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PRE-CSE 2 > PRE-CSE 2 > Flashcards

PRE-CSE 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is:
Explosive ordnance which has been primed, fuzed, armed or otherwise prepared for action, and which has been fired, dropped, launched, projected, or placed in such a manner as to constitute a hazard to operations installations, personnel or material and remains unexploded by malfunction, design, or from any other cause

A

UXO

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2
Q

What is:
Involves the investigation, detection, location, marking, initial identification and reporting of suspected unexploded explosive ordnance, in order to determine further action

A

EOR

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3
Q

What is:
The detection, identification, field evaluation, rendering safe, recovery, and final disposal of UXO. It may also include the rendering safe and / or disposal of explosive ordnance that may become hazardous by damage or deterioration when the disposal of such explosive ordnance is beyond the capabilities of personnel normally assigned the responsibility for routine disposal

A

EOD

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4
Q

What is:
Devices placed or fabricated in an improvised manner that incorporate destructive, lethal, noxious, pyrotechnic, or incendiary chemicals designed to destroy, disfigure, incapacitate, harass, or distract. They may incorporate military stores, but normally devised from non-military components

A

IED

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5
Q

List four options a commander has for dealing with a UXO

A
  1. Note the treat and continue normal operational actions
  2. Avoid the threat by diverting or suspending operational actions
  3. Destroy in place
    D. Render Safe
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6
Q

In times of peace, who has primary responsibility for the render safe, removal and disposal of military EO, regardless of origin

A

Nearest available EOD asset

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7
Q

In accordance with the DEOP 116, what five phases or procedures are performed by EOD personnel

A 
Access
Diagnostic Procedure
Render Safe Procedure
Recovery
Disposal
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8
Q 
What is:
EOD 1
EOD 2
EOD 3
9 Report
GI017
A 
Initial EO Report
Comfirmed EO Report
EO Intelligence Report
UXO Spot Report
Disposal action taken on task
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9
Q

What is the following category
The incident constitutes a grave and immediate threat. These incidents are to be given priority over all other incidents, and disposal operations are to be started immediately the EOD assets arrive regardless of personal risk. This category is normally assigned to incidents capable of causing mass destruction, widespread contamination, a major reduction of combat personnel or loss of critical installations and facilities

A

CAT A

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10
Q

What is the following category
This incident constitutes an indirect threat. Before beginning EOD operations, a safe waiting period may be observed to reduce the hazard to EOD personnel. This category includes items of technical intelligence value, such as items of ordnance never before encountered

A

CAT B

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11
Q

What is the following category
This incident constitutes little threat. These incidents will normally be dealt with by EOD personnel after Categories A and B incidents, and in such a manner as to ensure a minimum risk to personnel. This category is used for the majority of EOD incidents

A

CAT C

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12
Q

What is the following category
This incident constitutes no threat at the present time. Generally these incidents as such can be marked and left for disposal when time and resources permit

A

CAT D

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13
Q

List three catergories of explosion

A

Mechanical
Chemical
Atomic

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14
Q

Describe the Velocity of Detonation (VOD)

A

The speed at which a shockwave masses through explosive material

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15
Q

What are three causes of partial deonation

A

Poor contact
Deterioration of explosive material
Inadequate shock from the donor charge

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16
Q

What is extrusion

A

Thermal expansion of the HE filling, which forces the sealing composition out through the threads of filling plugs.
No damage in filling unless sustained temperature over 33 Degree C
Appearance of Cobblers wax

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17
Q

What are two catergories of High Explosives, provide 2 examples of each

A

Secondary High Explosives

  • Detonators
  • Lead Azide

Primary High Explosives

  • PE4
  • COMP B
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18
Q

Explosive trains intended to bring about the detonation of a HE charge are called what?

A

Disruptive trains

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19
Q

List three factors that have an influence over sensitivity and detonating velocity of an explosive

A
  • Size of crystals
  • Explosive Density
  • Moisture absorbed by explosive
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20
Q

Main difference between monopropellants and bi propellants?

A

Mono
-Fuel and exidant contained in same liquid
Bi
-Fuel and oxidant separate liquids

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21
Q

In relation to NATO Colour codes what does the following indicate?

  • Yellow Band
  • Brown Band
  • White Body
  • Silver/alumininum body
  • Black body
A 
HE
LE
Illumination
Countermeasures
Anti-armour
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22
Q

NATO UXO that is grey in colour with green band can indicate what?

A

Chemical munition

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23
Q 
Following symbols indicate?
-White diamonds
-Yellow triangle
Parachute
-Colour star
-Squar with temp
-RE squggly lines
A
  • Flachettes
  • Scatterable mines
  • Parachute
  • Star illumination
  • Storage temps
  • Radar Echo
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24
Q

HE is one category of bombs, what are four others?

A
  • Chem
  • Incendiary
  • Fuel Air
  • Prac
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25
Q

List four catergories of submunitions

A

Anti pers
Anti tank
Runway cratering
Area Denial

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26
Q

Four main types of long delay fuzing

A

Chemical
Materiel Creep
Clockwork
Electrical

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27
Q

Generic wait times for the following:

  • Unknown missiles
  • Unknown fuzing
  • PTTF/Hand grenade
A
  • 3 hrs
  • 1 hr
  • 30min
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28
Q
  1. The Piezo hazard is generally accompanied by __________ and ___________ hazards.
A

EMR

Static

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29
Q

Name three positions a fuse may be installed in a bomb

A
  • Nose
  • Tail
  • Transverse
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30
Q

List 4 types of contents in carrier projectiles

A
  • Smoke
  • Submunitions
  • Chem
  • Illumination
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31
Q

True/False

Prox fuzes may have a graduated setting sleeve?

A

True

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32
Q

Name three purposes of pyrotechnics

A
  • Screening
  • Target illumination
  • Signalling
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33
Q
  1. The warhead of a rocket contains the ____ and ____
A

warhead

fuzing system

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34
Q

True/false

28. The Booby Trap hazard does not apply to Projectiles and Mortars in previously enemy held territory

A

False

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35
Q
  1. When observing the Acoustic/Seismic hazard, do not talk or create vocal emissions within _____ of ordnance. Use full acoustic precautions within ______ of ordnance by restricting necessary noise or vibration to a period of _______ duration followed by a minimum ___ of silence. Move with _____ deliberate motions and avoid abrupt moves
A 
30m
10m
1 sec
3 sec
slow
36
Q

What are the three main function of the Safe and Arming Device on Missiles?

A
  • Safety breaks before launch
  • Arms weapon
  • Links fuse to warhead
37
Q

What are the four step to apply when observing the piezo hazard?

A
  • Don’t subject to sudden knocks/movement
  • Move by remote means only
  • Do not induce rapid change in temperature
  • Fuse may initiate if moved at all
38
Q

What specific hazard(s) should be considered if a chemically coloured gold aluminium plug is fitted to the charging well of an 80 series bomb?

A

magnetic

seismic acoustic

39
Q

What are three characteristics of MT and MTSQ Fuses

A

Multi piece construction
May have time calibration scale
Settling lugs or slots
SQ/Delay setting

40
Q

What are the four main components of a missle?

A

Warhead
Guidance
Control
Propulsion

41
Q

What are three methods of anti wirhdrawls used on long delay pistols/fuses?

A

Clawed foot
offset groove
knife edge

42
Q

True/False
If the SQ function has been selected on a MTSQ projectile fuze, the clockwork mechanism is disabled and a simple impact or inertia mechanism causes initiation.

A

False

43
Q

Name 6 methods of protective works

A 
Walls
Surrounds
Mounds
Venting
Trenching
Buttressing
44
Q

True/False

Trenching must be dug to at least 300mm below the installation to be protected.

A

False

45
Q

What are two categories of landmines

A

Anti-personnel

Anti-tank

46
Q

What two conditions must be satisfied before trenching can be used as a means of protection against earth-shock damage

A

located outside probable crater area

Within radius for earth-shock damage

47
Q

Define the following:

  • BODR
  • HFD
  • MFD-H
A

BODR
-Overpressure above ambient pressure in a blast wave at a given distance from the potential explosion site
HFD
-Minimum withdrawal distance for protection from hazardsous primary and secondary frag
MFD-H
-Range to which hazardous primary and secondary frag is not expected to travel beyond

48
Q

What are four main methods of operation of time devices with respect to booby traps

A
  • Pyrotechnic
  • Mechanical
  • Electrical
  • Chemical
49
Q

True/False

Anti-Handling Devices are not fitted to Anti-Personnel mines due to their small size.

A

False

50
Q

True/False
When calculating the BODR using NEQ, always use the combined NEQ of all items as the total NEQ, excluding the Donor charge

A

False

51
Q

True/False
In the event of an intentional detonation, the minimum distance non-essential personnel exposed in the open can evacuate to is 390m.

A

False

52
Q

What are the two type of CW agents?

A

Toxic

Non-Toxic

53
Q

What are four methods of entry for CW agents

A

Ingestion
inhalation
injection
absorption

54
Q

True/False

HD, L and CX are all types of blood agents

A

False

55
Q 
What is the following
GA
GB
GD
DM
AC
CK
HD
L
CX
A 
GA - Tabun
GB - Sarin
GD - Soman 
CG - Phosgene - 
DM - Adamsite
AC - Hydrogen cyanide
CK - cyanogen chloride
HD - distilled mustard
L - lewisite
CX - phosgenge oxime
56
Q

True/false

miosis is a symptom of exposure to a nerve agent

A

False

57
Q

What are three immediate steps to be taken upon explosure to a nerve agent

A
  • Masking Drill
  • Auto injector
  • Pers decon
58
Q
  1. ____ agents that interfere with the nervous system and thus disrupt essential body functions, for example breathing, muscular coordination and vision.
  2. _____ agents that prevent body tissues from using the oxygen in the blood.
  3. ____ that cause inflammation, blistering of the skin and superficial destruction of contaminated internal tissues such as the lining of breathing passages.
  4. ____ agents that attack the breathing passages and lungs.
A

Nerve
Blood
Blister
Choking

59
Q

What is the difference between endotoxins and exotoxins

A

Endo - retained in the cells

Exo - secrected by the cells

60
Q

True/False

An S10 respirator provides good protection for carbon monoxide gases.

A

False

61
Q

What are three meteorological factors affecting biological agents?

A
  • Wind speed
  • Temperature
  • Humidity
62
Q

What are two effects of humidity on CW agents

A

Enlargement of skin pores allowing deeper penetration

Degrades protective suit

63
Q

It is a clear night. The temperature is 32C at 2m and 28C at 0.3m. Is the weather better suited for a liquid or a vapour attack? Explain why

A

Vapour due to the inversion effects

64
Q

What is worn/carried if you are at MOPP2 level?

A

Worn - Suit, boots

Carried - gloves, respirator

65
Q

Op life for the following:

  • Suit in non-contained environment
  • Suit in mustard environment
  • Suit in other agent environment
  • Overboots in gross liquid
  • NBC Gloves in gross liquid
  • NBC Gloves if deconned within 15 min
A
  • 30 days
  • 6 hrs
  • 24 hours
  • 3 hrs
  • 3 hrs
  • 10 hrs
66
Q

Four principles of contamination control

A
  • Avoidance
  • Limit the spread
  • Weathering
  • Decon
67
Q

True/False

When mixing HTH, the chemical is poured into a suitable container and water is then added.

A

False

68
Q

What is a hazard to beware of when mixing STB with liquid blister agent?

A

Fire

69
Q

What are the four levels of decon?

A
  • Immediate
  • Operation
  • Thorough
  • Final
70
Q

What are the five methods of decon?

A
  • Weathering
  • Flushing
  • Burning
  • Covering
  • Neutralising
71
Q

Define

  • Inversion
  • Neutral
  • Lapse
A

Inversion
-When the air at 2m above the ground is greater than 2 degrees than at 0.3m

Neutral
-Constant temperature with an increase in altitude

Lapse
-Opposite of inversion

72
Q

What is the four step decond process

A
  • Decon
  • Wait
  • Rinse
  • Check
73
Q

What is one M8 paper can detect

A

G and V nerve agents

74
Q

If M8 paper turned yellow, what would this indicate?

A

G series nerve agent

75
Q

What is the IEDD philosophy?

A
  • Save Life
  • Preservation of property
  • Return to normality
  • Collect forensic evidence
76
Q

Command IED systems are broken into two main groups, what are they?

A
  • Linked

- Separate

77
Q

List four types of VOIED

A
  • Pull/trip
  • Pressure
  • Pressure release
  • Movement
78
Q

-List four types of time IED’s

A
  • Igniferous
  • Chemical
  • Mechanical
  • elec
79
Q

True/False
A Hoax IED Incident is reported in good faith to be a suspect IED that upon full investigation proves to be totally innocuous.

A

False

80
Q

What does the threat triad consist of?

A
  • Type
  • Aim
  • Location
81
Q

Intent of ADF IEDD doctrine

A

-Maintain a low rate of IEDD causalities despite an ever growing threat

82
Q

What is the following?
-The discovery of a simulated IED or object deliberately placed to cause disruption

– An object reported in good faith to be suspected IED that upon investigation proves to be innocuous

-The discovery of explosives, weapons, ammo, tools, inert components or radio transmission equip attributed to IED facilitators

A
  • Hoax
  • False Report
  • Find
83
Q

During IED operations, when does a NOTAM need to be implemented

A

Prior to positive action

84
Q

The _____ of IEDDO is to deny adversaries and criminals their objectives

A

Aim

85
Q

The targeting of EOD Technicians and a high incidence of RCIED requiring ECM employment are 2 reasons that determine a HIGH THREAT theatre. List four (4) other reasons.

A

-Complex Devices
-Secondary device
-Come on tactics
-

PRE-CSE 2 (1 decks)

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