PRDS 126 Flashcards

1
Q

Not component of RPD

A

Rest seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Support for RPD is best provided by

A

rest; maxillary major connector for tooth & tissue borne RPD; indirect retainers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Marginal ridge reduction - Gold alloy? Metal base?

A

Gold = 2.0 mm

Metal base = 1.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A guideline for the width of a properly prepared occlusal rest seat is one third the distance between the cusp tips or one half the buccal/lingual width of the tooth.

A

FALSE – 1/2 cusp tips, 1/3 buccal/lingual width of tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

You are preparing an occlusal rest seat on a mandibular molar. Which of the burs listed below would be used LAST?

A

Medium Round Diamond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A surveyor

A

a​nalyzing & delineating ​the contours of abutment teeth & associated structure before designing a removable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Undercut gauges come in various sizes, either 0.010 inch, 0.020 inch or 0.030 inch.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

RPD retention

A

Direct retainers (clasp assemblies, attachments applied to abutment tooth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The location of the internal finish line is the same for maxillary and mandibular tooth- borne RPD’s or tooth borne segments of maxillary and mandibular tooth-mucosa borne RPD’s.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The most common type of clasp used on TOOTH BORNE RPD’s in the anterior part of the mouth where esthetics usually is a concern is the?

A

Clasp combination cast circumferential & cast bar clasp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The Kennedy Class II, mod. 2 type of removable partial denture has how many partially edentulous spaces?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Movement of tooth borne removable partial dentures occurs around a fulcrum line axis.

A

FALSE – tooth and tissue borne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is considered a primary supporting area for the maxillary edentulous arch?

A

posterior ridge crest + horizontal hard palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is considered a primary supporting area for the mandibular edentulous arch?

A

pear-shaped pad + buccal shelf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fulcrum lines would NOT be associated with which of the Kennedy Classifications listed below?

A

Kennedy Class III (tooth borne)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

For which of the maxillary Kennedy Classifications listed below would a modified palatal plate major connector be indicated?

A

Kennedy Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The general type of major connector chosen for a patient presenting with maxillary Kennedy Class III partial edentulism is

A

straptype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the mandibular major connectors listed below contributes the most support to the extension base RPD?

A

NONE - no support from labial bar, lingual bar, lingual plate, sub-lingual bar (all are major connectors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which type of denture base is NOT associated with posts, loops or beads to help retain artificial denture teeth?

A

Retentive mesh – others, open lattice, metal base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Metal bases are commonly utilized to replace partially edentulous segments that are longer than molars mesiodistally.

A

FALSE – shorter than molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the direct retainers listed below is considered to be STRESS RELEASING?

A

RPI, combination cast circumferential and wrought wire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The first clasp of choice for abutment teeth on a maxillary Kennedy Class I RPD is?

A

RPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the components listed below is not a type of indirect retainer?

A

REST – indirect retainers: minor connector, proximal plate, lingual plate major connector, lingal bar major connector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A gold framework would weigh ____?___ how much more than a base metal framework of the same size.

A

2x as much

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The major constituent of chromium-cobalt base metal alloys for RPD frameworks is chromium.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Frameworks for RPD’s are waxed and cast directly on the master cast.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cuspid rise and anterior disclusion is an ideal occlusal scheme for mandibular tooth borne partial dentures opposing maxillary complete dentures.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Master impressions for RPD’s should be made in

A

stock metal impression trays with alginate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A CERAMOMETAL restoration is a legitimate restoration to consider restoring an anterior tooth discolored in response to endodontic treatment­

A

TRUE – not like Emax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which prep margin is most appropriate for an Emax restoration?

A

Heavy chamfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the chemical nature of E­max?

A

L​ithium Disilicate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

E­max is NOT an ideal restoration for a tooth that has been significantly discolored due to
endo treatment

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the minimal amount of axial reduction required for E­max? incisal reduction?

A

1.0 mm; 2.0 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Minimum amount of incisal reduction required for an E­max restoration?

A

1.5 mm – max: 2.0 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When drawing design sequence for RPD framework on a cast, the 2nd component you should draw is?

A

Minor connectors – 1st: rests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Term is used to describe bone’s response to loading forces

A

Bone index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

For traditional Class II composite prep, where would you place retention grooves

A

Composite traditional prep doesn’t require retention grooves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In considering the following teeth for a ceramometal restoration, which would most likely accommodate the optimal amount of facial reduction

A

Tooth #11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Etching with 35% phosphoric acid longer than 20 second will:

A

A, B, C - increase sensitivity, coagulate collagen, open dentinal tubule excessivey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Ceramometal restoration needs porcelain facial margin, and the facial should should be how big

A

1.2 -1.5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Primary supporting areas for mandibular arch is the posterior ridge crest.

A

FALSE – pear-shaped pad + buccal shelf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Fulcrum line access does not exist for this type of RPD:

A

Kennedy Class III - tooth borne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

For proper examination and diagnosis how many casts of each partially edentulous arch should be made for patients requesting RPD therapy?

A

TWO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The advantages of direct composite veneers are:

A

They provide high flexibility in design and adjustments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When adding composite:

A

Always move your instrument from the composite towards the margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Micro-fine diamond burs are used to:

A

Shape and pre-polish the composite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Posterior composite techniques require:

A

That a maximum of 2mm of composite be placed sequentially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In Class II Posterior composite designs:

A

All – It is okay to have the pulpal floor remain in enamel; As long as we are not in contact areas, it is okay to have a depth of less than 1.5mm; The minimal axial depth is 1mm; Healthy pits and grooves are not removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Microfilled composites:

A

Provide high polishability, luster, and translucency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Regular carbide burs are ideal for shaping to a prefinish

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The use of all-ceramic occlusal surfaces versus metal occlusal surfaces can result in:

A

removal of more tooth structure to accommodate porcelain (2.0 mm); abrasion of the opposing occlusal surfaces (i.e. both natural teeth and gold); fracture and costly repair of occlusal porcelain

52
Q

For porcelain occlusals, a minimum of ___?___ occlusal reduction is necessary.

A

2.0 mm

53
Q

Maxillary second molars and mandibular molars may require metal ceramic crowns if a patient will not accept all metal crowns on those teeth.

A

TRUE

54
Q

The minimal cusp reduction for a functional cusp when preparing a tooth for an extracoronal amalgam is:

A

2.0 mm

55
Q

When placing a trough for additional retention in a vital tooth:

A

B,D,E,F - use inverted cone, place it parallel to DEJ, place entirely in dentin, place it 0.5 mm in from DEJ

56
Q

To treatment plan a hygienic pontic, what is the minimal interocclusal space that is required?

A

5.0 mm

57
Q

How much more deflection will a fixed partial denture with 3 pontics experience when compared with a fixed partial denture with 1 pontic?

A

27 x more deflection

58
Q

Which of the following are methods of connecting a pontic to a retainer?

A

ALL - cast connector, soldered connector, non-ridged connector

59
Q

In which discipline of dentistry is a precision attachment most useful?

A

RPDs

60
Q

You are treatment planning a fixed partial denture to replace teeth #19, 20, 21. Tooth #23 can be considered a good candidate for a secondary abutment.

A

FALSE

61
Q

In treatment planning a fixed partial denture replacing teeth #19, 20, 21 you have decided to use tooth #17 as a secondary abutment. Preparing tooth #18 for a full veneer gold crown and tooth #17 for a partial veneer gold crown is an acceptable treatment plan.

A

FALSE

62
Q

Which of the following statements about non-ridged connectors is not correct?

A

It is usually placed in the mesial surface of the anterior abutment* – CORRECT OPTIONS: It usually draws with the distal abutment; It is usually placed in the distal of the pier abutment

63
Q

If we want to make a Class IV Restoration have a translucent incisal edge the composite should:

A

be translucent on both the lingual and facial incisal areas

64
Q

To prevent composite from sticking to instrument, it’s best to:

A

Wipe instrument w/gauze and keep it clean before manipulating composite

65
Q

Before polishing our composite veneers, we should always end our pre-finishing with a:

A

15 micron (EF) diamond bur

66
Q

What is the purpose of using a polyacrylic acid and pre-conditioning liquid?

A

Removing smear layer when placing a glass ionomer

67
Q

After polishing a Class IV composite, Dr. Oops notices the incisal edges are too grey and transparent. What might he have overlooked:

A

ALL – tried composite pre-restoratively but forgot to light cure as he chose his shade; instead of A2 dentin, used A2 compsosite; used microfilled composite instead of hybrid composite; color matched as the tooth was rubber dammed and dehydrated

68
Q

During color matching composites for a Class IV restoration, one of the first aspects to check for is:

A

The tone (in enamel) which determines the amount of gray in a tooth

69
Q

When polishing your composite, the jiffy brush should be used

A

dry and hard

70
Q

Tooth #8 prep for ceramometal restoration, how much incisal reduction is required?

A

1.5 -2.0 mm

71
Q

Incisal 1/3 of the facial surface of the tooth #22 opposes lingual surface of #11, how much facial reduction is required in this area if prepping tooth for an emax?

A

1.0-1.2 mm (PBM = 1.0 - 1.5 mm)

72
Q

Ceramometal restorations generally require more tooth reduction than do Emax restorations:

A

TRUE

73
Q

Zirconia crowns are more durable than emax restorations:

A

TRUE

74
Q

Zirconia crown can be cemented with traditional luting cements

A

TRUE

75
Q

Empress restorations are less durable than emax restorations:

A

TRUE (empress = high glass)

76
Q

On the mandibular framework shown here, circumferential clasps have been used on the canine, premolar and molar. Which of the following statements regarding the clasping is true?

A

If the patient has esthetic concerns a combination bar clasp should be designed for the canine

77
Q

Referring to the pic below of the RPD framework, indirect retainers on teeth #22 and #27 function when

A

A & B (indirect retainer placement)– patient removes RPD; patient chews on something sticky

78
Q

Reciprocation is the resistance to horizontal forces exerted on the tooth by an active retentive clasp. It is related to the timing of the contact between the bracing and retentive clasp arms in order to prevent undue forces of the abutment teeth during insertion and removal of the RPD.

A

TRUE, TRUE

79
Q

Your patient has partially edentulous arch shown. Undercuts of teeth #21 and 28 are on the mesiofacial surfaces. Most common clasp assemblies used if esthetics is a factor would be:

A

Combination bar clasp

80
Q

Your patient’s partially edentulous arch is shown below, esthetics are a concern for the patient. Where should the combination bar clasp be used?

A

NONE (18, 20, 29, 20&29) – there is a distal extension base from the missing teeth 30-32, because there isn’t stress release, a combination bar clasp cannot be used.

81
Q

Your patient exhibits the partially edentulous arch form. Tooth #29 is tilted mesially. The undercut is on the mesiofacial surface. What would be the WORST clasp assembly to choose for #29?

A

RPI (mesial tilt eliminates required underecut gingival to distal guiding plane)

82
Q

The most common type of clasp used on tooth borne RPD’s in the anterior part of the mouth where esthetics usually is a concern is the –?

A

Clasp combination cast circumferential cast bar clasp

83
Q

Which of the direct retainers listed below is considered to be STRESS RELEASING?

A

RPI and combination cast circumferential and wrought wire

84
Q

Which of the components listed below is not an indirect retainer?

A

Lingual BAR major connector – indirect retainers (rest, minor connector, proximal plate, lingual plate major connector)

85
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of base metal alloys over Type IV gold alloys for partial dentures?

A

High Modulus

86
Q

Which of the following is the most important advantage of CoCr over NiCr base metal alloys for a dental prosthesis ?

A

Biocompatibility

87
Q

Which of the following is not an important advantage of titanium alloys for a dental prosthesis

A

Low fusion temperature

88
Q

The landmark that is reproducible for every tooth and gives the closest approximation for the roof of the pulp chamber is the?

A

CEJ

89
Q

Lateral canals are most commonly found in the

A

apical third.

90
Q

What is the minimum amount of body porcelain needed to make an porcelain bonded to metal restoration esthetic?

A

0.4mm

91
Q

What is the minimum reduction of the facial surface of a tooth that will allow the fabrication of a porcelain bonded to metal restoration?

A

1.0mm

92
Q

When preparing a tooth for a porcelain bonded to metal restoration, what is the range of facial reduction that is considered acceptable?

A

1.0-1.5mm

93
Q

What is the maximum thickness for the porcelain bearing surface of the metal coping for a porcelain bonded to metal restoration?

A

0.3mm

94
Q

Mandibular incisors are the most challenging teeth in the mouth to restore using porcelain bonded to metal restorations.

A

TRUE

95
Q

When making a gold or porcelain crown on tooth #19 the most accurate method of relating the upper and lower casts for articulation is?

A

by a double bite impression

96
Q

What is the maximum amount of incisal reduction allowed for a porcelain bonded to metal restoration?

A

2.0mm

97
Q

The maxillary Triad, VLC record base is cured initially for how long

A

2 min

98
Q

The total curing time for Ortho Resin record bases is

A

20 minutes

99
Q

RPD Direct Retainers

A

Cast circlet (Aker’s); embrasure clasp; cast circumferential & cast bar clasp & precision attachment

100
Q

Most common type of major connectors in maxillary

A

Straps & plates

101
Q

Indirect retainers are commonly used on tooth borne RPDs

A

FALSE - tooth and tissue borne/extension base RPDs

102
Q

Support for the tooth borne RPD is best provided by

A

RESTS (tooth borne)

103
Q

The principal reason we cannot “see through” enamel in the visible range is strong ____________.

A

light scattering

104
Q

Statements about megalloy (spherical amalgam alloy)

A

Less mercury is required to mix it; it can become moist during placement; it is more difficult to stretch for proximal contact during condensation — FYI: Dispersalloy has zinc

105
Q

When discussing cross tooth/cross arch balanced articulation, cross tooth balance refers to posterior tooth contacts that occur on which side?

A

working side

106
Q

Which facial margin deign of the preparation is most appropriate for a porcelain bonded to metal restoration that will have a porcelain margin?

A

Shoulder

107
Q

What is the minimal thickness of body porcelain that is necessary to achieve acceptable esthetics?

A

0.4mm

108
Q

What is the maximum thickness for the porcelain bearing surface of the metal coping for a porcelain bonded to metal restoration?

A

0.3mm

109
Q

Which arch does the facebow mount on the articulator?

A

Mandibular

110
Q

How is the mandibular arch mounted on an articulator?

A

Wax-bite

111
Q

Which class of articulator is the Hanau Articulator that is being used in the PRDS 126 laboratory?

A

Semi-adjustable

112
Q

On which of the following teeth can the optimal amount of facial reduction most likely be achieved if you where preparing a porcelain bonded to metal restoration?

A

19

113
Q

Hue

A

Color

114
Q

Of the following Vita shade colors, which has the greatest value?

A

A1

115
Q

Which of the following shades is in the yellow range?

A

B

116
Q

Vinyl Polysiloxaine allows for easy articulation of the mandibular and maxillary cast.

A

FALSE

117
Q

If you are preparing multiple adjacent teeth, leaving the provisional restorations connected will decrease the possibility that the provisional restorations, once cemented, will fall off.

A

True

118
Q

The elastic bonding concept is a key factor in preserving the strength of the bond in the dentinal interdiffusion zone. What techniques listed below preserve elastic bonding?

A

ALL – Ramped light curing cycles of composite; Applying adequate amount of bonding resin; Applying composite with minimal C-factor profiles

119
Q

6th Generation bonding systems:

A

Use a self etching technique which includes creating a hybrid zone that includes the smear layer

120
Q

Which permanent cement could be used to cement crown temporarily?

A

Polycarboxylate

121
Q

If you are planning to cement an all porcelain crown with a resin cement, which temporary cement could you use to cement your acrylic temporary crown while the permanent restoration is being fabricated?

A

TemBond NE

122
Q

Comparing household porcelain to dental porcelain, dental porcelain

A

contains larger amounts of feldspar

123
Q

Sintering of a ceramic

A

increases its density

124
Q

In dentulous patients, masticatory forces are transmitted through the bone as _____?_____ .

A

tension

125
Q

In edentulous patients, masticatory forces are transmitted through the bone as _____?_____ .

A

pressure

126
Q

Tooth #18 is being prepared for a gold full veneer crown. Prior to preparing the tooth you note that the buccal cusps are out of occlusion by 0.5 mm. Having noted this, how much more will you need to reduce the buccal cusps in order to obtain ideal reduction?

A

1.0 mm

127
Q

Tooth # 21 is being prepared for a traditional 3⁄4 partial veneer crown. Which of
the following modifications is(are) added to the preparation in order to increase the structural durability of the final restoration?

A

1, 2, 4 == mesial proximal groove, distal proximal groove, occlusal shoulder