Praxis Review Flashcards

1
Q

supplies the energy for speech

A

Respiration or breathing

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2
Q

involves voicing and the structures and processes that create voice

A

Phonation

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3
Q

process by which the voice or laryngeal tone is modified by various supra laryngeal cavities and structures

A

Resonation

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4
Q

process of making speech sounds

A

Articulation

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5
Q

brings oxygen to the blood

A

inspiration/inhalation

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6
Q

get rid of mixed air and gases which result from respiratory metabolism

A

expiration/exhalation

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7
Q

exchange of gas between an organism and its environment

A

respiration

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8
Q

inhalation and exhalation create the

A

rhythmic cycle or respiration

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9
Q

provides the air supply needed to set the vocal folds into vibration for speech

A

Respiration

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10
Q

The basic process of inhalation can be described as:

A

inhalation->chest and lungs expand -> diaphragm lowers -> air flows in through the nose and mouth -> air goes down pharynx between open vocal folds -> air continues downward through trachea and bronchial tubes -> air reaches final destination of lungs

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11
Q

The exchange of gas in respiration is accomplished in the _______

A

lungs

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12
Q

The _______ are tubes that extend from the lungs upward to the trachea

A

bronchi

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13
Q

Tube formed by approximately 20 rings of cartilage

A

trachea

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14
Q

How many individual vertebrae into the spinal column

A

32-33

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15
Q

muscle that separates the abdomen from the thorax

A

diaphragm

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16
Q

houses structures such as the intestines, liver, and kidneys

A

abdomen

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17
Q

11 paired _____________ pull the ribs downward to decrease the diameter of the thoracic cavity for exhalation

A

internal intercostals

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18
Q

11 paired _____________ raise the ribs up and out to increase the diameter of the thoracic cavity for inhalation

A

external intercostals

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19
Q

elevated the sternum and indirectly the rib cage

A

sternocleidomastoid

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20
Q

controls the head and elongates the neck indirectly influencing respiration

A

trapezius

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21
Q

lies at the top of the trachea in the anterior portion of the neck; valving mechanism that opens and closes

A

larynx

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22
Q

vibrate to produce sound

A

vocal folds

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23
Q

move toward the midline

A

adduct

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24
Q

move away from the midline

A

abduct

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25
Q

drops to cover the orifice of the larynx

A

epiglottis

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26
Q

forms the anterior and lateral walls of the larynx and protects the larynx

A

thyroid cartilage

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27
Q

completely surrounds the trachea; uppermost tracheal ring

A

cricoid cartilage

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28
Q

small pyramid shaped carriages connected to the cricoid; permits sliding and circular movements

A

arytenoid cartilage

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29
Q

small cone-shaped; assist in reducing the laryngeal opening when a person is swallowing

A

corniculate cartilage

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30
Q

tine cone-shaped; serve to stiffen or tense the aryepiglottic folds

A

cunieform cartilage

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31
Q

responsible for controlling sound production

A

intrinsic laryngeal muscles

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32
Q

muscle that vibrates and produces sound

A

internal thyroarytenoid muscles

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33
Q

lengthens and tenses the vocal folds

A

cricothyroid muscle

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34
Q

contract and pull the arytenoids closer together

A

oblique and transverse arrytenoid cartilages

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35
Q

Which nerves innervate the intrinsic laryngeal muscles?

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve branch of cranial nerve X

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36
Q

support the larynx and fix its position; all attached to the hyoid bone

A

extrinsic laryngeal muscles

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37
Q

lower or raise the position of the larynx within the neck

A

extrinsic laryngeal muscles

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38
Q

primary function is to elevate the larynx

A

elevators or suprahyoid muscles

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39
Q

Suprahyoid muscles include:

A

digrastric, geniohyoid, mylohyoid, stylohyoid, hyoglossus, and genioglossus

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40
Q

depression of the larynx

A

infrahyoid muscles

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41
Q

Infrahyoid muscles include:

A

thyrohyoid, omohyoid, sternothyroid, sternohyoid

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42
Q

The three layers of the vocal folds include:

A

1- epithelium- outer cover
2- lamina propria- middle layer
3- vocalis muscle- provides stability and mass to VF

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43
Q

separate the laryngeal vestibule from the pharynx and help preserve the airway

A

aryepiglottic folds

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44
Q

vibrate only at very low fundamental frequencies and usually not during phonation

A

false vocal folds

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45
Q

vocal folds vibrate because of the forces and pressure of air and elasticity of the vocal folds

A

myo-elastic aerodynamic theory

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46
Q

caused by the increased speed of air passing between the vocal folds; sucking motion of the vocal folds toward one another

A

bernoulli effect

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47
Q

Primary cortical areas involved in speech-motor control:

A

primary motor cortex, brocas area, somatosensory cortex, supplemetary motor cortex

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48
Q

regulates motor movement

A

cerebellum

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49
Q

innervates the posterior belly of the digastric muscle

A

CN VII

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50
Q

includes the SLN and RLN to innervate the larynx

A

CN X

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51
Q

provides sensory info to the larynx and motor innervation soley to the cricothyroid muscle

A

Superior Laryngeal Nerve

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52
Q

supplies motor innervation to the interarytenoid posterior cricoarytenoid and lateral cricoarytenoid muscles; all sensory information below the vocal folds

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

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53
Q

process by which the voice or laryngeal tone is modified when some frequency components are dampened and others are enhanced

A

Resonation

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54
Q

part of the upper airway; located superiorly and posteriorly to the larynx

A

pharynx

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55
Q

elevated and retracted for production of all other sound in English

A

velum

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56
Q

vocal tract is visualized as a series of linked tubes: the oval cavity, pharynx, nasal cavity

A

source filter theory

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57
Q

energy from the vibrating vocal folds is modified by the resonance characteristics of the vocal tract

A

source-filter theory

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58
Q

movement of speech structures to produce speech sounds

A

articulation

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59
Q

when the soft palate is raised and retracted the muscles of the pharynx also move inward to meet the muscles of the soft palate

A

velopharyngeal closure

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60
Q

the way the two dental arches come together when a person bites down

A

occlusion

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61
Q

include deviations in the positions of individual teeth and the shape and relationship of the upper and lower dental arches

A

Malocclusions

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62
Q

four parts of the tongue:

A

tip- thinnest and most flexible
blade- lies inferior to the alveolar ridge
dorsum- large area of the tongue that lies in contact with bot the hard and soft palate
root- very back and bottom portion of the tongue

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63
Q

connects the mandible with the inferior portion of the tongue

A

lingual frenulum

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64
Q

act as scavengers to remove dead cells and other waste

A

Schwann cells

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65
Q

central building blocks of the nervous system, are composed of a cell body, dendrites, and an axon

A

Neurons

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66
Q

Some nerves have _______ around them. Various types of nerves transmit impulses to and from the _____________

A

myelin sheath

central nervous system

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67
Q

List the cranial nerves:

A
Olfactory
Optic
Oculomotor
Trochlear
Trigeminal 
Abducens
Facial
Acoustic
Glossopharyngeal
Vagus
Spinal Accessory 
Hypoglossal
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68
Q

CN that carry sensory information fro a sense organ to the brain

A

Sensory nerves

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69
Q

carry impulses from the brain to the muscles that make those muscles move

A

Motor nerves

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70
Q

Damage to CN____ may result in an inability to close the mouth, difficulty chewing, and trigeminal neuralgia

A

X -Vagus

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71
Q

Damage to CN____ results in mask like appearance with minimal or no facial expressions

A

VII - Facial

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72
Q

Damage to CN _____ results in hearing loss problems with balance or both

A

VIII - Acoustic (Vestibucochlear)

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73
Q

Damage to CN _____ results in difficulty swallowing, unilateral loss of the gag reflex, and loss of taste and sensation from the posterior third of the tongue

A

IX - Glossopharyngeal

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74
Q

regulates the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, excluding the cricothyroid which is supplied by the SLN

A

Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve

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75
Q

supplies the pharyngeal constrictors

A

Pharyngeal branch of the vagus nerve

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76
Q

Damage to CN ____ results in difficulty swallowing, paralysis of the velum, and voice problems if the RLN is damages

A

X - Vagus

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77
Q

Damage to CN ____may result in neck weakness, paralysis of sternocleidomastoid, consequent inability to turn the head as well as inability to shrug the shoulders or raise the arm above shoulder level

A

XI - Accessory

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78
Q

Damage to CN ____ result in tongue paralysis, diminished intelligibility,swallowing problems

A

XII - hypoglossal

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79
Q

The ________ transmit motor information from the CNS to the muscles and carry sensory information from peripheral receptors to the CNS

A

Spinal Nerves

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80
Q

controls and regulates the internal environment of our bodies

A

ANS

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81
Q

Which CN are most directly related to speech:

A

CN V, VII, VIII, IX,X, XI, XII

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82
Q

the ________ of the ANS mobilizes the body for “fight or flight” situations

A

sympathetic branch

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83
Q

The ________ branch of the ANS helps bring the body back to a state of relaxation

A

parasympathetic branch

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84
Q

Acts as a motor command center for planning, originating, and carrying out the transmission of messages

A

CNS

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85
Q

most important structure in the body for language,speech, and hearing

A

brain

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86
Q

Structure of the brainstem include:

A

midbrain
pons
medulla

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87
Q

control many motor and sensory functions, including postural reflexes, visual reflexes, eye movement and coordination of vestibular-generated eye and head movement

A

Midbrain

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88
Q

transmits information relative to movement from the cerebral hemispheres to the cerebellum

A

pons

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89
Q

controls vital automatic bodily function such as breathing, digestion, heart rate, and blood pressure

A

medulla

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90
Q

integrates motor impulses flowing out of the brain with sensory impulses flowing into it

A

reticular activating system

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91
Q

primary mechanism of attention and consciousness

A

RAS

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92
Q

regulated sesnory information that flows into the brain and relays sensory impulses to various portions of the cerebral cortex

A

thalmus

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93
Q

helps integrate actions of the ANS and control emotions

A

hypothalamus

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94
Q

helps regulate and modify cortically initiate motor movements including speech

A

extrapyramidal system

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95
Q

little brain; modulator of neuronal activity through it efferent and afferent circuits

A

cerebellum

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96
Q

abnormal gait, disturbed balanch, and ataxic dysarthria

A

ataxia

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97
Q

biggest and most important CNS structure for language, speech, and hearing

A

cerebrum

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98
Q

shall valley

A

sulcus

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99
Q

deep valleys

A

fissures

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100
Q

cricitical to deliberate information of plans and intentions that dictate a persons conscious behavior

A

frontal lobe

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101
Q

The frontal lobe contains areas that are especially important to speech production these include:

A

primary motor cortex, supplementary motor cortex, and Brocas area

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102
Q

controls voluntar y movements of skeletal muscle on the opposite side of the body

A

primary motor cortex

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103
Q

involved in motor planning of speech and regulating muscle movements

A

supplementary motor cortex

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104
Q

motor speech area that controls motor movements involved in speech production

A

Brocas area

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105
Q

integrated contralateral somesthetic sensations such as pressure , pain, temperature, and touch

A

Parietal Lobe

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106
Q

The two areas of the parietal lobe important to speech production are:

A

supramarginal gyrus and angular gyrus

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107
Q

damage to the supra marginal gyrus can cause:

A

conduction aphasia and agraphia

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108
Q

damage to the angular gyrus can cause:

A

writing, reading, and naming difficulties and sometimes transcortical sensory aphasia

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109
Q

The areas in the temporal lobe involved in speech:

A

primary auditory cortex and the auditory association area

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110
Q

critical to the comprehension of spoken and written language

A

wernickes area

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111
Q

patient produces fluent but meaningless speech and experience significant language comprehension problems

A

Wernickes aphasia

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112
Q

direct motor activation pathway that is primary responsible for facilitating voluntary muscle movement

A

pyramidal system

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113
Q

voluntary movements needed to produce speech and initiated in the ________

A

primary motor cortex

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114
Q

motor neurons in the spinal and cranial nerves; part of the peripheral nervous system

A

lower motor neurons

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115
Q

motor fibers within the central nervous system

A

upper motor nerouns

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116
Q

allow areas within each hemisphere to communicate with each other; composed of myelinated axonal fibers or white matter

A

interhemisphereic fibers

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117
Q

interhemispheric fibers inclue:

A

projection
association
commissural

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118
Q

create connections between the cortex and subcortical structures like the cerebellum, basal ganglia, brainstem and spinal cord

A

projection fibers

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119
Q

________ relay sensory information from the peripheral sense organs to the brain. _______ come together in the internal capsule and pass through the thalamus and basal ganglia

A

Afferent

Efferent

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120
Q

maintain communication between the structures in a hemisphere

A

association fibers

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121
Q

thick broad band of myelinated fibers that connects the two hemispheres at their base

A

corpus collosum

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122
Q

The brain is protected by three structures:

A

layer of skill
skull bones
layers of tissues (meninges)

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123
Q

Three layers of meninges membranes:

A

dura mater - thick tough outermost membrane
arachnoid: thin delicate weblink middle membrane
pia mater: delicate thin transparanet membrane that adheres to brain surface

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124
Q

The corpus striatum is composed of three nuclear masses which are:

A

globus pallidus
caudate nucleus
putamen

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125
Q

composed of a ring of connective tissue and muscle extending from the tips of the arytenoid cartilages to the larynx; separate the laryngeal vestibule from the pharynx and help preserve the airway

A

aryepiglottic folds

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126
Q

muscles that contribute to velopharyngeal closure through tensing or elevating the velum are:

A

palatoglossus
tensor veli palatini
levator veli palatini

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127
Q

which muscles are the most involved in adducting the vocal folds?

A

lateral circoarytenoids and transverse aryetnoids

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128
Q

The cerebral hemispheres are connected by:

A

commisural fibers

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129
Q

The primary motor cortex in the frontal lobe is located on the:

A

precentral gyrus

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130
Q

code or system of symbols used to express concepts formed through exposure and expierience

A

language

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131
Q

production of language

A

speech

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132
Q

scientific study of the sound systems and patterns used to create the sounds and words of a language

A

phonology

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133
Q

smallest units of sound that can affect meaning

A

phonemees

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134
Q

variations of phonemes

A

allophones

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135
Q

abstract system of sounds

A

phonemic

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136
Q

concrete productions of specific sounds

A

phonetic

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137
Q

study of speech sounds

A

Phonetics

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138
Q

respiratory system consists of the :

A

lungs diaphragm rib cage airway and related strcutures

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139
Q

vocal fold vibrations create _____ necessary for voiced sounds

A

phonation

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140
Q

modification of sound by structure or cavities through which the sound passes

A

resonance

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141
Q

production of speech sounds

A

articulation

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142
Q

slash marks =

brackets =

A

phonemic transcription

phonetic transctiption

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143
Q

record more detail about how a speaker produces sounds; includes diacritical markers

A

narrow phonetic transctiption

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144
Q

smalles phonetic unit

A

syllable

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145
Q

initial consonant or consonant cluster of a syllable

A

onset

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146
Q

vowel or diphthong in the midd of the syllable

A

nucleus

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147
Q

consonant at the end of the syllable

A

coda

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148
Q

_____ may be termed syllabics because they carry syllables

A

vowels

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149
Q

open syllables end in ______

closed syllables end in _______

A

vowels

consonants

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150
Q

unique characteristic of a phoneme that distinguishes one phoneme from another

A

distinctive feature

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151
Q

refers to the location of the sounds production indicating the primary articulators that shape the sounds

A

place of articulation

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152
Q

refers to vocal fold vibration during production of sounds

A

voicing

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153
Q

refers to the degree or type of constriction on the vocal tract during consonant production

A

manner of articulation

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154
Q

speech sounds produced by movements of articulatory muscles; an be voiced or voiceless

A

consonants

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155
Q

produced when the dorm of the tongue contracts the velum

A

linguavelars

g,j,ing

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156
Q

produced when the tongue blade is pressed against the hard palate to form the point of constriction just posterior to the alveolar ridge

A

linguapalatals

j,r,dj,ch,j,sh

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157
Q

produced by contact of the tip of the tongue with the alveolar ridge

A

lingua-alveolars

s,z,n,l,t,d

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158
Q

produced by protruding the tongue tip slighting between the cutting edge of the lower and upper front teeth, forming narrow constriction

A

lingua dental

th sounds

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159
Q

produced by mutual contact of the upper and lower lips

A

bilabials

w,m,b,,p

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160
Q

produced by placing the lower edge of the upper teeth on the upper portion of the low lip

A

labiodentals

f,v

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161
Q

produced at the level of the glottis, vocal folds are open

A

glottals

h

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162
Q

sounds that are identical in every way except voicing

A

cognate pairs

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163
Q

Vowels are produced with a ______ because all vowels are ________

A

open vocal tract

voiced

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164
Q

produced as a slow gliding movement from one vowel to the adjacent vowel

A

diphthong

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165
Q

compromise two types of variations according to preceding and following sounds; variations in the way the articulators move; extent to which vocal tract configurations change shape

A

adaptations

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166
Q

speech sounds are modified due to the influence of adjacent sounds

A

assimilation

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167
Q

influence of one phoneme upon another phoneme in production or perception

A

coarticulation

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168
Q

two different articulators move simulataneously to produce to different speech sounds; creating both adaptation and assimilation

A

coarticulation

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169
Q

features of prosody, add meaning, variety, and color to running speech

A

suprasegmentals

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170
Q

Most commonly described suprasegmental that affect speech production:

A
length 
stress
rate
pitch
 volume
and juncture
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171
Q

refers to the speech with which a person speaks

A

rate

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172
Q

auditory sensation of the frequency with which the vocal folds vibrate

A

pitch

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173
Q

sound pressure; loudness

A

intensity

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174
Q

vocal punctuation, combination of suprasegmentals such as intonation and pausing

A

juncture

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175
Q

study of the physical properties of sound and how sound is generated and propagated

A

acoustics

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176
Q

study of how humans respond to sound as a physical phemonmenon

A

psychoacoustics

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177
Q

movements of particles in a medium containing expansions and contractions of molecules

A

sound waves

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178
Q

phase of sound in which the vibratory movement of an object increase the density of air molecules because the molecules are compressed or condensed

A

compression

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179
Q

thinning of air molecules when the vibrating object returns to equilibrium

A

rarefaction

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180
Q

sound waves that don’t repeat themselves

A

aperiodic waves

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181
Q

sound waves that repeat themselves at regular interval and are predictable

A

periodic waves

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182
Q

strength or magnitude of a sound signal

A

amplitude

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183
Q

quality of sound that creates a sensation of loudness

A

intensity

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184
Q

measure of sound that equals one tenth of a bel

A

DB

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185
Q

referes to the back and forth movement of the air molecules because of a vibrating object

A

oscillation

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186
Q

vector quantity that tends to produce an acceleration of a body in the direction of its application

A

force

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187
Q

unit of measure for frequency; cycle per second

A

Hertz

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188
Q

lowest frequency of a periodic wave

A

fundamental frequency

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189
Q

interval between two frequencies

A

octave

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190
Q

sound waves traveling back after hitting an obstacle with no change in the speed of propagation

A

reflection

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191
Q

bending of the sound wave due to a change in its speed propagation

A

refraction

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192
Q

modification of sound by other sources

A

resonance

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193
Q

the two main properties of a medium that affect transmission of sound are:

A

mass (density) and elasticity

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194
Q

number of times a cycle of vibration repeats itself

A

frequency

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195
Q

when a tone contains a single frequency

A

pure tone

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196
Q

two or more single frequency tones of differing frequencies are combined

A

complex tone

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197
Q

measure of the number of cycles per second or Hz

A

frequency

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198
Q

normal ear of young adults can respond to :

A

20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

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199
Q

study of word structure

A

morphology

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200
Q

smalles meaningful unit of sound

A

morpheme

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201
Q

words that have meaning and cannot be broken down into small segments

A

free morphemes

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202
Q

cannot convey meaning by themselves and must be joined to have meaning

A

bound morphemes

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203
Q

study of sentence structure

A

syntax

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204
Q

study of meaning in language; vocabulary or lexicon

A

semantics

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205
Q

all round items are balls is an example of

A

overextension

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206
Q

only an oreo is a cookie is an example of

A

underextension

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207
Q

study of rules that govern the use language is social situations

A

pragmatics

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208
Q

how utterances are related to one another

A

discourse

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209
Q

form of discourse in which the speaker tells a story

A

narrative

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210
Q

analyzes language according to five components; morphology, syntax,semantics, pragmatics, and phonology

A

linguistic approach

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211
Q

speech that includes several characters that help babies attend and respond; higher pitch and greater pitch inflections

A

motherese

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212
Q

Stages of pragmatics include:

A

perlocutionary
illocutionary
locutionary
joint reference

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213
Q

one-word sentences

A

holophrasic

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214
Q

Presupposition emerge when?

A

between 1 & 2 yo

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215
Q

Hallidays 7 functions of communication between 9 & 18 months include:

A

imaginative, heuristic, regulatory, personal, informative, instrumental, interactional

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216
Q

Dore’s 12-24 month communication functions:

A

practicing, protesting, greeting, calling/addressing, requesting action, requesting an answer, labeling, repeating/imitating, answering

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217
Q

childs specific ability to detect and manipulate sounds and syllables in words

A

phonological awareness

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218
Q

children emergent knowledge about functions and forms of written language

A

print knowledge

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219
Q

Phonological awareness and print knowledge are:

A

foundational to reading and writing skills

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220
Q

When a typically developing child enters kindergarten they should have _____________ skills.

A

solid listening and speaking (auditory and oral )

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221
Q

during preschool years children should have had good exposure to _______ and ________ skills and activities

A

pre reading and pre writing

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222
Q

In ___________ teachers work on strengthening the children oral skills as well as addressing basic reading and writing

A

kindergarten

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223
Q

In ___________ teachers concentrate on reading and writing

A

1st grade

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224
Q

________ emphasize increased skills in reading, writing and independent reading is encourages as well as spelling

A

second grade

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225
Q

_______ children are expected to read longer and more complex stories and write longer more complex paragraphs

A

3rd grade

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226
Q

_________ transition from learning to read and write to reading and writing to learn

A

4th-6th

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227
Q

by 6th grade a child should understand _____ words

By high school ________ words

A

50,000

80,000

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228
Q

a form of social behavior maintained by the action of a verbal community; acquired under appropriate conditions of stimulation, response, and reinforcement

A

Verbal behaviors

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229
Q

________ suggest that learning plays a major role in the acquisition of verbal behaviors

A

behavioral scientists

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230
Q

Behavioral scientists believe that the events in the childs ___________ and ________ are important

A

environment and social interactions

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231
Q

Mands:

A

demand/requests

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232
Q

Tacts:

A

group of verbal responses that describe and comment on the things around us

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233
Q

echoics:

A

imitative verbal responses

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234
Q

autoclitics:

A

explain why something is being said

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235
Q

intraverbals:

A

what one says may be stimulus for more to be said; continuous fluent speech

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236
Q

children are born with a language acquisition device; which contains the universal rules of language

A

nativist theory

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237
Q

children are born with an innate capacity to learn language and language is not learned through environmental stimulation, reinforcement or teaching

A

Nativist theory

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238
Q

emphasizes cognition, or knowledge and mental processes such as memory, attention, and visual and auditory perception

A

cognitive theory

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239
Q

according to this theory language acquisition is made possible by cognition and general intellectual processes

A

cognitive theory

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240
Q

view the human info-processing system as a mechanism which encodes stimuli from the environment, operates on interpretations of those stimuli, store the results in memory, and permits retrieval of previous stored information

A

information processing theory

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241
Q

deals with the processes involved in the ability to mentally manipulate phonological aspects of language such as word rhyming, word segmentation, syllabication and others

A

phonological processing

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242
Q

deals with the ability to perceive the brief acoustic events that comprise speech sounds and track changes in these events as they happen quickly in the speech of other people

A

temporal auditory processing

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243
Q

believe that language develops because people are motivated to interact socially with other around them

A

social interactionists

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244
Q

impairment specific to language with no known etiology,

A

specific language impairment

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245
Q

The language of children with intellectual disabilities is _______ rather than_______

A

delayed deviant

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246
Q

______ diagnosed before age 3; impaired social interaction; disturbed communication; stereotypic patterns of behavior, interests, and activities

A

Autism

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247
Q

SCERTS model

A

SC - social communication
ER - emotional regulation
TS- by by implementing transactional supports

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248
Q

______ in children refers to cerebral damage due to external physical force

A

TBI

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249
Q

disorder of early childhood in which the immature nervous system is affected

A

CP

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250
Q

CP is not a progressive disease; generally occurs because:

A

prenatal brain injury
perinatal brain injury
postnatal brain injury

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251
Q

Children with CP manifest various body parts:

A

hemiplegia: one side of the body is paralyzed
paraplegia: only the legs and lower trunk are paralyze
monoplegia: only one limb
diplegia: two legs or two arms
quadriplegia: all 4 limbs

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252
Q

Three major types of CP:

A

ataxic CP: disturbed balance, awkward gait and uncoordinated movement
Athetoid CP: slow, writhing involuntary movements
Spastic CP: increased spasticity, stiff, abrupt, jerky, slow movements

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253
Q

______ is more critical to language than ________

A

socieoeconomic status and ethnic backgrounds

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254
Q

pattern of mental physical and behavrioal defects that develop infants born to some women who drink heavily during pregnancy

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome FAS

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255
Q

a process of quickly obtaining a general overview of a childs language skills

A

screening

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256
Q

provide clinicians with a quantitative means of comparing the childs performance to the performance of large groups d children in a similar age category

A

standardized tests

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257
Q

recording a students language under relatively typical and appropriate for the client conditions which usually involve conversations

A

language sampling

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258
Q

MLU Calculation

A

Mean Length Utterance

number of morphemes divided by number of utterances

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259
Q

clinician expands a childs telegraphic or incomplete utterance into a more grammatically correct utterance

A

expansion

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260
Q

clinician comments on the childs utterance and adds new relevant information

A

extension

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261
Q

clinician repeatedly models a target structure to stimulate the child to use it

A

focused stimulation

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262
Q

teaches functional communication skills through the use of typical, everyday verbal interactions that arise naturally

A

milieu teaching

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263
Q

technique utilized in milieu teaching

A

incidental teaching, mane-model, time delay

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264
Q

adult who waits for the child to initiate a verbal response

A

incidental teaching

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265
Q

teaches language through the use of typical adult-child interactions in a play-oriented setting

A

mand-model

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266
Q

clinician waits for the child to initiate verbal responses in relation to stimuli that are separated by predetermined waiting period

A

time-delay

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267
Q

the clinician plays wit the child and describes and comments upon what the child is doing and the objects the child is interested in

A

parallel talk

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268
Q

clinician repeat what the child says during language stimulation activities

A

reauditorization

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269
Q

clinician describes her own activity as she plays with the child.

A

self-talk

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270
Q

learning written language should be like learning oral language

A

whole-language approach

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271
Q

provides alternative means of communication for children with extremely limited oral communication skills

A

AAC Augmentative and alternative communication

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272
Q

look like the object or picture they represent

A

iconic symbols

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273
Q

arbitrary, abstract, and geometric

A

noniconic symbols

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274
Q

no instruments or external aids are used; ASL, eye-blink encoding

A

unaided AAC

275
Q

gestures or movements are combined with an instrument or message-display device

A

aided AAC

276
Q

graphic symbols that represent nouns, verbs and prepositions

A

picsyms

277
Q

white drawings on a black background

A

pic symbols

278
Q

semi-iconic and abstract symbols; can be taught to speakers of any linguistic and cultural background

A

blissymbols

279
Q

ideographic or pictographic symbols based on ASL

A

sig symbols

280
Q

pictures that represent events or objects along with words, grammatical morphemes, or both

A

rebuses

281
Q

used to establish norms of articulation development

A

cross-sectional

282
Q

typical behaviors of a representative group of children

A

norms

283
Q

observes the processor learning over an extended period of time

A

longitudinal studies

284
Q

when the frenum is thus attached to close to the tip of the tongue

A

anklyoglossia

285
Q

deviations in the shape and dimensions of the mandible and maxilla and the positioning of individual teeth

A

malocclusion

286
Q

arches themselves are generally aligned properly but some individual teeth are misaligned

A

Class I malocclusion

287
Q

the upper jaw or maxilla is protruded and the lower jaw or mandible is receded(overbite)

A

Class II malocclusion

288
Q

Overjet occurs when the upper teeth from the molars forward are positioned excessively anterior to the lower teeth

A

Class II malocclusion

289
Q

the maxilla is receded and the mandible is protruded

A

Class III malocclusion

290
Q

Oller’s stages of development of prelinguistic non-reflexive vocalizations:

A
  1. Phonation stage 1 month
  2. cooing or gooing stage 2-4 months
  3. Expansion Stage 4-6 months
  4. Canonical or reduplicated babbling stage 6-8 months
  5. Variegate or non reduplicated babbling stage 8months-1 year
291
Q

childrens phonological processes can be sorted into three categories:

A

substitution
assimilation
syllable structure

292
Q

vowel subsituted for a syllabic consonant

A

vowelization

293
Q

liquid consonant is produced as a glide

A

gliding

294
Q

an alveolar or dental replaces a velar

A

velar fronting

295
Q

fricative or affricate is replaced by a stop

A

stopping

296
Q

child subsitutes an alveolar affricate for a palatal affricate or an alveolar fricative for a palatal fricative

A

depalatization

297
Q

an affricate is produced in place of a fricative or stop

A

affrication

298
Q

a fricative replaces an affricate

A

deaffricaion

299
Q

posteriorly placed consonant is produced instead of an anteriorly place consonant

A

backing

300
Q

a glottal stop is produced in place of a other consonant

A

glottal replacement

301
Q

sounds are changed by the influence of neighboring sounds

A

assimilation proces

302
Q

child repeats a pattern

A

reduplication

303
Q

occurs due to the influence of a later occurring sound on an earlier sound

A

regressive assimilatio n

304
Q

an earlier occurring sound influences a later occurring sound

A

progressive assimilation

305
Q

Voicing assimilation can either be ______ or -_______

A

devoicing or voicing

306
Q

involves the omission of an unstressed syllable

A

unstressed or weak-syllable deletion

307
Q

final consonant is omitted

A

final consonant deletion

308
Q

a schwa is inserted between the consonants in an initial cluster or after a final voiced stop

A

epenthesis

309
Q

consonant or consonants in a cluster are deleted

A

consonant cluster reduction/simplification

310
Q

addition of /i/ to the target form

A

diminutization

311
Q

production of sounds in a word in reversed order

A

metathesis

312
Q

Oral motor coordination skills are evaluated through tests of:

A

diadochokinetic rate

313
Q

speech motor disorder caused by peripheral or central nervous system damage; paralysis weakness or incoordination of the muscles of speech

A

dysarthria

314
Q

monotonous pitch, deviate voice quality, variable speech rate and hyper nasality; slurred

A

diarrheic speech

315
Q

motor programming disorder caused by central nervous system damage

A

apraxia of speech

316
Q

brief initial procedure that helps determine whether a chid should be assessed further and in more depth

A

screening

317
Q

General assessment objectives should include:

A

case history, screening, oral peripheral exam, hearing screening, language assessment

318
Q

The goal of ________ is to assess the presence of any structural or functional factors that might be contributing to the SSD.

A

orofacial examination

319
Q

childs ability to imitate the clinicians model

A

Stimulability

320
Q

a childs speech patterns are discribed without reference to the adult model of the language of the childs community

A

independent analysis

321
Q

a childs speech is compared to the adult model of his or her speech community

A

relational analysis

322
Q

______ arise from the influence of the childs first language. ______ when the child makes errors that are not typical for his or her cultural and linguistic speech community

A

Difference

Disorder

323
Q

foundation for motor approaches to articulation therapy focusing on auditory descrimination/perceptual training, phonetic placement, and drill-like repetition and practice at increasingly complex motor levels until target phonemes were automatized

A

Van Ripers Traditional Approac h

324
Q

teach clients to distinguish between correct and incorrect productions of speech sounds

A

auditory descrimination

325
Q

used when the client cannot imitate the modeled production of a phoneme; clinician uses verbal instructions, modeling, physical guidance and visual feedback

A

phonetic placement

326
Q

This approach focuses on establishing correct auditory perception of target phonemes and training accurate motor production of individual phonemes

A

Van Ripers Tradition Approach

327
Q

sensory-motor approach based on the assumption that the syllable is the basic unit of speech production

A

McDonalds Sensory-Motor Approach

328
Q

Therapy is heard toward modifying the child’s underlying rule system so that it matches the adult standard

A

Linguistic approach

329
Q

pairs of words that differ by one feature

A

minimal pairs

330
Q

goal of this approach is to establish missing distinctive features or feature contrasts by teaching relevant sounds

A

Distinctive Features Approach

331
Q

clinician uses pairs of words that differ by only one feature the feature the clinician is trying to help the child conceptualize

A

minimal pair contrast therapy

332
Q

clinician uses word pairs that contain maximum number of phonemic contrasts

A

maximal contrast therapy

333
Q

assumes the childs difficulties do not lie in the actual motor production of speech sounds but in the acquisition of the rules of the phonological system

A

Metaphon Therapy

334
Q

based on the assumption that a childs multiple errors reflect the operation of certain phonological rules that the problem is essentially phonemic not phonetic

A

Phonological Process Approach

335
Q

error patterns are targeted for remediation based on stimulability intelligibility and percentage of occurrence

A

Hodson and Padens Cycles Approach

336
Q

explicit awareness of the sound structure of a language or attention to the internal structure of words

A

phonological awareness

337
Q

Cycles Treatment sessions consists of:

A

1- review of previous sessions target words
2- auditory bombardment
3- activities involving new target words
4- play break
5- more activities involving new target words
6- repeating auditory bombardment and dismissal

338
Q

childs ability to manipulate and think about the structure of language

A

metalinguistic analysis

339
Q

focuses on feature difference between sounds to help children develop awareness that sounds can be classified bt characteristics such as place, duration and others

A

Metaphon Therapy

340
Q

Accoring to ________ stuttering occurs whe the forward flow of speech is interrupted by a metrically disrupted sound, syllable, or word or by the speakers reactions thereto

A

Van Riper

341
Q

disfluencies interrupt the flow of speech.

A

.

342
Q

saying the element of speech more than one time

A

repeitions

343
Q

repetition of a part of a word or a sound or syllable

A

part-word repetitions

344
Q

repetitions of an entire word more than once;

A

whole-word repetitions

345
Q

repetition of more than one word

A

phrase repeitions

346
Q

sounds produced for a duration longer than typical

A

sound prolongation

347
Q

articulatory posture held for a duration longer than average but with no vocalization

A

silent prolongations

348
Q

extraneous elements introduced into speech sequence

A

interjections

349
Q

silent intervals in the speech sequence at inappropriate junctures or of unusually long duration

A

Pauses

350
Q

silent interval within words, also known as intralexical pauses

A

broken words

351
Q

often described as incomplete phrases these are grammatically incomplete productions

A

incomplete sentences

352
Q

changes in wording that do not change the overall meaning of an utterance

A

revisions

353
Q

Speech that contains __________ disfluencies may be judged disfluent or stuttered by most listeners

A

5% or more

354
Q

rate of occurrence in a specified group of people

A

incidence

355
Q

determined by counting the number of individuals who currently have something

A

prevalence

356
Q

____ of the population hs a probability of ever stuttering

_____ of the US population

A

5%

1%

357
Q

frequency in which a given condition appears in successive generations of blood relatives

A

familial prevalence

358
Q

occurrence of the same clinician condition i both members of a twin pair

A

concordance

359
Q

disappearance without professional help

A

spontanous recovery

360
Q

Preschool children stuttering tends to occur on _______

A

function words

361
Q

systematic reduction in the frequency of stuttering when a short printed passage is repeated aloud

A

adaptation effect

362
Q

occurrence of stuttering on the same word or loci when a passage is read aloud repeatedly

A

consistency effect

363
Q

occurrence of new stuttering on words that surround previous stuttered words

A

adjacency effect

364
Q

observation that the frequency of stuttering increased with an increase in audience size

A

audience size effect

365
Q

People who stutter:

A

do not have distinct personalities, are not clinically maladjusted, are not clinically and chronically anxious, may have low self esteem

366
Q

Parents of people who stutter:

A

do not exhibit unique personality patterns, are not clinically maladjusted or neurotic, may exhibit somewhat higher standard of behavior and be somewhat more critical of their children

367
Q

Stuttering has a higher familial incidence, well-established gender ratio in the prevalence of stuttering, and shows a higher concordance rate among identical twins

A

.

368
Q

electroencephalographic studies suggest that the brain waves may be _________ in PWS

A

abnormal

369
Q

when parents punish a childs normal nonfluencies the child develops anticipatory apprehensive and hypertonic avoidance reactions that are indeed stuttering

A

diagnosogenic theory

370
Q

stuttering may have many origins most of them related to various kinds of severe communicative pressure that leads to repeated communicative failures

A

anticipatory struggle hypothesis

371
Q

stuttering can result when a child faces demands for communication that he or she cannot meet because of limited capacities

A

demands and capacities model

372
Q

Diagnostic criteria in determining stuttering includes:

A

dysfluency rate that exceeds 5%
certain frequency of part-word repetition, speech-sound prolongations, and broken words (at least 2% of the words spoken)
excessive duration of disfluencies

373
Q

goal of this therapy is not normal fluency but more fluent stuttering

A

stutter-more fluency approach/ fluent stuttering approach Van Riper

374
Q

Goal of this therapy is to establish normal fluency; through teaching various skills of fluency

A

Fluency shaping method

375
Q

positively reinforce fluent speech in naturalistic conversational contexts

A

Fluency reinforcement method

376
Q

Person who stutters is taught to pause after each disfluency and then resume talking

A

Time-out

377
Q

for every instance of stuttering the clinician take away a token, for every fluent production the child is awarded a token

A

Response-Cost

378
Q

Direct Stuttering Reduction Methods _________ is preferred for preschoolers and children in the early elementary school grades and _______ is preferred for older children and adults

A

response cost

time-out

379
Q

form of fluency disorder associated with documented neuropathology

A

neurogenic stuttering

380
Q

Common etiologic factors of neurogenic stuttering include:

A

cerebral vasular disorder that cause stroke and head trauma; extrapyramidal diseases, PD, progressive supranuclear palsy; brain tumors; brain surgery; seizures; dementia; drug toxicity

381
Q

Adult onset of stuttering, TBI, drug toxicity, and neurosurgery are all indicative of :

A

neurogenic stuttering

382
Q

_______ is assessed and treated in the context of the existing neurological diseases and associated disorders of communication

A

neurogenic stuttering

383
Q

disorder of fluency characterized by rapid but disordered articulation, possible combined with a high rate of disfluencies and disorganized through and language

A

Cluttering

384
Q

Little research exists about stuttering treatment but _______ and _______ helps some people who clutter sound more intelligible

A

reducing the speaking rate and increasing self-awareness

385
Q

The position that stuttering indicates a social role conflict was taken by:

A

Sheehan

386
Q

The fact or facts about stuttering adaptation include:

A

most of the reduction in stuttering occurs by the 5th reading

387
Q

Who proposed that stuttering is limited to part-word repetitions and sound prolongations; stuttering is due to classically conditioned negative emotions; some dysfluencies are operantly conditioned

A

Brutten and Shoemaker

388
Q

Cancellations, pull-outs, and preparatory sets are taught in the:

A

fluency stuttering approach

389
Q

Air-flow managements, gentle phonatory onset, and reduced rate of speech are targets in:

A

the fluency shaping technique

390
Q

The theory that stuttering is caused by lack of a unilateral dominant hemisphere is the:

A

cerebral dominance theory

391
Q

biological valve located at the top of the trachea; helps close the entry to the trach so food, liquids, and other particles to not enter the lungs

A

larynx

392
Q

The larynx house the _______ which vibrate to produce voice

A

vocal folds

393
Q

The opening between the vocal folds is called the

A

glottis

394
Q

lie above the true vocal folds; only used during activities such as lifting or coughing

A

ventricular or false vocal folds

395
Q

lie above the ventricular folds; separate the pharynx from the laryngeal vestibule and help preserve the airway

A

aryepiglottic folds

396
Q

innervates the posterior belly of the digastric muscle of the vocal folds.

A

Cranial nerve VII

397
Q

CN_____ innervates the larynx

A

X

398
Q

The________ has internal and external branches.

A

superior laryngeal nerve

399
Q

_______ branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides all sensory information to the larynx and the ________ branch provides all motor innervation solely to the cricothryoid muscle

A

internal

external

400
Q

supplies all motor innovation to the interarytenoid, posterior cricoarytenoid, thryoarytenoid, and lateral cricoarytenoid muscles; supplies all sensory info below the vocal folds

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

401
Q

larynx is suspended fro the _______

A

hyoid bone

402
Q

protects the trachea by closing down inferiorly and posteriorly over the laryngeal area directing liquids and food into the esophagus during swallowing

A

epiglottis

403
Q

shields the laryngeal structures from damage; adams apple

A

thyroid cartilage

404
Q

refers to a clients ability to sustain “ah”

A

maximum phonation time MPT

405
Q

perceptual correlate of frequency is

A

pitch

406
Q

an individuals habitual or typical pitch

A

fundamental frequency

407
Q

variation in vocal frequency that are often heard in dysphonia patients

A

frequency perturbation or jitter

408
Q

perceptual correlate of intensity

A

volume or loudness

409
Q

The greater the _______ the louder the voice

A

amplitude

410
Q

cycle-to- cycle variation of vocal intensity

A

amplitude perturbation or shimmer

411
Q

bright light source and a small round mirror angled on a long slender handle to lift the velum and press gently against the patients posterior pharyngeal wall area

A

indirect laryngoscopy

412
Q

procedure performed by a surgeon, laryngoscope is introduced through the mouth into the pharynx and positioned above the vocal folds

A

direct laryngoscopy

413
Q

procedure utilizes a thin flexible tube contining a lens and fiber-optic light bundles

A

flexible fiber-optic laryngoscopy

414
Q

Rigid endoscope is inttoduced ______ and flexible is introduced __________

A

orally

nasally

415
Q

graphic representation of a sound waves intensity and frequency as function of time

A

sound spectrography

416
Q

pulsing light that permits the optical illusion of slow-motion viewing of the vocal folds during a variety of tasks

A

videostroboscopy

417
Q

noninvasive procedure yields an indrect measure of vocal fold closure patterns

A

electrogottography EGG

418
Q

invasie procedure directly measure laryngeal function to study the pattern of electrical activity of the vocal folds and to view muscle activity patterns

A

Electromyography (EMG)

419
Q

amount of air inhaled and exhaled during a normal breathing cycle

A

tidal volume

420
Q

the volume of air that the patient can exhale after a maximal inhalation

A

vital capacity

421
Q

total volume of air in the lungs

A

total lung capacity

422
Q

nasal resonance is absent of nasal sounds

A

hyponasality

423
Q

when too much nasal resonance is present on non-nasal sounds

A

hypernasality

424
Q

results when the velopharyngeal mechanism does not close the opening to the nasal passage during the production of non-nasal sounds

A

hypernasality

425
Q

_______ is a major cause of hyper nasality

A

cleft-palate

426
Q

the velopharyngeal mechanism is inadequate to achieve closure; nasal cavity is not sealed off from the oral cavity

A

velopharyngeal inadequacy (VPI)

427
Q

when the sound from a nasal consonant carries over to the adjacent vowels

A

asssimilative nasality

428
Q

backward retraction of the tongue; tongue is carried too far posteriorly in the oral cavity

A

cul-de-sac resonance

429
Q

Early warning signs of laryngeal chance include:

A

hoarsness, difficulty swallowing, sore throat that doesn’t go away, ear pain, lump in neck or throat

430
Q

TNM

A

Tumor
Nodes
Metastasis

431
Q

Laryngectomees produce vocalization in three ways:

A

external devices, esophageal speech and surgical motivation or implanted devices

432
Q

patient impounds the air in the mouth and the air is pushed back into the esophagus and then expelled

A

injection method

433
Q

patient is taught to inhale rapidly while keeping the esophagus open and relaxed

A

inhalation method

434
Q

localized inflammatory vascular lesion that is usually composed of tissue in a firm rounded same

A

granulomas

435
Q

Granulomas may be caused by:

A

vocal abuse, intubation during surgery, injury to the larynx, and GERD

436
Q

soft pliable and filled with blood

A

Hemangioma

437
Q

Hemangioma may be caused by:

A

intubation or hyperacidity due to GERD

438
Q

benign growths of thick, whitish patches on the surface membrane of the mucosa

A

Leukoplakia

439
Q

Leukoplakia may be cause by:

A

tissue iritaiton, caused by smoking, alcohol, or vocal abuse

440
Q

rough pinkish leision that can appear in the oral cavity, larynx, or pharynx

A

Hyperkeratosis

441
Q

Hyperkeratosis may be caused by

A

tissue irritation caused from smoking GERD and vocal abuse

442
Q

narrowing of the subglottic space

A

subglottal stenosis

443
Q

white or pink wart-like growths founding the airway

A

papillomas

444
Q

membrane that grows across the anterior portion of the glottis

A

laryngeal web

445
Q

occurs when gastric contents of spontaneously empty into the esophagus when the person has not vomited or belched; heart burn acid indigestion

A

GERD

446
Q

intermittent involuntary fleeting vocal fold abduction when the paient tries to phonate

A

Abductor Spasmodic Dysphonia

447
Q

characterized by overpressure due to prolonged over adduction or tight closure of the vocal folds

A

Adductor spasmodic Dysphonia

448
Q

Botox is commonly used to treat

A

Spasmodic Dysphonia

449
Q

progressive and diffuse demyelination or white matter; impaired prosody, pitch, and loudness control, harshness, breathiness, hyper nasality, articulation breakdown and nasal air escape

A

Multiple Sclerosis

450
Q

nueromuscular autoimmune disease produced fatigue and muscle weakness; decreased amount of acetylcholine at the myoneuronal junction

A

Myasthenia Gravis

451
Q

progressive fatal degeneration of the upper and low motor neuron system

A

ALS

452
Q

caused by lack of dopamine in the substantial nigra of the basal ganglia

A

PD

453
Q

trauma or injury to the vocal folds

A

phonotrauma

454
Q

excessive shouting, screaming, cheering, excessive talking, coughing,

A

abusive behaviors

455
Q

small nodes that develop on the vocal folds and protrude from surround cells

A

vocal nodules

456
Q

masses that grown and bulge out from surround tissue; may be filled with fluid or have vascular tissue

A

polyps

457
Q

sores or createrlike areas of ulcerated granulated tissue that develop along the posterior third of the glottal margin

A

contact ulcers

458
Q

a young man speaks with a high pitch although the larynx has grown normally and puberty is completed

A

puperphonia

459
Q

Measurements of ________ indicate that in a normal speaker with no vocal pathology, it should be less than 1% as the speaker sustains a vowel

A

jitter

460
Q

Measurements of ________ evaluate the cycle-to-cycle variation of vocal intensity.

A

shimmer

461
Q

Which theory states that the epithelium, superficial layer of the lamina propria and much of the intermediate layer of the lamina propr. vibrate as a Cover o na relatively stationary body, which is made up of the remainder of the intermediate later the deep layer and the TA muscle

A

Cover-body theory

462
Q

neurologically based language disorder caused by strokes

A

aphasia

463
Q

caused by a blocked or interrupted blood supple to the brain

A

ischemic stroke

464
Q

collection of blood material that blocks the flow or blood

A

thrombus

465
Q

traveling mass of arterial debris or a clump of tissue from a tumor that gets lodged in a smaller artery and thus blocks the flow of blood

A

embolism

466
Q

caused by bleeding in the brain due to rupture blood vessels

A

hemorrhagic strokes

467
Q

within the brain

A

intracerebral

468
Q

within the meninges

A

extracerebral

469
Q

characterized by limited aggrammatic effortful halting and slow speech with impaired prosody

A

Nonfluent Aphasia

470
Q

Brooks area is located

A

posterior inferior frontral gyrus of the left hemisphere

471
Q

Brocas aphasia is characterized by:

A
nonfluent, effortful, slow, halting, and uneven speech
short phrases and sentence 
misarticulated sounds 
agrammatic or telegraphic speech
impaired reptition and naming 
monotonous speech
472
Q

Patients with _______ may have right-sided paralysis or weakness

A

Brocas Aphasi

473
Q

caused by lesions i the anterior superior frontal lobe; nonfluent aphasia

A

Transcortical Motor aphasia

474
Q

Transcortical Motor Aphasia is characterized by:

A
speechlessness
echolalia
reduced spontaneous speech
nonfluent, paraphasic, telegraphic speech 
nonsense syllable 
INTACT repetition
impaired writing
475
Q

absence of poverty of movement

A

akeinesia

476
Q

lowness of movement

A

bradykinesia

477
Q

nonfluent aphasia caused by lesions in the watershed area or the arterial border zone of the brain

A

Mixed Transcortical Aphasia

478
Q

Mixed Transcortical Aphasia is characterized by:

A
limited spontaneous speech
severe scholalia 
impaired fluency 
impaired auditory comrprehension 
naming difficulty 
severely impaired reading, writing, reading comprehension n
479
Q

most severe form of nonfluent aphasia caused by extensive lesions affecting all language areas

A

Global Aphasia

480
Q

Global Aphasia is characterized by:

A
profoundly impaired language skills 
reduced fluency
impaired reptition and naming 
perseveration 
impaired reading and writing
481
Q

Varieties of _______ are characterized by relatively intact fluency but generally less meaningful or even meaningless speech

A

fluent aphasias

482
Q

Wernickes area is located

A

the posterior portion of the superior temporal gyrus in the left hemisphere of the brain

483
Q

Wernickes aphasia is characterized by:

A

effortlessly produced flowing speech with normal or even abnormal fluency
rapid rate of speech with normal prosody
severe-wordfinding problems
paraphasic speech
circumlocution
empty speech
impaired reptition and conversational turn taking
poor communication in spite of fluent speech

484
Q

fluent aphasia caused by lesions in the temporoparietal region of the brain

A

Transcortical Sensory Aphasia

485
Q

transcortical sensory aphasic is characterized by:

A

fluent speech with normal phrase length, good prosody normal articulation
paraphasic and empty speech
severe naming problems
good repetition skills by poor comprehension
echolalia
good reading but poor comprehension

486
Q

_______ is associated with the onset of TSA may disappear _______ of the body may be common as well

A

hemiparesis

neglect of one side

487
Q

fluent aphasia caused by lesions in the region between Brocas area and Wernickes

A

Conduction Aphasia

488
Q

Conduction Aphasia is characterized by:

A
imaired repitions 
variable speech fluency 
paraphasic speech 
word finding problems 
empty speech 
severe to mild naming probalems 
highly variable reading problems 
writing problems
489
Q

People with conduction aphasia have good to normal __________

A

auditory comprehension

490
Q

fluent aphasia caused by lesions in different regions of the brain

A

anomic aphasia

491
Q

naming difficulty

A

anomia

492
Q

Anomic Aphasia is characterized by:

A
word-finding difficulty
generally fluent speech 
empty speech 
verbal paraphasia 
cicumlocution 
Intact repetition 
normal reading comprehension and writing skills
493
Q

Generally most language functions except for __________ are relatively unimpaired in anomic aphasia

A

naming

494
Q

Extensive subcortical damage with possible involved meant of the left cortical ares of the brain may underlie _________ with lesions in the basal ganglia

A

subcortical aphasia

495
Q

Supcortical aphasia is characterized by:

A
fluent speech
intact repition 
articulation problems 
prosodic problems 
word-finding problems 
limb apraxia
496
Q

systematically increasing the length and complexity of target responses

A

expansion of verbal expression

497
Q

loss of previously acquired reading skills due to recent brain damage

A

alexia

498
Q

difficulty in learning to read

A

dyslexia

499
Q

loss or impairment of normally acquired writing skills

A

agraphia

500
Q

impaired understanding of the meaning of certain stimuli even though there is no peripheral sensory impairment

A

agnosia

501
Q

neurogenic speech disorder characterized by sensorimotor problems is positioning and sequentially moving muscles for the volitional production of speech

A

apraxia of speech

502
Q

The most difficulty ________ have is mostly in executing the voluntary movements involved speech

A

AOS

503
Q

disorder of nonverbal movement involving the oral muscles

A

nonverbal oral apraxia

504
Q

caused by injury or damage to speech-motor programming areas in the dominant hemispheres

A

AOS

505
Q

Communication deficits in AOS include:

A
highly variable speech errors 
significant articulatory problems 
increased frequency of errors on long words 
prosodic problems 
groping and struggling behaviors
506
Q

Treatment of AOS should be carefully sequenced to move from __________ to _________ and eventually ___________

A

more automatic speech
less automatic speech
spontaneous speech

507
Q

Assessment of patients with AOS should include:

A

detailed individualized procedures as well as standardized tests

508
Q

neurologically based speech disorders, distinct from similarly based language disorders

A

dysarthria

509
Q

impaired muscular control of the speech mechanism and peripheral or central nervous system pathology are common to

A

all forms of dysarthria

510
Q

forced inspirations or expirations that interrupt speech, audible or breathy inspiration and fronting at the end end of expiration

A

Respiratory problems

511
Q

Phonatory disorder include:

A

pitch, loudness, and voice-quality problems

512
Q

imprecises production of consonants, prolongation and repetition of phonemes, irregular breakdowns in articulation, distortion of vowels and weak production of pressure consonants

A

articulation disorder

513
Q

slower, excessively faster or variable rate of speech; shorter phrase lengths; and linguistic stress problems as reduced even or excessive stress

A

prosodic disorders

514
Q

hypernasality hyponasality and nasal emission

A

resonance disorders

515
Q

results from damage to the cerebellar system; characterized by articulatory and prosodic problems

A

ataxic dysarthria

516
Q

Characteristics of ataxic dysarthria include:

A

instability of the trunk and head, tremor, hypotonia, uncoordinated jerky halting movement, imprecise production of consonant, prolonged phonemes slow rate of speech, mono pitch, mono loudness, and harshness, impression of drunken speech

517
Q

results from damage to the motor units of cranial or spinal nerves that supple speech muscles

A

flaccid dysarthria

518
Q

CN involved in flaccid dysarthria include:

A

V VII IX X XII

519
Q

Major characteristic of flaccid dysarthria include:

A

muscular disorder, twitches, respiratory weakness, CN weakness, phonatory disorder, hypernasality, impresicse consonants, harsh voice, monopitch, monoloudness, articulation disorders

520
Q

results from damage to the basal ganglia associated with involuntary moment and variable muscle tone

A

hyperkinetic dysarthria

521
Q

Characteristics of hyperkinetic dysarthria:

A

abnormal and involuntary movements of the orofracial muscles, myoclonus, tics, tremor, chorea, dystonia, communicative disorders, voice tremor, strained voice, harsh voice, intermittent hyper nasality, slower rate excess loudness, audible inspiration, imprecise consonant productions

522
Q

results from damage to the basal ganglia; caused by progressive supra nuclear palsy, PD, Alzheimers and Picks

A

hypokinetic dysarthria

523
Q

Hypokinetic dysarthria is characterized by:

A

termors, mask-like face, micrographic writing, walking disorder, postural disturbance, decreased swallowing, mono pitch, low pitch, reduced stress, short phrases, imprecise consonant, repeated phonemes, mild hyper nasality , reduced vital capacity, irregular breathing

524
Q

results of bilateral damage to the upper motor nuerons

A

spastic dysarthria

525
Q

Spastic dysarthria is characterized by:

A

spasticity and weakness, reduced rand and slowness, hyperactive gag reflex, hyeradduction of vocal folds, prosodic disorder, articulation disorder, mono pitch, mono loudness, breathy voice, harshness, hyper nasality

526
Q

combination of two or more pure dysarthria

A

mixed dysarthria

527
Q

The two most common forms of mixed dysarthria are:

A

Mixed flaccid- spastic

Mixed Ataxic -spastic

528
Q

Mixed Flaccid-Spastic is strongly associated with

A

ALS

529
Q

Mixed Ataxic- Spastic is associated with

A

Multiple Sclerosis

530
Q

results from damage to the upper motor neurons

A

Unilateral upper motor neuron dysarthria

531
Q

UUMN is characterized by:

A

unilateral: lowere face weakness, tongue weakness, palatal weakness
hemiplegia, imprecises production of consonants, harsh voice, reduced loudness, slow rate, mono pitch, hypernasality, dysphagia, aphasia, apraxia, and right hemisphere syndrome

532
Q

All aspects of speech production need to be assessed to develop a treatment plan that seeks to modify the various speech production problems

A

.

533
Q

an acquired neurological syndrome associated with persistent of progressive deterioration in intellectual functions language, memory ,emotion , and behavior

A

dementia

534
Q

caused by prolonged alcohol abuse; impaired learning, reduced memory, difficulty with visual-spatial integration and difficulty processing abstract information

A

wenicke-korsakoff syndrome

535
Q

temporary intellectual impairment due to such factors as metabolic disturbances, nutritional defaces, chronic renal failure, persistent anemia, drug toxicity, and lung and heart disease

A

Reversible dementia

536
Q

form of cortical dementia where intellectual and language deterioration precedes motor deficits

A

DAT

537
Q

filamentous structures in the nerve cells, dendrites, and axons these are thickened twisted and tangled

A

neurofibrillary tangles

538
Q

minute areas of cortical and subcortical tissue degeneration

A

neuritic plaques

539
Q

depletion of neurochemical that help transmit messages across brain structures

A

neurochemical changes

540
Q

nerve cells are destroyed by fluid filled cavities containing granular debris

A

neuronal loss

541
Q

group of heterogeneous diseases that include picks disease

A

frontotemporal dementia

542
Q

a group of neurological disorder that include hypokinesia, tremor, and muscle rigidity

A

parkinsonism

543
Q

40-70 persons in a million; malformed protein kills the brain cells that control movement

A

Dementia associated with Huntingtons disease

544
Q

Right Hemisphere controls:

A
understanding stimuli, visual perception, geometric and spatial info
facial recognition, drawing and copying 
arousal attention and orientation 
emotional experience and expresion
 perception of musical harmony
545
Q

reduced awareness of the left side of the body and generally reduced awareness of stimuli in the left visual field

A

left neglect

546
Q

denial of illness

A

anosognosia

547
Q

difficulty in reproducing block designs drawing or copying geometric shapes and reproducing two dimensional stick figures

A

contructional imapirment

548
Q

injury to the brain sustained by physical trauma or external force

A

TBI

549
Q

fractured or perforated skull, torn or lacerated meninges, and an injury that extends to brain tissue

A

open-head penetrating brain injury

550
Q

brain injuries involve no open would in the head no penetration of a foreign substance into the brain and a damaged brain within the skull; meninges are intact

A

closed-head non penetrating injury

551
Q

when the head stop moving the brain keeps moving inside the skull and thus strikes the skull on the opposite side of the initial impact

A

acceleration-deceleration

552
Q

retrained head is hit by a moving object

A

nonacceleration injuries

553
Q

impaired execution of the oral, pharyngeal and esophageal stages of the swallow

A

dysphagia

554
Q

Causes of dysphagia include:

A

strokes, tumors and neurologic diseases, surgical and radiation treatment, TBI, cervical spine disease, polio, COPD, CP, genetic factors, side effects of prescriptions

555
Q

helps close the airway at the level of the vocal folds to prevent aspiration

A

supraglottic swallow

556
Q

helps increase the posterior motion of the tongue and increase pharyngeal pressure

A

effortful swallow

557
Q

helps elevate the larynx and thus widen the circopharyngeal opening

A

mendelshon maneuver

558
Q

______ is caused by lesions between Broca’s area and Wenicke’s area especially in the supra marginal gyrus and the arcuate fascicles

A

Conduction aphasia

559
Q

Patients with ________ usually present with a mask like face, slow voluntary movement, tremors in resist muscles and disturbed posture.

A

Parkinson’s Disease

560
Q

Characteristics of DATinclude:

A

poor judgement, impaired reasoning, disorientation in new places, widespread intellectual deterioration, empty speech, jargon, incoherent slurred and rapid speech and problems in comprehending abstract messages.

561
Q

the beliefs behaviors and values of group of people

A

culture

562
Q

means of categorizing others based upon perceptions that are incomplete

A

sterotypes

563
Q

the process by which immigrants assume american cultural attributes

A

acculturation

564
Q

process of their incorporation into the cultural and social networks o the host society

A

Assimiilation

565
Q

fully involved in both their own and the host culture

A

bicultural

566
Q

Misconceptions about AAE:

A

all african americans speak AAE, AAE is spoken only by African americans, AAE is a substandard form of mainstream american english, it does not have a regular predictable system

567
Q

The two major Spanish dialects in the US are:

A

southwestern and caribbean

568
Q

Chinese, Vietnamese and Laotian are basically:

A

monosyllabic

569
Q

refers to an error in a students second language that is directly produced by the influence of the first primary language

A

interference or transfer

570
Q

when learning a L2 go through this period in which there is much listening and comprehension and little output

A

silent period

571
Q

alternating or switching between two languages at the word, phrase, or sentence level

A

code-switching

572
Q

if use of the L1 is discontinued or diminished it is common for the second language learner to lose skills in that first langauage

A

Language loss

573
Q

occurs when two languages are acquired simultaneously from infancy

A

simultaneous bilingual acquisition

574
Q

Two types of language proficiency that clinicians should be aware of in assessing students:

A

BICS CALP

575
Q

both languages are impaired by not necessarily to the same degree

A

synergestic and differential recovery theory

576
Q

one language returns at the expense of another previously recovered language

A

antagonistic recover theory

577
Q

one language returns only after another has been completely restored

A

successive recovery theory

578
Q

one of the patients languages never recovers and remains impaired

A

selective recovery theory

579
Q

A CLD child is considered to have an Lld only if :

A

he or she has language learning difficulties that underlie both the primary language and english

580
Q

The ear is divided into three sections:

A

outer ear, middle ear, and inner ear

581
Q

The outer ear is composed of two parts:

A

auricle or pinna and external auditory canal

582
Q

air filled cavity; separated from the outer ear by the TM

A

middle ear

583
Q

three small bones of the middle ear form this

A

ossicular chain

584
Q

the _____ connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx

A

ET

585
Q

elastic, thin, cone-ship and vibrated in response to sound

A

tympanic membrane

586
Q

The three bones in the ossicular chain are:

A

malleus, incus , stapes

587
Q

The tensor tympani is innervated by CN____

A

V

588
Q

The stapedius muscle is innervated by CN_____

A

VII

589
Q

The opening of the eustachian tube is assisted by the contraction of the ________ and _________

A

tensor veli palatini and levator veli palatini

590
Q

back and forth movements of the molecules change the air pressure because the movements consist of an instance in which the molecules are compressed together

A

compression

591
Q

lowest intensity of a sound necessary to stimulate the auditory system

A

hearing level

592
Q

fetuses can respond to sound in:

A

first trimester of development

593
Q

the efficiency with which hotel sound is conducted to the middle or inner ear is diminished

A

conductive hearing loss

594
Q

the external ear canal is completely closed

A

aural atresia

595
Q

the pinna is very small and deformed

A

microtia

596
Q

results in an extremely narrow external auditory canal

A

stenosis

597
Q

middle ear effusion

A

otitis media

598
Q

damage to the hair cells of the cochlea or to the acoustic nerve prevents the brain from receiving the neural impulses of sound

A

sensorineural hearing loss

599
Q

hearing impairment in older people due to aging

A

presbycusis

600
Q

ringing or buzzing sound in the ears

A

tinnitus

601
Q

refers to the effectiveness and efficiency with which hotel central nervous system utilized auditory information

A

central auditory processing

602
Q

refer to hearing losses due to disrupted sound transmission between the brainstem and the cerebrum as a result of damage to malformation

A

central auditory disorder

603
Q

a disorder in a persons ability to take in the spoken message interpret it and make it meaningful

A

CAPD

604
Q

electronic instrument that generates and amplifies pure tones, noise, and other stimuli for testing hearing

A

audiometer

605
Q

hearing test is carried out to determine the threshold of hearing for selected frequenting

A

pure-tone

606
Q

an intensity level at which a tone is faintly heard at least 50% of the time it is presented

A

threshhold

607
Q

assesses the sensitivity of the sensorineural portion of the auditory mechanism; when the sound strikes the bones of the skull the bones vibrate and thus stimulate the fluid in both inner ears

A

bone-conduction testing

608
Q

masking is used when hearing in one ear is markedly better than hearing in the other ear

A

air-conduction testing

609
Q

measure how well a person understand speech and discriminated between speech sounds

A

speech audiometry

610
Q

defined as the lowest level of hearing at which the person can understand 50% of the words presented

A

speech reception threshold

611
Q

establishes how well a person discriminates between words by having the person correctly repeat monosyllabic words such as cap and day

A

word discrimination or word recognition

612
Q

small electronic devices worn inside the ear unilaterally or bilaterally depending on the need of the person; amplify sound and deliver it to the ear canal

A

traditional hearing aids

613
Q

electronic devices that are surgically placed in the cochlea and other parts of the ear and deliver sound directly to the acoustic nerve ending s in the cochlea

A

cochlear implant

614
Q

Hearing aid deliver amplified sound to the __________ whereas cochlear implants deliver electrical impels directly to the __________

A

ear canal

auditory nerve

615
Q

attempt to use amplification methods such as hearing aids or cochlear implants to tap children residual hearing

A

aural/oral method

616
Q

means of nonverbal communication that involves signing and fingerspelling

A

manual approach

617
Q

teaching both verbal and nonverbal means of communication; signs and speech used simultaneously

A

total communication

618
Q

clients receive services that are known to be based on reliable and valid research and sound clinical judgment

A

evidenced based practice

619
Q

professional judgement made about the future course of a disorder or disease; predivitive statement about what might happen under various future circumstances

A

prognosis

620
Q

the goal of this is to obtain a representative sample of the clients speech language production in a naturalistic contexts that reflect the clients everyday communication

A

speech and language sampling

621
Q

degree to which a new test correlates with an establish test of known validity

A

concurrent validity

622
Q

degré to which test scores are consistent with theoretical contracts or concepts

A

construct validity

623
Q

measure of validity based on a thorough examination of all test items to determine if the items are relevant to measuring what the test purport to measure

A

content validity

624
Q

refers to the accuracy with which a test predicts future performance on related task

A

predictive validity

625
Q

consistently or stability with which the same even is repeatedly measures

A

reliability

626
Q

refers to how similarly a subjects performance is independently rated or measure by two or more observes

A

interjudge reliability

627
Q

this is the consistency with which the same observer measure the same phenomenon on repeated occasions

A

intrajudge reliability

628
Q

consistency of measures when two forms of the same test are administered to the same person

A

alternate form reliability

629
Q

consistency of measures when the same test is administer to the same person twice over a period of time

A

test-retest reliability

630
Q

measure of internal consistency of a test showing that the responses to the items on the first half of the test are correlated with the responses given to the items on the second half of the test

A

split-half reliability

631
Q

a category is present or absent

A

nominal scale

632
Q

numerical scale that can be arranged according to rank orders or levels

A

ordinal scale

633
Q

evaluate the clients day to day communication skills in naturalistic socially meaningful contexts

A

functional assessment

634
Q

experiment first and explain later approach

A

inductive method

635
Q

explain first and verify later approach

A

deductive method

636
Q

null hypothesis =

alternate hypothesis -

A

zero; two variables are not related

two variables are indeed related

637
Q

the variable that is affected by manipulation of the independent variable

A

dependent variable

638
Q

views behavior as the product of conflictual interaction between three systems the id, ego, and superego

A

psychodynamic theory

639
Q

person-centered therapy

A

client-centered therapy

640
Q

Common defense mechanisms that may be observed in clients or family members include:

A
rationalization 
reaction formation 
displacement 
projection 
repression 
suppression
641
Q

abnormalities of the structures of the head and face; congenital and may due to genetic factors

A

craniofacial anomalies

642
Q

opening in a normally closed structure

A

cleft

643
Q

various congentital malformations resulting in an opening in the hard palate, soft palate, or both

A

palatal clefts

644
Q

surface tissues of the soft or hard palate fuse by the underlying muscle or bone tissues do not

A

submucous clefts

645
Q

Usually a chid with a sub mucous cleft palate presents with ________ speech

A

hypernasal

646
Q

occurs when chromosome 15 is duplicated from father or deleted from mother; seizures, stiff jerky gait, laughter and happy demeanor, easily excitable hand-flapping movement short attention span

A

angelman syndrome

647
Q

caused by spontaneous autosomal dominant mutation; hyponasality, forward carriage of tongue, articulation disorders

A

Apert Syndrome

648
Q

absence of short arm of the 5th chromosome; high pitched cry of long duration; articulation and language disorders typically associated with intellectual disability

A

Cri du Chat Syndrome

649
Q

craniosynostosis hypopasia of the mid face, maxilla or both; conductive hearing loss in some individuals, articulation disorder, hypo nasality and language disorders

A

crouzon syndrome

650
Q

extra number chromosome 21; conductive loss in many cases and sensorineural in some; language delays and disorders; hyper nasality and nasal emission, breathier voice, and articulation disorders may also o be present

A

Down Syndrome

651
Q

leading inherited cause of intellectual disability in males

A

fragile X syndrome

652
Q

large long and poorly formed pinna, big jaw, enlarged testes and high forehead

A

fragile x syndome

653
Q

intellectual disablity; jargon, perservation, echolalia, inappropriate language or talking to oneself, lack of gestures and other nonverbal means of communication, voice problem, and articulation disorder

A

Fragile X syndrome

654
Q

congenital metabolical diseases; protuberant abdomen, angina pectoris, frequent chest infections, decreased joint mobility, thick everted lips, large tongue, small malformed teeth

A

Hurlers Syndrome

655
Q

form of aphasia, severe permanent language disorders, infrequent seizures

A

Landau-Kleffner Syndrome

656
Q

bilabial paresis and weak tongue control for lateralization elevation depression and protrusion, unilateral or bilateral paralysis of the abductors of the eye; conductive hearing loss mask like face, delayed language; articulation disorders

A

moebius syndrome

657
Q

unilateral or bilateral conductive hearing loss associated with otitis media and cleft palate, delayed language and language disorders, hyper nasality and nasal emission; articulation disorder

A

Pierre Robin Syndrome

658
Q

imprecise articulation oral-motor difficulties that contribute to poor articulation and hyper nasality; develipme talk delays and intellectual disability

A

prader willi syndrome

659
Q

communication problems include hyper nasality feeding problems in infancy articulation disorder abnomrally high pitched voice

A

russell-silver syndrome

660
Q

uncontroallable vocal sounds and repeated involuntary movements

A

tourette syndrome

661
Q

small chin, underdeveloped facial bones, dental malocclusion, congenital bilateral conductive hearing loss language disorders associated with hearing impairment; hyper nasality and nasal emission and articulation disorders

A

Treacher Collins Syndrome

662
Q

1 in 5000 births; congenital heart defects, severe brain anomalies, spina bifida, eye defect cleft lip and palate

A

trisomy 13

663
Q

deformed X chromonsome occurs only in females’ sensorineural hearing loss; middle ear infections during infancy and early childhood; language and articulation disorder visual spatial and attentional problems

A

Turner Syndrome

664
Q

50% of individuals who are deaf and blind; sensorineural loss language and articulation disorders ocnsistent with hearing impairment and hyper nasality and nasal emissions

A

usher syndrome

665
Q

rare geentic disorder that impacts 1 out of every 20000 babies; elf like features; abnormalities of dental occlusion

A

williams syndrome

666
Q

Public Law 94-142

A

Education of the Handicapped Act later titled IDEA

667
Q

Public Law 99-457

A

intended to provided early intervention that would reduce the number of children requiring special education services in later years

668
Q

Which structure elevates ribs 1-9?

A

Serratus Anterior

669
Q

The hard palate fuses between which developmental stages in utero?

A

8-9 weeks

670
Q

Which law states that all children and youth with disabilities from ages 3-21 years are guaranteed free and appropriate public education in the “least restrictive environment” including special education and related services.

A

P.L. 94-142

671
Q

T or F

Injury to Brocas area is not essential to have Brocas Aphasia

A

T

672
Q

The concrete operations stage of Piaget’s cognitive development occurs at what age?

A

7-11 years

673
Q

stationary blood clot that block the flow of blood

A

thrombus

674
Q

Certain variables may change simply because they are measured more than once:

A

testing, reducing internal validity

675
Q

The back forth movement of particles when that movement is symmetrical and periodic is called:

A

simple harmonic motion

676
Q

Dynamic assessment involves:

A

evaluating a client over time in a test-teach-retest format

677
Q

Intermittent, involuntary, fleeting vocal fold abduction, when trying to phonate

A

abductor spasmodic dysphonia

678
Q

onset is slow, deterioration is rapid in the final stages; tremors, seizures, gait problems, facial nerve paralysis, incontinence, and confusion, depression, hallucination, delusions, and mutism in the final stage

A

Aids Dementia

679
Q

when a surgeon closes a cleft of the soft palate first and a cleft of the hard palate later, that is known as

A

delayed hard palate closure

680
Q

what is the threshold of hearing?

A

the quietest sound a human can detect.

681
Q

Impaired facial recognition is more common in patients with

A

posterior right hemisphere damage.

682
Q

A clinician is teaching a patient a technique for dysphagia that includes having the patient take a deep breath, hold the breath, swallow, cough on exhalation, swallow again before breathing, and then breathe again. This technique is called

A

a supraglottic swallow.

683
Q

The average duration of the normal pharyngeal swallow

A

1 second