Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A Plus Certification > Pre-Assessment > Flashcards

Pre-Assessment Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following drive types can benefit from a periodic disk fragmentation?

(A) HDD
(B) DVD-RW
(C) Compact Flash
(D) SSD

A

(A) HDD
The magnetic hard disk drive (HDD) definitely benefits from periodic disk fragmentation because its mechanical operation lends itself to fragmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. You’re assisting a customer in an upgrade from Windows 7 to Windows 8.1. Which upgrade method would you recommend if the user states that the computer has been infected by malware in the near past?

(A) Unattended installation
(B) Clean install
(C) Repair installation
(D) System reset

A

(B)

Personally, I wouldn’t take a chance on an upgrade if the system is suspect. I would recommend backing up the user state, performing a clean Windows 8.1 installation, and restoring the user state (which doesn’t include program files) to the upgraded system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. The appearance of a proprietary crash screen is likely an indicator of:

(A) Improperly disconnected USB drive
(B) Corrupted Windows Update
(C) Hardware incompatibility
(D) Missing GRUB Loader

A

(C) Hardware incompatibility

Normally, the appearance of the “Blue Screen of Death” in Windows of the “Spinning Beach Ball of Death” (OSX) signifies a hardware incompatibility. For instance, you may have inadvertently installed the wrong RAM type in the system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which of the following Windows 8.1 features restores the entire system to its state at a previous point in time?

(A) Windows RE
(B) System Restore
(C) System Refresh
(D) System Image Recovery

A

(D) System Image Recovery

System Image Recovery involves creating an image of the entire system drive. Therefor restoring a computer with a previously created recovery image restores the entire operating system environment to its state at the previous point in time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which of the following devices should you use if you need to share one keyboard and most with multiple computers?

(A) KVM
(B) Port replicator
(C) Set-top box
(D) Riser card

A

(A)

Keyboard-video-mouse (KVM) switch is exactly what you need in this situation. You’ll oftentimes find KVMs in data centers so that engineers can easily manager several systems located in the same server rack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. You plan to secure a network printer for a customer by implementing the WPA encryption protocol. Which connectivity method for the printer should you use?

(A) Bluetooth
(B) 802.11
(C) Infared
(D) USB 3.0

A

(B) 802.11

WiFi Protected Access (WPA) encryption is available on IEEE 802.11 WiFi networks only. While we’re on the subject, be sure to never use Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) which is fundamentally broken WiFi security protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. You’re helping a customer who needs a second wired Ethernet interface on her laptop computer. Which of the following is the recommended option?

(A) Install a PCI Ethernet card
(B) Use a USB-to-RJ-11 dongle
(C) Use a USB-to-RJ-45 dongle.
(C) Disable the on-board WiFi adapter

A

(C) Use a USB-to-RJ-45 dongle

If you remember that Ethernet uses the RJ-45 connector type then you’ll answer this question correctly every time. Recall that RJ-11 is used for traditional telephones and (yuck) analog modem connections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which of the following file systems is common on Linux Systems?

(A) HFS
(B) FAT32
(C) NTFS
(D) EXT3

A

(D) EXT3

Linux computers typically use the EXT3 or EXT4 file systems, although they can support other file systems for compatibility with other operating system platforms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. A customer has dropped off a system to have the processor upgraded. Which of the following features of CPU sockets make replacement of the CPU easier?

(A) XD-bit
(B) Virtualization
(C) Cores
(D) ZIF

A

(D) ZIF
A zero insertion force (ZIF) socket is a type of socket used with PGA and LGA chips to allow removal and installation of the processor chip. A ZIF socket has a lever that allows releases the processor and allows it to be lifted out of the socket.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. You are a service technician for an account firm and need to upgrade the RAM on a high-end desktop workstation. You grab an 8GB SODIMM module from inventory and are having trouble installing it. Which of the following represents the reason for the installation problem?

(A) The workstation only takes 4GB modules.
(B) The module is not compatible
(C) High-end workstations use flash memory
(D) High-end workstations use solid state memory

A

(B) The module is not compatible.

Desktop computers use DIMM when installing RAM into the computer. SODIMM are used by laptop computers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. You a re installing a new motherboard for a workstation within your office. When connection the power to the motherboard, you notice a 6-pin power connector. What component does that typically supply power to?

(A) Graphics card
(B) CPU
(C) SATA drives
(D) EIDE drives

A

(A) Graphics card

The 6-pin power connector is typically used to supply power to the PCIe graphics card.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. You are configuring the security for a customer’s wireless network. Which of the following identifies the least secure wireless encryption protocol?

(A) WPA
(B) WPA2
(C) WEP
(D) TKIP

A

(C) WEP

In today’s day and age you should avoid the WEP encryption protocol when configuring wireless security because the encryption with WEP is easy to crack. When encrypting wireless traffic always use the newer protocols such as WP2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. You are configuring a small LAN for one of your customers. You would like to implement NAT. Which of the following devices would you use?

(A) Hub
(B) Switch
(C) Modem
(D) Router

A

(D) Router
Network address translation, or NAT, is a network service that allows multiple systems and devices on the network to access the Internet using a single IP address. NAT is typically a service provided with routers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. You are configuring the security on a folder that resides on an NTFS volume and has been shared as Data. The NTFS permissions to the folder , but the folder has been shared giving Bob the the read permission. What are Bob’s effective permissions when he connects to the shared folder?

(A) Full control
(B) Read
(C) Modify
(D) No permission

A

(B) Read

When NTFS permissions conflict with shared folder permissions, the most restrictive permission will be the effective permission. In this case, read is more restrictive than modify.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. You have installed virtualization software on the computer and are trying to create a virtual machine but you continue to receive an error. What is most likely the cause?

(A) Disable cache memory in the BIOS
(B) Enable XD-bit in the BIOS
(C) Change the boot order in the BIOS
(D) Enable virtualization in the BIOS

A

(D) Enable virtualization in the BIOS

Before trying to configure virtual machines son the system you should verify that virtualization support has been enabled within the BIOS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. You have been noticing that your server has been performing slowly over the last few days and now all of a sudden no one can make a connection to the server. Looking at the server log files you have determined that the server was under attack. What type of attack likely occurred?

(A) DoS
(B) MTM
(C) Dumpster dive
(D) Dictionary

A

(A) DoS

A denial of service attack (DoS) is when a system is overloaded with requests from a hacker, which causes the server to be unresponsive to valid request from client, or eventually crashes the server

17
Q
  1. You a re troubleshooting Bob’s workstations to determine why he cannot get access to the Internet. You use the “ipconfig” command and get the following output. What is likely the cause?

(A) There is no MAC address assigned to the system
(B) The DNS suffix is incorrect
(C) The default gateway address is incorrect
(D) The DNS server is incorrect

A

(C) The default gateway address is incorrect

The default gateway address is incorrect. The default gateway address must reference the same network ID of 192.168.1.x instead of 192.168.2.x

18
Q

17 Diagram

PS C:> ipconfig /all
Ethernet adapter Ethernet:
Connection-specific DNS Suffix: dcatt.cu

A 
Description: Qualcomm Atheros PCI-E Fast Ethernet
Physical Address: 20-1A-06-34-2B-66
DHCP Enabled: No
IPv4 Address: 192.168.1.138
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 192.168.2.1
DNS Servers: 192.168.1.1
19
Q
  1. CompTIA has a six-step problem resolution. What is the third step in the process?

(A) Identify the problem
(B) Test the theory to determine cause
(C) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution
(D) Document findings, actions, and outcomes

A

(B) Test the theory to determine cause

The third step in the CompTIA problem is Test the theory to determine cause

All six steps: Book 1, Chapter 2

20
Q
  1. You a re working with a computer that is having a problem loading the user profile and the Windows Explorer interface. You have access to the command prompt window. What command will terminate the runaway process named ‘RunAway.exe’ with a PID of 3375?

(A) Tasklist /F1 RunAway.exe
(B) Taskkill /F1 RunAway
(C) Tasklist /PID 3375
(D) Taskkill /PID 3375

A

(D) Taskkill /PID 3375

Taskkill.exe supports several options to terminate a task either by name or by PID. To terminate task by PID you would use taskkill.exe /PID 3375 and to terminate by name you would use taskkill.exe /IM notepad.exe.

21
Q
  1. You are planning to move from your old office due to issues with power in the neighborhood. Within the neighborhood you are constantly being exposed to blackout, brownout spikes, and voltage drops. Which devices will protect you from all of these issues?

(A) Surge suppressor
(B) UPS
(C) Line Conditioner
(D) Power tester

A

(B) UPS

The only device which protects against a blackout is a UPS

22
Q
  1. You have been called to the customer’s computer to help her deal with a recent problem she has developed when starting an application. You think it may be due to components that are loading automatically when Windows boots and loads. Which tool can you use to disable services or perform a selective star tube of Windows?

(A) diskport.exe
(B) chkdsk.exe
(C) msconfig.exe
(D) defrag.exe

A

(C) msconfig.exe

They System Configuration Utility (msconfig.exe) can be used to perform a selective startup of Windows to assist in troubleshooting issues. Defrag.exe is used to defragment the desk, diskpart.exe is used to partition a disk, and chkdisk.exe is used to check your disks for errors.

23
Q
  1. While managing a group of workers servicing computers in your repair shop, you have received complaints from them that they are seeing a lot of incidents of static discharge. They are worried about the components that they are working with. What steps can you take to reduce the chaos of static discharge or ESD?

(A) Increase the relative humidity
(B) Decrease the relative humidity
(C) Increase the temperature
(D) Decrease the temperature

A

(A) Increase the relative humidity

To reduce the chance of ESD, you should increase the relative humidity. ESD risks are increased in dry air

24
Q
  1. A user has called you while you are working on the support desk. He has an issue with power management settings that are being pushed out to users via Active Directory Group Policy Objects (GPO). After adjusting GPO to correct the issue, you would like to have the client computer process the GPO changes immediately. What tool will you use to process the GPO changes?

(A) attrib
(B) gpresult
(C) expand
(D) gpupdate

A

(D) gpupdate

The command gpupdate is used to trigger the processing of Active Directory GPO’s, while gpresult will display the effective results of GPOs. The command attrib is used to adjust file attributes, such as read-only and archive, while expand compressed system files.

25
Q
  1. You are working with a member of your IT administration team to set permissions on a Linux server on your network. You need to change permissions granted to a group of users who will be accessing a directory. What command will you be using to change the permissions?

(A) chmod
(B) chown
(C) grep
(D) iwconfig

A

(A) chmod

The command to change permissions is chmod, while chown will change the owner and group who has access to the resource. The grep command will display and filter contents of files or output from commands, and iwconfig is used to manage wireless configuration.

26
Q
  1. Your local IT administrator has made changes to C:\boot.ini to change the loading process for his Windows 8.1 computer, but this does not seem to have had any effect on the boot process. What component controls the boot configuration and thereby the boot process on a Windows 8.1 computer?

(A) ntoskrnl.exe
(B) winload.exe
(C) ntdetect.com
(D) BCD

A

(D) BCD

The BCD or Boot Configuration Database stores boot configuration settings which are used during the boot process. The file ntoskrnl.exe is the operating system kernel, winload.exe is the operating system loader, and ntdetect.com was an OS load file from older Windows OSes.

A Plus Certification (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions