Pre-op Goals Flashcards

1
Q

What are the goals of the preoperative evaluation?

A

• Gathering necessary information about the patient and formulating an appropriate anesthetic plan.
• To make sure the patient is medically optimized to limit perioperative risks.

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2
Q

What should happen during the pre-anaesthesia evaluation?

A

• Review of medical record and determination of (ASA) status
• Physical examination, which at a minimum includes an evaluation of the airway, heart, and lungs.
• Discuss medical conditions, allergies, previous anesthetics, family history of problems with anesthesia,
and nothing by mouth (NPO) status.
• Review available pertinent medical records and order additional tests and consults if necessary.

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3
Q

Why is it important to ask about previous anesthetic complications?

A
  • A patient’s previous anesthetic experience may provide valuable information, which could change anesthetic management.

• Patients who have had a family history of malignant hyperthermia or fevers under anesthesia should receive a nontriggering anesthetic.

• Patients with history of PONV may benefit from preoperative medications, regional anesthesia and/or a TIVA technique.

• Patients with known difficult airways are often informed of this after receiving prior anesthetics and may recall the need to tell future clinicians when prompted.

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4
Q

Describe the ASA physical status classification.

A

It is a grading system is a 1 to 6 grading system quantitating a patient’s physical status immediately before a procedure. It is does not predict operative risk.

ASA I:
A normal healthy patient (e.g., a healthy, nonsmoker).

ASA II:
A patient with mild systemic disease (e.g., controlled hypertension, smoker, obesity, etc.)

ASA III:
A patient with severe systemic disease (e.g., compensated congested heart failure [CHF], COPD, morbid obesity).

ASA IV:
A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life (e.g., uncompensated CHF or COPD).

ASA V:
A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation (e.g., severe head injury, massive trauma).

ASA VI:
A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes

The addition of “E” denotes an Emergency surgery. An emergency is defined as existing when any delay in
treatment would significantly increase the threat of death and/or loss of body part.

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5
Q

Describe the ASA I classification.

A

A normal healthy patient without without organic, biochemical, or psychiatric disease

Adult
• Healthy
• Non-smoking
• No or minimal alcohol use

Paediatrics
• Healthy children with no acute or chronic disease.
• Normal BMI per age percentile

Pregnancy
• None

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6
Q

Describe the ASA II classification.

A

A patient with mild systemic disease without functional limitations.

Although pregnancy is not a disease, a pregnant patient’s physiological state is significantly altered from the nonpregnant state.

Adult

Paediatrics

Obstetric

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7
Q

Describe the ASA III classification.

A

A patient with severe systemic disease with substantial functional limitations.

Adults

Paediatrics

Obstetric

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8
Q

Describe the ASA IV classification.

A

A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.

Adult

Paediatrics

Obstetric

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9
Q

Describe the ASA V classification.

A

A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation.

Adult

Paediatric

Obstetric

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10
Q

Describe the ASA VI classification.

A

A brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes.

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11
Q

What are the preoperative fasting guidelines?

A

• Clear liquids—2 hours
• Breast milk—4 hours
• Infant formula, nonhuman milk, nonclear liquids—6 hours
• Light meal—6 hours.
• Full meal, fried or fat-rich foods—8 hours.
• Chewing gum — 2h. If swallowed 6h.
• Alcohol — 6h delays gastric emptying and decreases small intestine motility.

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12
Q

What is the exception of the NPO guidelines?

A

Emergency cases: should proceed regardless of NPO status.

Urgent cases: a discussion regarding the risk of waiting versus the risk of proceeding to surgery with a full stomach should occur.

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13
Q

When should coagulation studies be obtained preoperatively?

A

should be considered for patients with:
• History of a bleeding diathesis;
• Liver or kidney dysfunction;
• Those who are on anticoagulant medications.

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14
Q

During your pre-operative evaluation a patient is discovered to be pregnant / states that she’s pregnant.

What is the safest period to proceed with an elective procedure?

A

The second trimester (13-27 weeks) is regarded as the safest time for procedures because organogenesis has occurred and the risk of spontaneous abortion or preterm labor is lower.

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15
Q

During your pre-operative evaluation, when should you ask for an ECG?

A

Patients undergoing moderate-high risk surgery with:
• >= 65 years
• History of heart failure
• MI
• Coronary artery disease
• Valvular disease
• Arrhythmia
• Peripheral arterial disease
• Cerebrovascular disease
• Undergoing vascular surgeries.

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16
Q

Define what is MET.

A

MET = metabolic equivalent.

1 MET = the amount of O2 consumed in resting basal state (about 3.5 mL/kg/min).

17
Q

What is the importance of MET on the pre-operative evaluation?

A

• METS are used to evaluate the functional capacity of a patient.
• In general, patients who can perform more than 4 METS have a low risk for postoperative complications.
• Patients with < 4 METS have less functional capacity and a higher risk for postoperative complications.

18
Q

Describe from 1 to 10 METS what does it correspond to.

A

1 MET: eat, get dressed, go to the toilet.

4 METS: climb a flight of stairs (1-2 lances), walk 4 blocks.

4-10 METS: hard house work (brush the floors, pull the furniture around).

> 10 METS: practice sports (swimming, cycling, running).

19
Q

What are the clinical risk factors on perioperative cardiovascular evaluation of patients undergoing non-cardiac Surgery?

A

• Coronary artery disease
• Cerebrovascular disease
• Heart failure
• Cardiomyopathy
• Valvular heart disease
• Arrhythmias and conduction disorders
• Pulmonary vascular disease
• Adult congenital heart disease

20
Q

In regard to Stents (ACC/AHA guidelines).

Define:
• Acute coronary syndrome (ACS)
• Stable ischaemic heart disease (SIHD)
• Dual Antiplatelet Therapy (DAPT)

A

ACS
- Conditions that are consistent with myocardial ischemia/infarction (most often due to an abrupt reduction in coronary blood flow that can be due to partial or total blockage of a coronary artery). ACS includes:
• STEMI – ST elevation MI
• NSTEMI- Non-ST elevation MI
• UA- unstable angina

SIHD:
• People with a history of ACS who have been without recurrent symptoms for > 1 year.

DAPT
• Combination therapy consisting of Aspirin and a P2Y12 receptor inhibitor (clopidogrel, ticagrelor, prasugrel) to prevent stent thrombosis, major adverse cardiac events and ultimately reduce mortality rate.

21
Q

Following stent placement, for how long do patients take DAPT?

A

ACS
• Continue DAPT with aspirin and P2Y12 inhibitor (clopidogrel, ticagrelor, or prasugrel) for at least 12 months after PCI (DES or BMS).

SIHD
• Bare Metal Stent (BMS) – Continue DAPT (aspirin and clopidogrel only) for at least 1 month following PCI.
• Drug Eluting Stent (DES) – Continue DAPT for at least 6 months following PCI.

22
Q

Following stent placement, what is the management for:
- Elective procedures
- Urgent/ Emergent procedure

A

A. Elective Surgery
• BMS: surgery should be delayed for 30 days following PCI.
• DES: Should be delayed for 6 months following stent placement. (If risk of delaying surgery is > than risk of stent thrombosis, elective surgery can be performed as early as 3 months after PCI)

B. Urgent/Emergent Surgery
• The risk-benefit of stopping P2Y12 inhibitor should be discussed to weigh the risks of bleeding during surgery vs the risk of cardiac event occurring without DAPT.
• If P2Y12 inhibitor is discontinued, it is recommended aspirin be continued throughout the perioperative period and P2Y12 inhibitor restarted as soon as possible.

23
Q

What are the coronary cardiac interventions?

A

• Balloon angioplasty
• Coronary stenting (BMS or DES)
• Coronary artery bypass grafting surgery

24
Q

How are pacemakers placed?

A

Leads are placed in a transvenous fashion, either from the left subclavian (typical) or right subclavian vein.

25
Q

What are the indications for placement of a pacemaker?

A

• Symptomatic bradycardia
• 2nd-degree type II AV block (Mobitz type II)
• Complete, 3rd-degree AV block
• Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• Long QT syndrome
• Neurocardiogenic syncope