postpartum: Correct. This is the recommended timeframe for postpartum glucose tolerance screening with a 75-g OGTT.
* Diagnostic thresholds:
* Fasting glucose: ≥7.0 mmol/L.
* 2-hour glucose: ≥11.1 mmol/L.

A. 1–2 weeks postpartum: Incorrect. This is too early for reliable glucose tolerance testing.
C. 3–6 months postpartum: Incorrect. Testing should occur earlier to detect persistent glucose intolerance.
D. Annually starting 1 year postpartum: Incorrect. Annual screening is recommended only for those with ongoing impaired glucose tolerance or risk factors.

High-Risk GDM Screening Recommendations:
* Early Screening:
* Offer screening during the first half of pregnancy if multiple risk
factors are present.
* Examples of risk factors:
* Advanced maternal age
* Obesity
* History of GDM or large-for-gestational-age infant
* Family history of diabetes
* Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
* High-risk ethnicity (e.g., South Asian, Indigenous, African).

64
Q

What is the recommended first-line treatment for acute-onset severe hypertension during pregnancy?

A. Oral nifedipine.
B. Methyldopa.
C. ACE inhibitors.
D. Low-dose aspirin.

A

A (Correct): Oral nifedipine, IV labetalol or IV hydralazine, is a recommended first-line treatment for acute-onset severe hypertension (≥160/110 mm Hg) due to its rapid action in reducing blood pressure.

B (Incorrect): Methyldopa is used for long-term blood pressure management but is not appropriate for acute settings.
C (Incorrect): ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects.
D (Incorrect): Low-dose aspirin is a preventive measure, not a treatment for acute severe hypertension.

65
Q

What is the purpose of administering magnesium sulfate in preeclampsia with severe features?

A. To reduce maternal blood pressure.
B. To prevent seizures.
C. To treat fetal distress.
D. To improve maternal kidney function.

A

B (Correct): Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent eclampsia (seizures) in patients with preeclampsia with severe features.

Explanations:

A (Incorrect): Magnesium sulfate is not an antihypertensive agent. Blood pressure is managed with other medications.
C (Incorrect): Magnesium sulfate does not address fetal distress directly.
D (Incorrect): It does not improve maternal kidney function.

66
Q

Which of the following is not required to diagnose preeclampsia in the absence of proteinuria?

A. Thrombocytopenia.
B. Renal insufficiency.
C. Severe headache.
D. Elevated liver transaminases.

A

C (Correct): Severe headache is a clinical feature of preeclampsia but is not part of the diagnostic criteria when proteinuria is absent. It indicates end-organ involvement but is not specific enough for diagnosis.

Explanations:

A (Incorrect): Thrombocytopenia (platelet count <100,000/μL) is a criterion for diagnosing preeclampsia without proteinuria.
B (Incorrect): Renal insufficiency (e.g., serum creatinine >1.1 mg/dL) is also a criterion.
D (Incorrect): Elevated liver transaminases are part of the diagnostic criteria.

Preeclampsia Diagnosis:
Diagnosis:
* Hypertension:
* Systolic BP ≥140 mm Hg or diastolic BP ≥90 mm Hg on two occasions at least four hours apart after 20 weeks’ gestation in a woman with previously normal BP.
* Severe hypertension: Systolic BP ≥160 mm Hg or diastolic BP ≥110 mm Hg.
* Proteinuria:
* ≥300 mg per 24-hour urine collection
* Protein/creatinine ratio ≥0.3 mg/dL
* Dipstick reading of 2+ (used if other methods unavailable)

PREECLAMPSIA
Absence of Proteinuria:
* Preeclampsia can be diagnosed without proteinuria if accompanied by:
* Thrombocytopenia (platelet count <100,000/μL)
* Renal insufficiency (serum creatinine >1.1 mg/dL or doubling of
baseline)
* Impaired liver function (elevated liver transaminases)
* Pulmonary edema
* New-onset cerebral or visual disturbances

67
Q

Which of the following is a high-risk factor for preeclampsia?

A. Age ≥35 years.
B. Nulliparity.
C. Autoimmune diseases (e.g., systemic lupus erythematosus).
D. Obesity (BMI >30 kg/m²).

A

**C (Correct): Autoimmune diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus are high-risk factors due to their significant impact on vascular and systemic inflammation, which predisposes to preeclampsia. **
Explanations:

A (Incorrect): Age ≥35 years is a moderate-risk factor for preeclampsia, not high-risk.
B (Incorrect): Nulliparity is a moderate-risk factor.
D (Incorrect): Obesity is considered a moderate-risk factor.

Risk factors for PREECLAMPSIA
* Age ≥35 years
* Black race or low socioeconomic status
* Family history of preeclampsia (mother or sister)
* History of low-birth-weight infant, adverse pregnancy outcome, or interpregnancy interval >10 years
* Obesity (BMI >30 kg/m²)
* Nulliparity

High Risk Factors for PREECLAMPSIA
* Autoimmune diseases (e.g., systemic lupus erythematosus,
antiphospholipid syndrome)
* Chronic hypertension
* Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes mellitus
* History of preeclampsia
* Multifetal gestation
* Renal disease

68
Q

What is the recommended first-line treatment for acute-onset severe hypertension during pregnancy?

A. Oral nifedipine.
B. Methyldopa.
C. ACE inhibitors.
D. Low-dose aspirin.

A

A (Correct): Oral nifedipine, along with IV labetalol or IV hydralazine, is a recommended first-line treatment for acute-onset severe hypertension (≥160/110 mm Hg) due to its rapid action in reducing blood pressure.

Explanations:
B (Incorrect): Methyldopa is used for long-term blood pressure management but is not appropriate for acute settings.
C (Incorrect): ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects.
D (Incorrect): Low-dose aspirin is a preventive measure, not a treatment for acute severe hypertension.

69
Q

When should delivery be recommended for a patient with preeclampsia with severe features?

A. At 37 weeks’ gestation.
B. At 34 weeks’ gestation after maternal stabilization.
C. Immediately, regardless of gestational age.
D. At 40 weeks’ gestation.

A

B Answer: B. At 34 weeks’ gestation after maternal stabilization.
B (Correct): For preeclampsia with severe features, delivery is recommended at ≥34 weeks after maternal stabilization because the risks of continuing the pregnancy outweigh the risks of preterm delivery.

Explanations:

A (Incorrect): Delivery is recommended at 37 weeks for preeclampsia without severe features, not with severe features.
C (Incorrect): Immediate delivery is reserved for cases of maternal or fetal instability, not all cases of preeclampsia with severe features.
D (Incorrect): Waiting until 40 weeks increases risks for both mother and fetus.

Delivery Timing for Preeclampsia:
* For gestational hypertension or preeclampsia at ≥37 weeks’ gestation:
Recommend delivery.
* For preeclampsia with severe features at ≥34 weeks’ gestation: Recommend
delivery after maternal stabilization.
* For preeclampsia with severe features before 34 weeks’ gestation: Consider expectant management based on shared decision-making and available resources; proceed to delivery if maternal or fetal condition deteriorates.

70
Q

What is the definition of chronic hypertension in pregnancy?

A. Hypertension present before 20 weeks’ gestation or persisting longer than 12 weeks postpartum.
B. New-onset hypertension occurring after 20 weeks’ gestation without proteinuria.
C. Hypertension after 20 weeks’ gestation accompanied by proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction.
D. Hypertension with systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure ≥110 mm Hg.

A

Answer: A (Correct): Chronic hypertension is defined as hypertension diagnosed before 20 weeks’ gestation or persisting beyond 12 weeks postpartum, distinguishing it from gestational hypertension or preeclampsia.

Explanations:
B (Incorrect): New-onset hypertension occurring after 20 weeks’ gestation without proteinuria, this describes gestational hypertension, not chronic hypertension.
C (Incorrect): Hypertension after 20 weeks’ gestation accompanied by proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction, this defines preeclampsia, not chronic hypertension.
D (Incorrect): Hypertension with systolic blood pressure ≥160 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure ≥110 mm Hg, this is severe hypertension is a subset of hypertension but does not define chronic hypertension specifically.

71
Q

When is low-dose aspirin recommended to be initiated in patients at risk for preeclampsia?
A. After 28 weeks’ gestation
B. Between 12 and 28 weeks’ gestation, ideally before 16 weeks
C. Before conception
D. At 20 weeks’ gestation

A

B. Between 12 and 28 weeks gestation, ideally before 16 weeks

Low-dose aspirin is recommended to reduce the risk of preeclampsia in patients with one high-risk factor or two moderate-risk factors.

Timing (12–28 weeks): Studies show that starting low-dose aspirin within this window is effective in reducing the incidence of preeclampsia, particularly when initiated before 16 weeks of gestation.
Why not after 28 weeks? Starting aspirin later may not provide the same benefit since key pathological changes in preeclampsia (e.g., inadequate placental development) occur early in pregnancy.
Why not before 12 weeks? There’s insufficient evidence supporting benefit if started too early, and earlier initiation might increase risks like bleeding.
Thus, the timing of 12–28 weeks, ideally before 16 weeks, maximizes its efficacy and safety.

72
Q

Which of the following is a potential maternal complication of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy?
A. Eclampsia
B. HELLP syndrome
C. Placental abruption
D. All of the above

A

D) All of the above

Complications Associated with Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy:
* Maternal Complications:
* Eclampsia (seizures)
* HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelet count)
* Placental abruption
* Stroke
* Organ failure
* Fetal Complications:
* Intrauterine growth restriction
* Preterm birth
* Perinatal mortality

73
Q

Which of the following scenarios necessitates immediate transfer of care?
A. Gestational hypertension at 36 weeks without severe features
B. Suspected HELLP syndrome
C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg postpartum
D. Preeclampsia at 39 weeks

A

B. Suspected HELLP syndrome (Correct)
HELLP syndrome can rapidly worsen and lead to severe maternal complications (e.g., liver rupture, DIC, placental abruption). Immediate transfer is critical to manage the condition effectively, including planning for urgent delivery if needed.

HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelet count) is a severe and life-threatening complication of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy that requires immediate specialized care. Here’s why each choice is evaluated:

A. Gestational hypertension at 36 weeks without severe features. Gestational hypertension without severe features at this stage can usually be managed conservatively. Delivery is generally recommended at 37 weeks, but immediate transfer is unnecessary unless there are signs of deterioration.

C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg postpartum
While postpartum hypertension requires monitoring, this reading alone does not necessitate immediate transfer. It can often be managed with antihypertensive medications and close follow-up.

D. Preeclampsia at 39 weeks
Preeclampsia at term is an indication for delivery, but this scenario typically doesn’t require emergency transfer unless severe features (e.g., BP ≥160/110 mm Hg, organ dysfunction) are present.

Thus, B. Suspected HELLP syndrome is the correct choice due to its potential for rapid progression and maternal-fetal complications.

74
Q

What percentage of women diagnosed with gestational hypertension may develop preeclampsia?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%

A

Answer: C. 50%

  • Up to 50% of women diagnosed with gestational hypertension may develop preeclampsia. Gestational hypertension with severe-range blood pressures should be managed similarly to preeclampsia with severe features due to comparable risks.
  • For comprehensive guidelines, refer to the ACOG Practice Bulletin on Gestational Hypertension and Preeclampsia.
75
Q

What is the most appropriate management for a pregnant client diagnosed with placenta previa?

A. Routine ultrasonography at 20 weeks, and discharge if asymptomatic
B. Abstain from intercourse and tampons in the third trimester if bleeding persists
C. Hospital admission for significant bleeding to prolong pregnancy until fetal lung maturity
D. Immediate cesarean delivery if asymptomatic

A

C. Hospital admission for significant bleeding: Ensures close monitoring and intervention to maximize fetal outcomes.

Explanation:
A. Routine ultrasonography at 20 weeks: This is appropriate for initial diagnosis, but ongoing management depends on symptoms and bleeding.
B. Abstain from intercourse and tampons: This is part of outpatient management for mild cases, not significant bleeding.
D. Immediate cesarean delivery: Not indicated unless there is persistent, significant bleeding or fetal compromise.

Management for Placenta Previa
- It’s often detected via routine ultrasonography before 20 weeks’ gestation, with nearly 90% resolving spontaneously.
- Asymptomatic patients can maintain normal activities but should undergo repeat ultrasonography at 28 weeks.
- If previa persists into the third trimester, pelvic rest is advised, and hospitalization is warranted if significant bleeding arises.

Hospital Admission for Placenta Previa
Initial Assessment:
Women with bleeding from placenta previa generally require hospital admission.
Goal:
Prolong pregnancy until fetal lung maturity is achieved.
Management Tools:
Tocolytic Agents (toco - labor, lytic - break down or suppress): Used safely for preterm contractions with bleeding. examples of tocolytics are magnesium and nifidepine
Corticosteroids: Administered at 24-34 weeks for lung maturity

How Corticosteroids Save the Baby in placenta previa
Corticosteroids (like betamethasone or dexamethasone) play a crucial role in improving fetal outcomes when preterm delivery is likely. Here’s how:

Accelerating Lung Development:

Before birth, fetal lungs lack enough surfactant, a substance that helps keep the lungs expanded for efficient gas exchange.
Corticosteroids stimulate the production of surfactant in the alveoli, improving lung function.
Reducing Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS):

RDS is a common complication in premature babies due to underdeveloped lungs.
Corticosteroids significantly reduce the risk of RDS and improve neonatal breathing capacity.
Protecting Against Other Prematurity-Related Complications:

Intraventricular Hemorrhage (IVH): Reduced risk of bleeding in the brain.
Necrotizing Enterocolitis (NEC): Improved gut maturity lowers the risk of this intestinal condition.
Why the 24-34 Week Window?
Before 24 Weeks:

The fetal lungs and other organs are not developed enough for survival, even with corticosteroids.
Surfactant production doesn’t begin until around 24 weeks, so corticosteroids would have minimal to no effect.

Between 24-34 Weeks:
This is the critical period where fetal organs, especially the lungs, are developing rapidly.
Administering corticosteroids in this window has the greatest benefit in improving outcomes for preterm infants.

After 34 Weeks:
By 34 weeks, most fetuses produce sufficient surfactant, so the routine use of corticosteroids is generally unnecessary.
Risks associated with corticosteroid use (e.g., potential growth restriction) may outweigh the benefits after this point.
Why Do Lungs “Start at 30 Weeks” Yet Steroids Help Earlier?
Lung Development Timeline:
Pseudoglandular Phase (up to 16 weeks): Basic lung structures form.

Canalicular Phase (16-26 weeks): Primitive airways and blood vessels develop; surfactant production begins around 24 weeks.

Saccular Phase (26-36 weeks): Alveoli (air sacs) form, and surfactant production ramps up significantly.

Alveolar Phase (36 weeks-beyond): Final lung maturation.

At 24-30 weeks: Surfactant production begins, but lungs are still immature and need support.
At 30+ weeks: Surfactant production becomes sufficient for survival, but corticosteroids can still help if preterm birth occurs earlier than expected.

Outpatient Management for placenta previa and Cervical Cerclage
Outpatient Management:
Appropriate for patients without active bleeding and with rapid hospital access.
Cervical Cerclage:
Proposed to reduce bleeding by preventing cervical dilation.
Cochrane Meta-Analysis: Reduced preterm birth risk before 34 weeks (RR = 0.45).
Further research recommended before widespread use.

76
Q

Which of the following statements about placental abruption is true?

A. Ultrasound reliably diagnoses placental abruption
B. Risk factors include hypertension, cocaine use, and abdominal trauma
C. Vaginal delivery is mandatory in all cases of fetal death
D. Neonatal mortality rates are typically under 5%

A

B. Risk factors include hypertension, cocaine use, and abdominal trauma: These are well-documented causes.

Explanation:
A. Ultrasound reliably diagnoses placental abruption: This is false as ultrasound has limitations in detecting abruption.
C. Vaginal delivery is mandatory in all cases of fetal death: This depends on maternal stability and gestational age. Emergency cesarean might be needed in some cases.
D. Neonatal mortality rates are typically under 5%: This is incorrect as the mortality rate can be 10-30%, especially with severe cases.

77
Q

Which condition requires a planned cesarean delivery at 37-38 weeks?

A. Asymptomatic placenta previa
B. Vasa previa diagnosed on transvaginal Doppler
C. Preeclampsia with severe features at 35 weeks
D. HELLP syndrome with fetal compromise

A

B. Vasa previa diagnosed on transvaginal Doppler: Requires cesarean at 37-38 weeks to prevent fetal exsanguination during labor.

Explanation:
A. Asymptomatic placenta previa: Cesarean is only planned after amniocentesis confirms lung maturity or significant bleeding occurs.
C. Preeclampsia with severe features at 35 weeks: Delivery timing depends on maternal and fetal status but may occur earlier.
D. HELLP syndrome with fetal compromise: Emergency delivery, regardless of gestational age, is warranted.

78
Q

Which statement about placenta previa is TRUE?
A. Nearly all cases of placenta previa diagnosed before 20 weeks persist into the third trimester.
B. Transabdominal ultrasound is the most accurate method for diagnosis.
C. Patients with asymptomatic placenta previa can maintain normal activity but need follow-up at 28 weeks.
D. Bleeding from placenta previa is typically painful and accompanied by uterine contractions.

A

C. Patients with asymptomatic placenta previa can maintain normal activity but need follow-up at 28 weeks: Correct. For asymptomatic cases, normal activities can continue with repeat ultrasonography scheduled at 28 weeks.

Explanation:

A. Nearly all cases of placenta previa diagnosed before 20 weeks persist into the third trimester: Incorrect. Up to 90% of cases resolve spontaneously as the pregnancy progresses.
B. Transabdominal ultrasound is the most accurate method for diagnosis: Incorrect. Transvaginal ultrasound is the most accurate diagnostic tool for placenta previa.
D. Bleeding from placenta previa is typically painful and accompanied by uterine contractions: Incorrect. Bleeding from placenta previa is usually painless unless complicated by labor or abruption.

what does previa mean in placenta previa

In placenta previa, the term “previa” comes from the Latin word praevia, meaning “in the way” or “lying before”.

This refers to the abnormal positioning of the placenta, where it lies low in the uterus and partially or completely covers the cervix (the opening to the birth canal). The placenta is “in the way” of the fetus’s exit, potentially obstructing vaginal delivery and causing complications like painless vaginal bleeding during pregnancy or delivery.

Types of Placenta Previa:
Complete Placenta Previa: The placenta fully covers the cervical opening.
Partial Placenta Previa: The placenta partially covers the cervix.
Marginal Placenta Previa: The edge of the placenta reaches the cervix but does not cover it.
Low-Lying Placenta: The placenta is implanted low in the uterus but does not reach the cervix.

Predictor of increased persistence of Placenta Previa:
* Complete previa.
* Later gestational age.
* History of cesarean delivery.
* Key Measurements:
* <1.5 cm overlap: Likely to resolve.
* ≥2.5 cm overlap: Likely to persist.
* Management:
* Normal activity with asymptomatic previa.
* Follow-up ultrasound at 28 weeks.

Symptomatic Placenta Previa
Timing of Bleeding:
Late second or third trimester.
Common Trigger:
Often follows sexual intercourse.
Characteristics of Bleeding:
Typically painless.
Pain may occur if labor or placental abruption is present.
Severity:
Initial bleeding (“sentinel bleed”) usually mild.
Rarely causes hemodynamic instability or fetal risk.
Caution:
Avoid cervical instrumentation or digital examination.

79
Q

When managing an Rh-negative patient experiencing antepartum hemorrhage, what is the appropriate intervention?
A. Administer corticosteroids between 24-34 weeks.
B. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin (Rhogam).
C. Perform immediate cesarean delivery regardless of fetal status.
D. Administer tocolytic agents to prevent preterm labor.

A

B. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin (Rhogam): Correct. Rhogam prevents alloimmunization in Rh-negative mothers exposed to fetal Rh-positive blood during bleeding events.

Explanation:

A. Administer corticosteroids between 24-34 weeks: Incorrect. Corticosteroids are used to promote fetal lung maturity but are not specific to Rh-negative status.
C. Perform immediate cesarean delivery regardless of fetal status: Incorrect. Cesarean delivery is indicated only if fetal distress or other obstetric emergencies occur.
D. Administer tocolytic agents to prevent preterm labor: Incorrect. Tocolytics are used for preterm contractions but are not directly related to Rh-negative management.

80
Q

What is a hallmark clinical sign of placental abruption that differentiates it from placenta previa?
A. Painless vaginal bleeding
B. Vaginal bleeding with uterine tenderness
C. Visible fetal vessels crossing the cervix
D. Persistent vaginal spotting after sexual intercourse

A

B. Vaginal bleeding with uterine tenderness: Correct. Uterine tenderness and painful bleeding are hallmark signs of placental abruption.

A. Painless vaginal bleeding: Incorrect. This is characteristic of placenta previa, not placental abruption.
C. Visible fetal vessels crossing the cervix: Incorrect. This describes vasa previa, not placental abruption.
D. Persistent vaginal spotting after sexual intercourse: Incorrect. This may be associated with cervical conditions like ectropion or minor causes of bleeding.

81
Q

Which diagnostic test is used to distinguish between fetal and maternal blood during hemorrhage?
A. Coagulation studies
B. Apt test
C. Transvaginal color Doppler
D. Hematocrit levels

A

B. Apt test: Correct. The Apt test identifies fetal hemoglobin in vaginal blood samples, helping to confirm fetal hemorrhage.

A. Coagulation studies: Incorrect. Coagulation studies are used to assess for clotting disorders, not to differentiate maternal and fetal blood.
C. Transvaginal color Doppler: Incorrect. This is used for diagnosing structural issues like vasa previa but does not differentiate maternal and fetal blood.
D. Hematocrit levels: Incorrect. Hematocrit levels assess maternal blood loss but do not differentiate between maternal and fetal sources.

82
Q

Which of the following is a primary risk factor for placental abruption?
A. In vitro fertilization (IVF)
B. Tobacco use
C. Cervical cerclage
D. Velamentous cord insertion

A

Correct Answer: B. Tobacco use
How does hypertension (including tobacco-related hypertension) cause placental abruption?
Hypertension damages the blood vessels that supply the placenta, leading to placental insufficiency and fragility of the attachment between the placenta and the uterine wall.
The chronic high pressure or sudden spikes in blood pressure can cause small blood vessels in the placenta to rupture, leading to bleeding behind the placenta.
This bleeding can form a hematoma (blood clot), which increases pressure and can shear the placenta away from the uterine wall—a condition known as placental abruption.
Tobacco use contributes to this because it causes vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels), exacerbating hypertension and reducing oxygen flow to the placenta.
Explanation:

A. In vitro fertilization (IVF): Incorrect. IVF is a risk factor for vasa previa, not placental abruption.
C. Cervical cerclage: Incorrect. Cervical cerclage is used as a preventive measure against preterm birth, not a risk factor for abruption.
D. Velamentous cord insertion: Incorrect. Velamentous cord insertion is a risk factor for vasa previa.

83
Q

Which of the following is the primary purpose of cervical cerclage during pregnancy?
A. To prevent premature rupture of membranes due to velamentous cord insertion
B. To reduce the risk of preterm birth by preventing cervical dilation
C. To manage placental abruption in women with chronic hypertension
D. To treat complications from placenta previa in the third trimester

A

B is correct because cervical cerclage is a procedure where the cervix is stitched closed to prevent it from opening too early, reducing the risk of preterm birth.

A is incorrect because cerclage doesn’t prevent complications from velamentous cord insertion.
C is incorrect because cerclage isn’t used to manage placental abruption.
D is incorrect because cerclage is not used to treat placenta previa.

84
Q

Why are these risk factors for major causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy
1. Placenta previa
2. Chronic hypertension
3. Multiparity
4. Multiple gestations
5. Older age
6. Previous Cesarean delivery
7. tobacco use
8. Uterine curettage

A
  1. Placenta previa
    Placenta previa occurs when the placenta implants over or near the cervix. The following factors increase its risk:

Multiparity (3): Multiple pregnancies lead to increased uterine scarring and vascular changes, which can affect the implantation site of the placenta.
Multiple gestations (4): With twins or higher-order multiples, the placenta requires more surface area and may implant in the lower uterine segment.
Older age (5): Advanced maternal age is associated with reduced uterine perfusion and a higher likelihood of abnormal placental implantation.
Previous Cesarean delivery (6): Cesarean scars alter uterine anatomy and increase the risk of abnormal placental attachment, including placenta previa and accreta.
Tobacco use (7): Smoking reduces uterine blood flow, which may impair placental implantation and increase the likelihood of previa.
Uterine curettage (8): Prior curettage (e.g., for miscarriage or abortion) can damage the uterine lining, making the lower uterine segment a more likely site for implantation.
2. Chronic hypertension
Chronic hypertension is primarily a risk factor for placental abruption, which involves the premature detachment of the placenta from the uterine wall. Hypertension causes chronic vascular injury, leading to:

Impaired placental perfusion.
Development of small placental infarcts and weakened attachment.
Increased risk of placental detachment due to sudden changes in blood pressure.
3. Multiparity
Multiparity increases the risk of both placenta previa and placental abruption due to:

Placenta previa: Repeated pregnancies can cause uterine scarring (from prior deliveries) and structural changes, making the lower uterine segment a more likely site for implantation.
Placental abruption: Uterine overdistension from multiple pregnancies can impair placental attachment and make abruptions more likely.
4. Multiple gestations
Carrying twins or higher-order multiples significantly increases the risk of both placenta previa and placental abruption due to:

Increased placental size or need for multiple placentas, which raises the likelihood of one implanting abnormally (placenta previa).
Uterine overdistension, which can lead to vascular strain and make abruptions more likely.
5. Older age
Advanced maternal age (35 years or older) is associated with an increased risk of both placenta previa and placental abruption due to:

Reduced uterine and placental vascular elasticity, leading to abnormal implantation.
Higher likelihood of pre-existing uterine or vascular conditions that contribute to complications.
A higher frequency of scarring or uterine surgeries in older women.
6. Previous Cesarean delivery
Cesarean sections increase the risk of placenta previa because:

Scarring from previous surgeries can disrupt the normal uterine lining, making implantation in the lower uterine segment more likely.
Cesarean scars can also predispose to abnormal placental attachment, including placenta accreta.
This risk extends to placental abruption in cases of uterine rupture, which may occur along a prior cesarean scar.

  1. Tobacco use
    Smoking increases the risk of placenta previa and placental abruption due to:

Reduced uterine blood flow and vascular abnormalities, leading to improper placental implantation (placenta previa).
Chronic inflammation and damage to placental attachment sites, increasing the risk of abruption.
Increased risk of poor fetal and placental growth, which may weaken the placental interface.
8. Uterine curettage
Uterine curettage increases the risk of placenta previa and placental abruption due to:

Scarring and damage to the endometrium, which may reduce suitable implantation sites in the upper uterus, forcing the placenta to implant lower (placenta previa).
Weakened uterine tissue integrity, making the placental attachment more prone to detachment (placental abruption).
Summary:
These factors are linked to late-pregnancy bleeding because they either impair placental implantation (placenta previa) or weaken the attachment of the placenta to the uterine wall (placental abruption). By affecting uterine or placental health, they set the stage for complications that can lead to significant hemorrhage.

what is uterine cutterage

Uterine curettage is a medical procedure in which the lining of the uterus (endometrium) is scraped or removed using a surgical instrument called a curette. It is often performed for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.

Types of Uterine Curettage
Sharp Curettage
The traditional method uses a metal curette to scrape the uterine lining manually.
Suction Curettage (Vacuum Aspiration)
A gentler method where suction is used to remove tissue from the uterus.
Indications for Uterine Curettage
Diagnostic Uses

To investigate abnormal uterine bleeding.
To evaluate for uterine conditions like endometrial hyperplasia or cancer.
Therapeutic Uses

To remove retained products of conception after miscarriage or delivery.
To treat incomplete abortion.
To manage abnormal uterine bleeding or heavy menstrual bleeding.
To remove molar pregnancies (abnormal tissue growth in the uterus).

Risks and Complications
While generally safe, uterine curettage can occasionally lead to complications:

Uterine scarring (Asherman’s syndrome): This can cause infertility or irregular periods.
Perforation of the uterus: Rare but serious, requiring further surgical repair.
Infection: If the procedure introduces bacteria into the uterus.
Hemorrhage: Excessive bleeding during or after the procedure.