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Therapeutic of Nursing Care > Pre Quiz Questions > Flashcards

Pre Quiz Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

The urinary bladder muscle is innervated by the sympathetic nervous system, which carries motor impulses to the bladder and inhibitory impulses to the internal sphincter, causing the detrusor muscle to relax, the internal sphincter to constrict, retaining urine in the bladder.

TRUE

FALSE

A

false

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2
Q

When evaluating postvoid residual urine in the bladder using a bladder ultrasound, which of the following findings indicates that the bladder is not emptying correctly?
Residual of 40 mL

Residual of 60 mL

Residual of 100 mL

Residual of 120 mL

A

Residual of 120 mL

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3
Q

The following type of incontinence results from a weakening of the pelvic floor muscles:

Overflow incontinence

Functional incontinence

Stress incontinence

Urge incontinence

A

Stress incontinence

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4
Q

Which of the following involves the surgical resection of the small intestine, with transplantation of the ureters to the isolated segment of small bowel?

Ileal conduit

Cutaneous ureterostomy

Urologic stent

Continent urinary diversion

A

Ileal conduit

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4
Q

Which of the following transports urine from the bladder to the exterior of the body
Urethra

Ureter

Nephron

Detruser

A

Urethra

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5
Q

A sterile urine specimen is obtained by catheterizing the patient’s bladder or by taking the specimen from an indwelling catheter already in place.

TRUE

FALSE

A

true

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6
Q

Patients who perform intermittent self-catheterization should be taught to use a clean, nonsterile technique.
TRUE

FALSE

A

true

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7
Q

Patients with reflex incontinence experience emptying of the bladder without the sensation of the need to void.

TRUE

FALSE

A

true

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8
Q

A nurse documents that a patient has anuria when the 24-hour urine output is less than 400 mL.

TRUE

FALSE

A

false

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9
Q

Which of the following urine characteristics measures the density of the chemicals and particles in the urine and the ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine?

Turbidity

Specific gravity

pH

Constituents

A

specific gravity

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10
Q

Consumption of fats and cholesterol is necessary for support of brain health and the production of vitamin D.

TRUE

FALSE

A

True

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11
Q

Anorexia refers to a disorder characterized by intentional self-starvation and/or self-induced vomiting.

TRUE

FALSE

A

false

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12
Q

Patients with diabetes would likely be placed on which of the following diets?

Renal diet

Consistent-carbohydrate diet

High-fiber diet

Sugar-restricted diet

A

consistent-carbohydrate diet

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13
Q

Carbohydrates are more easily and quickly digested than protein and fat.

TRUE

FALSE

A

true

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14
Q

Nutritional concerns of this age group include loss of lean body mass, periodontal disease, loss of taste, dehydration, and constipation:

School-aged children

Adolescents

Adults

Older adults

A

older adults

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15
Q

Obesity is defined as body weight 20% or more above ideal weight or having a body mass index (BMI) of 30 or more.

TRUE

FALSE

A

true

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16
Q

Of the six classes of nutrients, which of the following is important for the regulation of body processes?

Protein

Carbohydrates

Water

Lipids

A

water

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17
Q

A nasogastric or nasointestinal route is usually selected when nutritional support is needed for 4 to 8 weeks.

TRUE

FALSE

A

false

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18
Q

When nutrition is provided intravenously, bypassing the gastrointestinal tract for patients who are unable to take fluid orally, it is referred to as:

parenteral nutrition

enteral nutrition

jejunostomy nutrition

NG nutrition

A

parenteral

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19
Q

Which of the following represents an individual who is considered a healthy weight?

19

18

25

30

A

19

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20
Q

The Valsalva maneuver may be contraindicated in people with cardiovascular problems because it increases blood flow to the atria and ventricles, temporarily increasing cardiac output.

TRUE

FALSE

A

false

21
Q

When assessing the abdomen, it is not necessary to auscultate in all four quadrants.

TRUE

FALSE

A

true

22
Q

Which of the following would not be included in a teaching plan for the promotion of healthy bowel habits?

Encourage upright position when defecating

Encourage low-fiber diet

Encourage regular exercise

Encourage fluid intake of 2,000 to 3,000 mL/day

A

Encourage low-fiber diet

23
Q

The function of this part of the digestive tract to secrete enzymes that digest proteins and carbohydrates.

The large intestine

The stomach

The small intestine

The esophagus

A

small intestine

24
Q

Intestinal bacteria must be completely removed to prevent the development of C. Difficile, a health care–associated infection that is resistant to treatment and highly contagious.

TRUE

FALSE

A

false

25
Q

Which of the following is a diagnostic stool test used to specifically detect bleeding in the lower GI tract?

Guaiac fecal occult blood test

Occult blood test

Stool culture

Fecal immunochemical test

A

Fecal immunochemical test

26
Q

Which of the following commonly used enema solutions takes approximately 30 minutes to take effect?

Oil

Soap

Tap water

Phosphate

A

oil

27
Q

Bleeding low in the intestinal tract or from inflamed hemorrhoids or fissures can result in the presence of:

black-colored stool

red-colored stool

clay-colored stool

yellow-colored stool

A

red-colored stool

28
Q

The most common symptom of pinworm infection is perianal itching because adult pinworms migrate to the anal area during the night to deposit eggs.

TRUE

FALSE

A

true

29
Q

An ileostomy allows liquid fecal content from the ileum of the small intestine to be eliminated through a stoma.

TRUE

FALSE

A

true

30
Q

Which of the following refers to the brand name of a drug, which is selected by the pharmaceutical company that sells it and appears capitalized in drug literature and clinical practice.

Generic name

Trade name

Chemical name

Marketing name

A

trade name

31
Q

The terms side effect, adverse drug reaction, allergic effect, or anaphylactic reaction all refer to the predictable secondary effects of medications.

TRUE

FALSE

A

false

32
Q

the universal name of a medication, which identifies the drug’s active ingredient, is the name assigned by the manufacturer that first develops the drug.

TRUE

FALSE

A

false

32
Q

Medications which are delivered outside the intestines or alimentary canal are referred to as which of the following?

Parenteral

Enteral

Intravenous

Subcutaneous

A

parenteral

33
Q

Which of the following refers to the potential response of the body when it becomes accustomed to the effects of a particular drug over a period of time, resulting in the need for larger doses of the drug to produce the desired effect?

Toxicity

Dependence

Displacement

Tolerance

A

tolerance

34
Q

The change of an active drug from its original form to an inactivated or new form is referred to as which of the following?

Absorption

Distribution

Metabolism

Excretion

A

metabolism

35
Q

Nurses have the right to refuse to administer any medication that, based on their knowledge and experience, may be harmful to the patient.

TRUE

FALSE

A

true

36
Q

Medication orders which can be administered on an as-needed basis with particularly clinical parameters are called:

PRN orders

STAT orders

routine orders

standing orders

A

prn

37
Q

The pharmaceutical class of a drug refers to the clinical indication for the drug or action of the drug.

TRUE

FALSE

A

false

38
Q

A common misconception is that response to medications may differ between people of different ethnic groups.

TRUE

FALSE

A

false

39
Q

Which of the following accounts for about 30% of the total body water?

Extracellular fluid

Intracellular fluid

Transcellular fluid

Intravascular fluid

A

Extracellular fluid

40
Q

Arterial blood gases are laboratory tests commonly used to determine the adequacy of oxygenation and ventilation, as well as in the assessment and treatment of acid–base imbalance.

TRUE

FALSE

A

true

41
Q

Cells that are surrounded by this type of fluid in the intravascular space will swell and possibly burst.

Hypotonic solution

Hypertonic solution

Isotonic solution

Osmolar solution

A

hypotonic

42
Q

Acidosis occurs when there is a lack of H ions or a gain of base (bicarbonate) and the pH exceeds 7.45.

TRUE

FALSE

A

false

43
Q

Major electrolytes found inside cells include potassium, phosphorus, and magnesium.

TRUE

FALSE

A

true

44
Q

Surgical hypoparathyroidism, vitamin D deficiency, and malabsorption are also causes of hypocalcemia.

TRUE

FALSE

A

true

45
Q

Which of the following blood types is considered the universal donor?

Type A+

Type B-

Type AB

Type O

A

type o

46
Q

The Which of the following electrolyte imbalances occurs when the sodium in the extracellular fluid is below 135 mEq/L?

Hypocalcemia

Hypomagnesemia

Hypokalemia

Hyponatremia

A

Hyponatremia

47
Q

Lactated Ringer’s intravenous solution contains multiple electrolytes in about the same concentrations as found in plasma.

TRUE

FALSE

A

true

48
Q

Which of the following pH findings would indicate the presence of acidosis?

7.5

7.4

7.3

7.8

A

7.3

49
Q
A

Therapeutic of Nursing Care (4 decks)

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