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Solo Eval > Pre-Solo Written Exam > Flashcards

Pre-Solo Written Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What personal documents and endorsements are you required to have while flying solo?

A

Government ID, student pilot certificate, medical certificate, and the proper logbook endorsement for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown.

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2
Q

What are your student pilot limitations regarding carriage of passengers or cargo and flying for compensation or hire?

A

Student pilots are not allowed to carry passengers, or property for hire or compensation, or for furtherance of a business.

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3
Q

Explain student pilot limitations concerning visibility and flight above clouds.

A

Uncontrolled below 1200 AGL - 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds
Uncontrolled between 1200 AGL - 10000 MSL - 1 mile visibility, 1000ft above clouds, 500ft below, 2000ft horizontally from clouds
Controlled from surface to 10000 MSL - 3 miles visibility, 1000ft above clouds, 500ft below clouds, 2000ft horizontally from clouds
Above 10000 MSL controlled and uncontrolled - 5 miles visibility, 1000ft above and below clouds, 1 mile horizontally from clouds

Class B - 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds

If flying above clouds, must be able to maintain a visual reference to the ground.

Night - 5 SM visibility

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4
Q

Who has the final authority and responsibility for the operation of the aircraft when you are flying solo?

A

Pilot in command

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5
Q

Describe appropriate preflight actions pertaining to a local solo flight.

A 
NWKRAFT
NOTAMs
Weather
Known ATC delays
Runway required
Alternates
Fuel requirements
Takeoff and landing data
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6
Q

During engine run up, you cause rocks, debris, and propeller blast to be directed toward another aircraft or person. Could this be considered careless or reckless operation of an aircraft?

A

Yes

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7
Q

You may not fly as pilot of a civil aircraft within ____ hours after consumption of any alcoholic beverage, or while you have ____% by weight or more alcohol in your blood.

A

8, .04

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8
Q

What are the general requirements pertaining to the use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses?

A

Pilots must use seatbelts during taxi, takeoff and landing, and en route unless it interferes with their duties. Shoulder harnesses must be worn during takeoff and landing.

Passengers must wear seatbelts during taxi, takeoff and landing.

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9
Q

What is the minimum fuel reserve for day VFR flight, and on what cruise speed is the fuel reserve based?

A

30 minutes at normal cruise speed

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10
Q
  1. A transponder with Mode C is required at all times in all airspace at and above ____ feet MSL, excluding that airspace at and below _____ feet AGL.
A

10000, 2500

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11
Q

What aircraft certificates and documents must be on board when you are flying solo?

A 
ARROWEC
Airworthiness certificate
Registration certificate
Radio license (if international)
Operator's handbook (AFM/POH)
Weight and balance
External data plate
Compass deviation card
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12
Q

No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a(n) ____________________.

A

Collision hazard

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13
Q

Who has the right-of-way when two aircraft are on final approach to land at the same time?

A

The lower aircraft

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14
Q

What action do you need to take if you are overtaking another aircraft and which aircraft has the right-of-way?

A

You must deviate course to the right. The slower aircraft has the right of way.

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15
Q

What should you do if you are flying a head-on collision course with another aircraft? If another single-engine airplane is converging from the right, who has the right-of-way?

A

Head on - Both aircraft must deviate course to the right. Converging - The aircraft on the right has the right of way.

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16
Q

Except when necessary for takeoffs and landings, what are the minimum safe altitudes when flying over congested and other than congested areas?

A

1000ft over the highest obstacle within a 2000ft horizontal radius over congested areas. 500ft AGL in non-congested areas. 500ft away from any person or object over water or sparsely populated areas.

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17
Q

List the memory items for an engine failure shortly after takeoff, in the traffic pattern, and in cruise flight

A

Shortly after takeoff - Pitch for best glide speed (76), look for best place to land, throttle closed, mixture idle cutoff, fuel selector off, magnetos off, battery master off, flaps adjust, land at lowest possible airspeed straight ahead and avoid obstacles
Traffic pattern - ABCDE - Airspeed (76) - Best place to land - Checklist - Declare an emergency - ELT and execute power off landing
Cruise flight - ABCDE

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18
Q

According to the Airplane Flying Handbook, how much altitude would a typical airplane lose if it attempted a 180° turn back to the runway shortly after takeoff (page 18-7)? Describe ATP procedure regarding 180° turns during an engine failure during takeoff.

A

If at 300ft AGL beginning the turn, 1316ft. ATP policy prohibits 180 degree turns back to the runway.

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19
Q

Describe how pilot actions may differ between an engine failure and a partial loss of power.

A

Engine failure - ABCDE
Partial loss - Pilot must decide to continue flight or to make an emergency landing. If time permits, troubleshoot as to why the partial loss of power, i.e. enrichen mixture, turn carb heat on, check fuel flow and amount remaining, etc.

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20
Q

When is a go-around appropriate?

A
  • Unstable approach
  • Floating beyond 1000’ of the runway threshold
  • Ballooning
  • Bouncing
  • Attempted nosewheel touchdown
  • Off centerline
  • Not longitudinally aligned
  • Excessive AOA
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21
Q

List the minimum equipment and instruments that must be working properly in your aircraft for day VFR flight.

A

ATOMATOFLAMES
Airspeed indicator
Tachometer for each engine
Oil pressure gauge for each engine using a pressure system
Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine
Altimeter
Temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine
Oil temperature gauge for each air cooled engine
Fuel gauge for each tank
Landing gear extension lights
Anti-collision lights
Magnetic compass
ELT
Seatbelts and shoulder harnesses

22
Q

Define each of the following V-speeds and give the corresponding speed for your training airplane.

A

VSO - Power off stall speed in landing configuration - 45
VS - Power off stall speed in clean configuration - 50
Vx - Best angle of climb speed - 64
Vy - Best rate of climb speed - 76
Va - Maneuvering speed at 1634 lbs - 89
Vfe - Max flaps extended speed - 102
Va - Maneuvering speed at 2550 lbs - 113
Vno - Max structural cruising speed - 125
Vne - Never exceed speed - 154

23
Q

What is the best glide speed for your training airplane?

A

76 knots

24
Q

The total usable fuel capacity for your aircraft is ____ gallons. On a standard day (sea level temperature 59° F, altimeter 29.92 in. Hg), the fuel consumption rate during normal (approximately 75% power) cruise is ____ gallons per hour.

A

48 gallons. 10 GPH

25
Q

What grade(s) of fuel can be safely used in your aircraft? What are the colors of the recommended fuels? What happens to the color of the fuel if two grades are mixed?

A

100 avgas - green and 100LL avgas - blue. The colors will cancel out and it will become clear?

26
Q

The maximum oil capacity of your aircraft is ____ quarts, and the minimum oil capacity to begin a flight is ____ quarts.

A

8 qt, 2 qt

27
Q

The maximum crosswind component specified by your instructor for solo takeoffs and landings in the training aircraft is ____ knots.

A

5 knots

28
Q

When do you use carburetor heat during normal operations?

A

To test RPM drop during run up, and when carburetor ice is suspected.

29
Q

Describe the indications of carburetor icing and the appropriate pilot action if carburetor ice is suspected.

A

Engine running rough and/or RPM drop. Turn carburetor heat on fully and adjust mixture for maximum smoothness.

30
Q

What is the takeoff and landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle for your aircraft at your airport? Assume maximum certificated takeoff weight, 80° F, winds calm, and an altimeter setting of 29.52 in. Hg.

A

Takeoff - 2300ft - Landing - 1300ft

31
Q

What are the traffic patterns for each runway at your airport? What is the MSL altitude for the traffic pattern?

A

Left traffic for both 05/23 and 13/31 unless otherwise stated by ATC. 1187 MSL

32
Q

How do you enter and exit the traffic pattern at your airport? What, if any, radio communications are required?

A

Call ATC and let them know you’re inbound for landing. At a non-towered airport, enter at a 45 degree to the downwind leg at midfield, or overfly the field 500ft above TPA, then make a teardrop turn to 45 degrees to the downwind leg at midfield.

33
Q

What radio calls are recommended in the traffic pattern at an uncontrolled airport? What radio calls are required at your airport?

A

All turns - crosswind, downwind, base and final, when inbound for the traffic pattern/landing at 10 NM out, departing the airport and when taking the active runway. Reporting midfield downwind, and read back any calls made by ATC.

34
Q

What is the standard direction of turns in the traffic pattern? Give an example of a visual display indicating a nonstandard traffic pattern.

A

Left turns. In the chart supplement, right traffic will be noted next to the runway, or on a sectional chart, RP will be noted with the runway number.

35
Q

What is CTAF? Explain CTAF procedures at your training airport(s).

A

Common traffic advisory frequency. CTAF at KMMU only when the tower is closed. A CTAF is used at non-towered airports for pilots to communicate and call out intentions near and in the traffic pattern.

36
Q

How can you determine if a runway is closed?

A

White X’s painted on the runway, NOTAMs, or in the chart supplement.

37
Q

What are the typical dimensions of Class D airspace and what requirement(s) must be met prior to entry?

A

4 NM radius from the main airport and 2500ft above field elevation. 2-way communications must be established.

38
Q

What is the class of airspace at the airport where you will be conducting your first solo?

A

Class D from the surface to 2700 AGL, then class B from 3000-7000 AGL.

39
Q

If you receive ATC instructions that you feel may compromise safety or will cause you to violate an FAR, what should you do?

A

Deviate from those instructions and call ATC.

40
Q

What is the meaning of each of the following ATC light signals?

A

In air

a. Steady green - cleared to land
b. Flashing green - circle and return to land
c. Steady red - give way and continue to circle
d. Flashing red - airport not safe, do not land

On the ground

e. Steady green - cleared for takeoff
f. Flashing red - stop

41
Q

In addition to equipment requirements and a student pilot certificate, what other requirement(s) must be met before a student pilot is authorized to fly solo within Class B airspace?

A

Endorsement from an instructor

42
Q

Explain the general transponder equipment and use requirement(s) when operating within or near Class B airspace.

A

Mode C transponder with altitude reporting capability. Must be used inside of Class B, over the top of Class B, and within a 30 NM radius of the main airport.

43
Q

Describe Class B airspace boundaries and how they apply to an airport within that airspace. Explain how you can use navigation equipment and/or ground reference points to identify the Class B boundaries. (Draw a diagram, if necessary.)

A

2-3 shelves shaped like an upside down wedding cake extending up to 10000 MSL surrounding the busiest airports. Each is shaped individually to protect IFR traffic. Represented by a solid blue line on a sectional chart.

44
Q

You have called ATC just prior to entering Class B airspace, and the controller tells you to “Squawk 2466 and ident.” Are you now allowed to enter Class B airspace without any further instructions? Explain.

A

No, you must follow their request and wait for a clearance to enter their airspace.

45
Q

On a sectional chart, what does a dashed magenta line around an airport indicate?

A

Class E airspace from the surface up to 700 AGL

46
Q

Explain the minimum visibility and ceiling requirements for VFR flight in Class D airspace.

A

3 SM visibility, 1000ft above clouds, 500ft below clouds, and 2000ft horizontally from clouds.

47
Q

Can a student or recreational pilot request a special VFR clearance in Class D airspace when visibility is less than three miles? Explain your answer.

A

A student pilot cannot, but a recreational pilot can, by requesting a SVFR clearance from ATC.

48
Q

You have called ATC prior to entering Class C airspace, and the controller responds with your call sign and tells you to “Standby.” Are you now allowed to enter this airspace without any further instructions? Explain.

A

Yes, the controller said your callsign. This establishes 2-way communication.

49
Q

Describe the typical dimensions of Class C airspace. Is participation in the radar service mandatory within the outer area of Class C airspace?

A

An inner shelf forming a 5 NM shelf around the main airport, and an outer shelf from 5-10 NM from the main airport. However, many are individually shaped. No, participation is not mandatory.

50
Q

Describe the Class C boundaries that affect your airport or a nearby airport. Explain how you can use navigation equipment and/or ground reference points to identify the Class C airspace inner core surface area and shelf area, as well as the outer area. (Draw a diagram, if necessary.)

A

Normal shape with an inner ring from 0-5 NM extending from the surface to 1900 AGL, and an outer ring extending from 5-10 NM from 1900-4400 AGL. You can use pre-selected ground reference points to figure out when you are entering each shelf, or exiting the Class C, along with GPS.

Solo Eval (2 decks)

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