PRE-CSE 2 Flashcards
What is:
Explosive ordnance which has been primed, fuzed, armed or otherwise prepared for action, and which has been fired, dropped, launched, projected, or placed in such a manner as to constitute a hazard to operations installations, personnel or material and remains unexploded by malfunction, design, or from any other cause
UXO
What is:
Involves the investigation, detection, location, marking, initial identification and reporting of suspected unexploded explosive ordnance, in order to determine further action
EOR
What is:
The detection, identification, field evaluation, rendering safe, recovery, and final disposal of UXO. It may also include the rendering safe and / or disposal of explosive ordnance that may become hazardous by damage or deterioration when the disposal of such explosive ordnance is beyond the capabilities of personnel normally assigned the responsibility for routine disposal
EOD
What is:
Devices placed or fabricated in an improvised manner that incorporate destructive, lethal, noxious, pyrotechnic, or incendiary chemicals designed to destroy, disfigure, incapacitate, harass, or distract. They may incorporate military stores, but normally devised from non-military components
IED
List four options a commander has for dealing with a UXO
- Note the treat and continue normal operational actions
- Avoid the threat by diverting or suspending operational actions
- Destroy in place
D. Render Safe
In times of peace, who has primary responsibility for the render safe, removal and disposal of military EO, regardless of origin
Nearest available EOD asset
In accordance with the DEOP 116, what five phases or procedures are performed by EOD personnel
Access Diagnostic Procedure Render Safe Procedure Recovery Disposal
What is: EOD 1 EOD 2 EOD 3 9 Report GI017
Initial EO Report Comfirmed EO Report EO Intelligence Report UXO Spot Report Disposal action taken on task
What is the following category
The incident constitutes a grave and immediate threat. These incidents are to be given priority over all other incidents, and disposal operations are to be started immediately the EOD assets arrive regardless of personal risk. This category is normally assigned to incidents capable of causing mass destruction, widespread contamination, a major reduction of combat personnel or loss of critical installations and facilities
CAT A
What is the following category
This incident constitutes an indirect threat. Before beginning EOD operations, a safe waiting period may be observed to reduce the hazard to EOD personnel. This category includes items of technical intelligence value, such as items of ordnance never before encountered
CAT B
What is the following category
This incident constitutes little threat. These incidents will normally be dealt with by EOD personnel after Categories A and B incidents, and in such a manner as to ensure a minimum risk to personnel. This category is used for the majority of EOD incidents
CAT C
What is the following category
This incident constitutes no threat at the present time. Generally these incidents as such can be marked and left for disposal when time and resources permit
CAT D
List three catergories of explosion
Mechanical
Chemical
Atomic
Describe the Velocity of Detonation (VOD)
The speed at which a shockwave masses through explosive material
What are three causes of partial deonation
Poor contact
Deterioration of explosive material
Inadequate shock from the donor charge
What is extrusion
Thermal expansion of the HE filling, which forces the sealing composition out through the threads of filling plugs.
No damage in filling unless sustained temperature over 33 Degree C
Appearance of Cobblers wax
What are two catergories of High Explosives, provide 2 examples of each
Secondary High Explosives
- Detonators
- Lead Azide
Primary High Explosives
- PE4
- COMP B
Explosive trains intended to bring about the detonation of a HE charge are called what?
Disruptive trains
List three factors that have an influence over sensitivity and detonating velocity of an explosive
- Size of crystals
- Explosive Density
- Moisture absorbed by explosive
Main difference between monopropellants and bi propellants?
Mono
-Fuel and exidant contained in same liquid
Bi
-Fuel and oxidant separate liquids
In relation to NATO Colour codes what does the following indicate?
- Yellow Band
- Brown Band
- White Body
- Silver/alumininum body
- Black body
HE LE Illumination Countermeasures Anti-armour
NATO UXO that is grey in colour with green band can indicate what?
Chemical munition
Following symbols indicate? -White diamonds -Yellow triangle Parachute -Colour star -Squar with temp -RE squggly lines
- Flachettes
- Scatterable mines
- Parachute
- Star illumination
- Storage temps
- Radar Echo
HE is one category of bombs, what are four others?
- Chem
- Incendiary
- Fuel Air
- Prac
List four catergories of submunitions
Anti pers
Anti tank
Runway cratering
Area Denial
Four main types of long delay fuzing
Chemical
Materiel Creep
Clockwork
Electrical
Generic wait times for the following:
- Unknown missiles
- Unknown fuzing
- PTTF/Hand grenade
- 3 hrs
- 1 hr
- 30min
- The Piezo hazard is generally accompanied by __________ and ___________ hazards.
EMR
Static
Name three positions a fuse may be installed in a bomb
- Nose
- Tail
- Transverse
List 4 types of contents in carrier projectiles
- Smoke
- Submunitions
- Chem
- Illumination
True/False
Prox fuzes may have a graduated setting sleeve?
True
Name three purposes of pyrotechnics
- Screening
- Target illumination
- Signalling
- The warhead of a rocket contains the ____ and ____
warhead
fuzing system
True/false
28. The Booby Trap hazard does not apply to Projectiles and Mortars in previously enemy held territory
False
- When observing the Acoustic/Seismic hazard, do not talk or create vocal emissions within _____ of ordnance. Use full acoustic precautions within ______ of ordnance by restricting necessary noise or vibration to a period of _______ duration followed by a minimum ___ of silence. Move with _____ deliberate motions and avoid abrupt moves
30m 10m 1 sec 3 sec slow
What are the three main function of the Safe and Arming Device on Missiles?
- Safety breaks before launch
- Arms weapon
- Links fuse to warhead
What are the four step to apply when observing the piezo hazard?
- Don’t subject to sudden knocks/movement
- Move by remote means only
- Do not induce rapid change in temperature
- Fuse may initiate if moved at all
What specific hazard(s) should be considered if a chemically coloured gold aluminium plug is fitted to the charging well of an 80 series bomb?
magnetic
seismic acoustic
What are three characteristics of MT and MTSQ Fuses
Multi piece construction
May have time calibration scale
Settling lugs or slots
SQ/Delay setting
What are the four main components of a missle?
Warhead
Guidance
Control
Propulsion
What are three methods of anti wirhdrawls used on long delay pistols/fuses?
Clawed foot
offset groove
knife edge
True/False
If the SQ function has been selected on a MTSQ projectile fuze, the clockwork mechanism is disabled and a simple impact or inertia mechanism causes initiation.
False
Name 6 methods of protective works
Walls Surrounds Mounds Venting Trenching Buttressing
True/False
Trenching must be dug to at least 300mm below the installation to be protected.
False
What are two categories of landmines
Anti-personnel
Anti-tank
What two conditions must be satisfied before trenching can be used as a means of protection against earth-shock damage
located outside probable crater area
Within radius for earth-shock damage
Define the following:
- BODR
- HFD
- MFD-H
BODR
-Overpressure above ambient pressure in a blast wave at a given distance from the potential explosion site
HFD
-Minimum withdrawal distance for protection from hazardsous primary and secondary frag
MFD-H
-Range to which hazardous primary and secondary frag is not expected to travel beyond
What are four main methods of operation of time devices with respect to booby traps
- Pyrotechnic
- Mechanical
- Electrical
- Chemical
True/False
Anti-Handling Devices are not fitted to Anti-Personnel mines due to their small size.
False
True/False
When calculating the BODR using NEQ, always use the combined NEQ of all items as the total NEQ, excluding the Donor charge
False
True/False
In the event of an intentional detonation, the minimum distance non-essential personnel exposed in the open can evacuate to is 390m.
False
What are the two type of CW agents?
Toxic
Non-Toxic
What are four methods of entry for CW agents
Ingestion
inhalation
injection
absorption
True/False
HD, L and CX are all types of blood agents
False
What is the following GA GB GD DM AC CK HD L CX
GA - Tabun GB - Sarin GD - Soman CG - Phosgene - DM - Adamsite AC - Hydrogen cyanide CK - cyanogen chloride HD - distilled mustard L - lewisite CX - phosgenge oxime
True/false
miosis is a symptom of exposure to a nerve agent
False
What are three immediate steps to be taken upon explosure to a nerve agent
- Masking Drill
- Auto injector
- Pers decon
- ____ agents that interfere with the nervous system and thus disrupt essential body functions, for example breathing, muscular coordination and vision.
- _____ agents that prevent body tissues from using the oxygen in the blood.
- ____ that cause inflammation, blistering of the skin and superficial destruction of contaminated internal tissues such as the lining of breathing passages.
- ____ agents that attack the breathing passages and lungs.
Nerve
Blood
Blister
Choking
What is the difference between endotoxins and exotoxins
Endo - retained in the cells
Exo - secrected by the cells
True/False
An S10 respirator provides good protection for carbon monoxide gases.
False
What are three meteorological factors affecting biological agents?
- Wind speed
- Temperature
- Humidity
What are two effects of humidity on CW agents
Enlargement of skin pores allowing deeper penetration
Degrades protective suit
It is a clear night. The temperature is 32C at 2m and 28C at 0.3m. Is the weather better suited for a liquid or a vapour attack? Explain why
Vapour due to the inversion effects
What is worn/carried if you are at MOPP2 level?
Worn - Suit, boots
Carried - gloves, respirator
Op life for the following:
- Suit in non-contained environment
- Suit in mustard environment
- Suit in other agent environment
- Overboots in gross liquid
- NBC Gloves in gross liquid
- NBC Gloves if deconned within 15 min
- 30 days
- 6 hrs
- 24 hours
- 3 hrs
- 3 hrs
- 10 hrs
Four principles of contamination control
- Avoidance
- Limit the spread
- Weathering
- Decon
True/False
When mixing HTH, the chemical is poured into a suitable container and water is then added.
False
What is a hazard to beware of when mixing STB with liquid blister agent?
Fire
What are the four levels of decon?
- Immediate
- Operation
- Thorough
- Final
What are the five methods of decon?
- Weathering
- Flushing
- Burning
- Covering
- Neutralising
Define
- Inversion
- Neutral
- Lapse
Inversion
-When the air at 2m above the ground is greater than 2 degrees than at 0.3m
Neutral
-Constant temperature with an increase in altitude
Lapse
-Opposite of inversion
What is the four step decond process
- Decon
- Wait
- Rinse
- Check
What is one M8 paper can detect
G and V nerve agents
If M8 paper turned yellow, what would this indicate?
G series nerve agent
What is the IEDD philosophy?
- Save Life
- Preservation of property
- Return to normality
- Collect forensic evidence
Command IED systems are broken into two main groups, what are they?
- Linked
- Separate
List four types of VOIED
- Pull/trip
- Pressure
- Pressure release
- Movement
-List four types of time IED’s
- Igniferous
- Chemical
- Mechanical
- elec
True/False
A Hoax IED Incident is reported in good faith to be a suspect IED that upon full investigation proves to be totally innocuous.
False
What does the threat triad consist of?
- Type
- Aim
- Location
Intent of ADF IEDD doctrine
-Maintain a low rate of IEDD causalities despite an ever growing threat
What is the following?
-The discovery of a simulated IED or object deliberately placed to cause disruption
– An object reported in good faith to be suspected IED that upon investigation proves to be innocuous
-The discovery of explosives, weapons, ammo, tools, inert components or radio transmission equip attributed to IED facilitators
- Hoax
- False Report
- Find
During IED operations, when does a NOTAM need to be implemented
Prior to positive action
The _____ of IEDDO is to deny adversaries and criminals their objectives
Aim
The targeting of EOD Technicians and a high incidence of RCIED requiring ECM employment are 2 reasons that determine a HIGH THREAT theatre. List four (4) other reasons.
-Complex Devices
-Secondary device
-Come on tactics
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