Pre-Test: Trauma and Shock Flashcards
A teenage boy falls from his bicycle and is run over by a truck. On arrival in the ER, he is awake, alert, and is frightened but in no distress. CXR = air-fluid level in the left lower lung field and NGT coils upward into the left chest. Which of the following is the next best step in his mgmt?
a. Placement of left chest tube
b. Thoracotomy
c. Laparotomy
d. Esophagogastroscopy
e. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
c. Laparotomy
Pt has acute diaphragmatic rupture –> immediate laparotomy –> examine of intra-abdominal solid and hollow viscera for associated injuries and for exposure of diaphragm to repair
CXR findings + NGT entering it after blunt trauma = diagnostic of diaphragmatic rupture with gastric herniation into chest
A 65 y/o man falls and fractures the 3rd, 4th, and 5th ribs in the left anterolateral chest. CXR is otherwise normal. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in his mgmt?
a. Admission to the hospital and treatment with oral analgesia
b. Tube thoracostomy
c. Placement of epidural for pain mgmt
d. Surgical fixation of ribs
c. Placement of epidural for pain mgmt
Pts with lower rib fractures may have associated abdominal injuries –> undergo proper eval (U/S, CT, or peritoneal lavage)
Epidural catheters, continuous narcotic infusions, patient-controlled analgesia = most effective methods for ensuring pain control in hospitalized pts with rib fractures
- Pts with minor fractures –> go home with oral analgesia
- Tube thoracostomy –> pneumothorax
- Surgical fixation –> not needed, ribs heal spontaneously
A 36 y/o man who was hit by a car presents to the ER with hypotension. On exam, he has tenderness and ruising over his left lateral chest below the nipple. An U/S exam is performed and reveals free fluid in the abdomen. What is the most likely organ to have been injured in this pt?
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Spleen
d. Intestine
e. Pancreas
c. Spleen
Most likely organ to be damaged in blunt abdominal trauma (then liver)
A 52 y/o man is pinned against a loading dock. The patient has a fractured femur, a pelvic fracture, a tender abdomen, and no pulses in the R foot with minimal tissue damage to the R leg. Angiography discloses a popliteal artery injury with obstruction. At surgery, the popliteal vein is also transected. His BP is 85/60 mm Hg. Which of the following is the best mgmt strategy for his vascular injuries?
a. Repair of popliteal vein with simple closure
b. Repair of popliteal vein with saphenous vein patch
c. Ligation of popliteal vein
c. Ligation of popliteal vein
Ligation rather than venous repair is treatment of choice in hemodynamically unstable pts
A 27 y/o man sustains a single gunshot wound to the left thigh. In the ER, he is noted to have a large hematoma of his medial thigh. He complains of paresthesias in his left foot. On exam, there are weak pulses palpable distal to the injury and the patient is unable to move his foot. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial mgmt of this pt?
a. Angiography
b. Immediate exploration and repair in the OR
c. Fasciotomy of the anterior compartment of the calf
d. Observation for resolution of spasm
e. Local wound exploration at the bedside
b. Immediate exploration and repair in the OR
Mandated for acute arterial insufficiency in the presence of neurologic symptoms
Exploration is indicated in the presence of “hard signs”:
- Expanding hematoma
- Pulsatile bleeding
- Audible bruit
- Palpable thrill
- Absent distal pulses/distal ischemia
A 25 y/o woman arrives in the ER following an automobile accident. She is acutely dyspneic with a RR of 60 bpm. Breath sounds are markedly diminished on the R side. Which of the following is the best first step in the mgmt of this pt?
a. Take CXR
b. Draw blood for ABG
c. Decompress R pleural space
d. Perform pericardiocentesis
e. Administer IV fluids
c. Decompress R pleural space
Tension pneumothorax = life-threatening problem requiring immediate tx
Produces characteristic x-ray findings: ipsilateral lung collapse, mediastinal and trachel shift, compression of contralateral lung
A 17 y/o adolescent boy is stabbed in the L seventh intercostal space, midaxillary line. He presents to the ER with a HR of 86 bpm, BP 125/74, O2 sat = 98%.
Breath sounds are equal bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his workup?
a. Local exploration of the wound
b. L tube thoracostomy
c. Diagnostic laparoscopy
d. CT scan of the abdomen
e. Echo
c. Diagnostic laparoscopy
Diaphragmatic or abdominal injuries should be suspected in patients with penetrating injury below the nipples.
- CT scan has low sensitivity for diagnosing abdominal injuries in setting of penetrating trauma.
- Local wound exploration is contraindicated in penetrating trauma to chest, given risk of creating a pneumothorax
Your hospital is conducting an ongoing research study involving the hormonal response to trauma. Blood is drawn regularly for various studies. Which of the following values are likely to be seen after a healthy 36 y/o man is hit by a bus and sustains a ruptured spleen and a lacerated small bowel?
a. Increased secretion of insulin
b. Increased secretion of vasopressin (ADH)
c. Decreased secretion of glucagon
d. Decreased secretion of aldosterone
a. Increased secretion of insulin
Though the immediate release of catecholamines causes a transient drop in insulin levels, shortly thereafter, there is a significant rise in plasma insulin levels in injured humans. Because of increased peripheral insulin resistance in conjunction with increased insulin production, the overall net effect after severe injury is hyperglycemia.
You evaluate an 18 y/o man who sustained a R-sided cervical laceration during a gang fight. Your intern suggests nonoperative mgmt and observation. Which of the following is a relative, rather than an absolute, indication for neck exploration?
a. Expanding hematoma
b. Dysphagia
c. Dysphonia
d. Pneumothorax
e. Hemoptysis
d. Pneumothorax
Acute signs of airway distress (stridor, hoarseness, dysphonia), visceral injury (subq air, hemoptysis, dysphagia), hemorrhage (expanding hematoma) and neurologic symptoms referable to carotid injury (stroke or AMS), require formal neck exploration.
Pneumothorax would mandate chest tube first.
Following blunt abdominal trauma, a 12 y/o girl develops upper abdominal pain, N/V. An upper GI series reveals a total obstruction of the duodenum with a coiled spring appearance in the 2nd and 3rd portions. In the absence of other suspected injuries, which of the following is the most appropriate mgmt of this pt?
a. Gastrojejunostomy
b. NG suction and observation
c. Duodenal resection
d. TPN to increase the size of retroperitoneal fat pad
e. Duodenojejunostomy
b. NG tube and suction
Duodenal hematomas result from blunt abdominal trauma, and they should be managed initially with observation in pts not undergoing laparotomy to r/o other associated injuries
Upper GI series is almost always diagnostic
Majority of duodenal hematomas resolve spontaneously
A 45 y/o man presents after a high-speed MVC. He has a seatbelt sign across his neck and chest with an ecchymosis over his L neck. He is hemodynamically stable and neurologically intact. A CT angiogram shows a left carotid dissection. In the absence of other significant injuries, what is the next step in his mgmt?
a. Antiplatelet therapy
b. Systemic anticoagulation with heparin
c. Neck exploration and L carotid artery repair
d. Angiography and L carotid artery stenting
b. Blunt carotid artery injuries should be treated with full systemic anticoagulation in the absence to any contraindications to prevent stroke.
While surgery/stenting have all been used to treat carotid injruies, none are the standard of care in the neurologically intact patient without any hard signs (e.g. expanding hematoma, bruit, thrill, active bleeding)
A 28 y/o man is brought to the ER for a severe head injury after a fall. He was intubated in the field for his decreased level of consciousness. He is tachycardic and hypotensive. On exam, he is noted to have an obvious skull fracture and his R pupil is dilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate method for initially reducing his ICP?
a. Elevation of the head of the bed
b. Lasix infusion
c. Mannitol infusion
d. IV dexamethasone
e. Hyperventilation
e. Hyperventilation
Emergency measures to reduce ICP include hyperventilation, mannitol infusion, and elevation of the head of the bed (reverse Trendelenburg).
However, in the face of inadequate volume resuscitation, all others may exacerbate patient’s hypotension.
A 31 y/o man is brought to the ER following an automobile accident in which his chest struck the steering wheel. Exam reveals stable vital signs and no evidence of respiratory distress, but the patient exhibits multiple palpable rib fractures and paradoxical movement of the R side of the chest. CXR shows no evidence of pneumothorax or hemothorax. Which of the following is the most appropriate initlal mgmt of this pt?
a. Intubation, mechanical ventilation, PEEP
b. Stabilization of the chest wall with sandbags
c. Immediate operative stabilization
d. Pain control, chest physiotherapy, close observation
e. Mgmt of flail chest consists of adequate analgesia, chest physiotherapy, mechnical ventilation if respiratory compromise develops.
A 75 y/o man with hx CAD, HTN, DM undergoes a R hemicolectomy for colon cancer. On POD2, he complains of SOB and chest pain. He becomes hypotensive with depressed mental status and is immediately transferred to the ICU. After intubation and placement on mechanical ventilation, an echo confirms cardiogenic shock. A central venous catheter is placed that demonstrates a CVP of 18 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial mgmt strategy?
a. Additional L fluid bolus
b. Inotropic support
c. Mechanical circulatory support with intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP)
d. Cardiac cath
e. Heart transplant
b. Inotropic support
Cardiogenic shock = circulatory pump failure –> substantial reduction in CO –> tissue hypoxia
Acute MI = most common cause of cardiogenic shock
Inotropic support indicated when profound cardiac dysfunction exists to improve cardiac contractility and CO –> dobutamine and dopamine = commonly used inotropes
A 22 y/o man is examined following a MVA. He has a R knee dislocation which is reduced in the ER. He has palpable pedal pulses and is neurologically intact. Which of the following is an appropriate next step in his workup and mgmt?
a. Measurement of ABI
b. Angiography of the R lower extremity
c. Prophylactic below-knee 4-compartment fasciotomies
d. Surgical exploration of R popliteal artery
a. Measurement of ABI
If <0.9… perform CTA