Praxis Practice Flashcards
Which of the following is the best action to take initially with a client who presents with poor oral control of liquids and solids, coughing and choking while eating and drinking, and a history of hospitalizations associated with pneumonia?
A. Thickening liquids so that the client will be better able to control oral movements for swallowing.
B. Obtaining a modified barium-swallow study to determine appropriate interventions.
C. Evaluating the clients’s ability to eat a variety of foods in order to determine which foods are safest.
D. Prescribing that the client be NPO, since aspiration is present.
B. Obtaining a modified barium-swallow study to determine appropriate interventions.
As assessment of the problem must be undertaken before treatment is provided, and the best way to do this is to obtain a modified barium-swallow study.
A child exhibits the following production errors.
w/r
θ/s
t/ʃ
t/tʃ
z/dʒ
t/k
d/g
If a target sound for initial intervention is to be selected on the basis of established developmental
norms, then that sound will be
A. /s/
B. /ʃ/
C. /k/
D. /tʃ/
C. /k/
According to developmental norms, /k/ is the target phoneme that should be selected for intervention.
Hearing loss in infants who are born with a cleft palate is usually related to which of the following?
A. The infant’s inability to create positive pressure in the oral cavity
B. Malformation of the middle-ear ossicles associated with malformation of the palate
C. Eustachian tube dysfunction
D. Cochlear dysfunction
C. Eustachian tube dysfunction
Eustachian tube dysfunction, a major factor contributing to middle-ear disease and conductive hearing loss, is nearly universal in infants with cleft palate.
Language intervention for a child at the one-word stage should be most strongly influenced by a
consideration of the child’s
A. motor skills
B. cognitive skills
C. syntactic skills
D. articulation skills
B. cognitive skills
The cognitive skills of a child at the one-word stage most strongly influence the child’s speech-language responses, so language interventioni for the child should take into account the child’s cognitive skills.
A single exposure of several hours duration to continuous music with an overall level of 100 dB SPL will
most likely produce
A. tinnitus and a temporary threshold shift in high frequencies
B. tinnitus and a distortion of speech perception
C. a temporary threshold shift in the low frequencies
D. a permanent threshold shift
A. tinnitus and a temporary threshold shift in high frequencies
A single exposure of several hours duration to continuous music at a
level of about 100 dB SPL will most likely produce tinnitus and a temporary threshold shift in
the high frequencies.
An SLP who is treating an adolescent who stutters designs a treatment plan that includes three fluency
management strategies: prolonged speech, cancellation, and pullout.
Which of the following is true about the use of these treatment strategies?
Select all that apply.
A. Use of prolonged speech is likely to reduce the frequency of part-word repetitions
and sound prolongations significantly.
B. Each of the three strategies entails deliberate regulation of speech motor
movements.
C. The client will seek to apply cancellation whenever he feels anxious about the
possibility of stuttering overtly.
D. The client will seek to apply pullout during the course of part-word repetition or
sound prolongation.
A. Use of prolonged speech is likely to reduce the frequency of part-word repetitions
and sound prolongations significantly.
B. Each of the three strategies entails deliberate regulation of speech motor
movements.
D. The client will seek to apply pullout during the course of part-word repetition or
sound prolongation.
Prolonged speech, deliberate regulation of speech
motor movements, and pullout could all be appropriately applied.
A prospective client is described as a man in his forties who is under chronic stress. He uses his voice
extensively in daily life has a hard-driving personality, and exhibits glottal fry. The client has the classic
profile of a person at high risk for
A. spastic dysphonia
B. acute laryngitis
C. vocal nodules
D. contact ulcers
D. contact ulcers
The symptoms exhibited by this patient represent a classic profile of a
person who has contact ulcers.
Which of the following actions will most effectively control the problem of overreferral in school screening
programs that use impedance/immittance measurements?
A. Obtaining the measurements in a professional sound-insulated room
B. Including 500 Hz in the audiometric screening procedure
C. Retesting immediately those who did not pass the first screening
D. Waiting three to five weeks to retest those who did not pass the first screening
D. Waiting three to five weeks to retest those who did not pass the first screening
Some children may have a temporary problem due to a cold or ear
infection, which may resolve in a few weeks.
Six months ago, an SLP evaluated 4-year-old Molly’s speech fluency during conversation. At that time,
she displayed physically relaxed repetitions of words and phrases (occurring at a frequency of 2 per 100
words), and interjections such as “um” (occurring at a frequency of 1 per 100 words). She did not display
any sound prolongations or facial grimaces; she did not produce any pitch rises or phonatory breaks;
and she did not appear to avoid any sounds or words. Results from several formal tests suggested that
her articulation and language development were within normal limits. Molly reportedly began producing
repetitions and interjections at age 24 months, and the frequency of these disfluency types reportedly
has remained stable since then. The SLP did not recommend speech-language intervention following
the previous evaluation; however, she did provide the parents with information about fluency
development, symptoms of stuttering, and general suggestions for how to facilitate children’s fluency. A
reevaluation is scheduled for next week. Which of the following is most appropriate for the SLP to do if
Molly’s speech fluency has remained the same since the previous evaluation?
A. Recommend that Molly immediately begin fluency therapy, in which the focus is on
reducing the frequency of repetitions and interjections in her conversational speech
B. Recommend that Molly be released from the SLP’s active caseload
C. Recommend that Molly be referred for psychological counseling, with a focus on on
helping Molly improve speech fluency by learning how to manage anxiety more
effectively
D. Recommend monthly evaluations of Molly’s speech fluency until she is five years old
B. Recommend that Molly be released from the SLP’s active caseload
Molly’s fluency development was within normal limits at the previous
evaluation, and, based on the parents’ report, it also seemed to be within normal limits at
age 2. Further, no other concerns about Molly’s communication development were
mentioned in the scenario. Thus, it appears that Molly has never stuttered and her
communication skills have been and continue to be within normal limits. Therefore, it is
unnecessary to reevaluate her speech or enroll her in fluency therapy.
Naturalistic teaching chiefly involves which of the following?
A. Establishing successful and useful communication
B. Using multiple trials and training techniques
C. Using more adult-initiated interactions than child-initiated interactions
D. Using differential reinforcement, fading, and modeling
A. Establishing successful and useful communication
Naturalistic teaching focuses on the successful production of
utterances that are useful in context for communicating.
A team of SLPs is evaluating whether a new language intervention is suitable for use with children who
are on their caseload. The clinicians read an article documenting research on the effect of a novel
treatment on the language performance of 30 children with specific language impairment. The
researchers administered a standardized language test to the children before and after the treatment
program. The children’s posttreatment scores on the test were significantly higher than their
pretreatment scores. This led the researchers to conclude that the treatment was highly effective.
Based on the preceding description, which of the following appears to be a significant limitation of the
design of the study?
Select all that apply.
A. The use of a single-group pretest-posttest design
B. The absence of a control group
C. The inability to rule out the possibility that the children’s language scores improved
for reasons other than the treatment
D. The use of random assignment to place the children into the treatment group
E. The number of participants in the study
A. The use of a single-group pretest-posttest design
B. The absence of a control group
C. The inability to rule out the possibility that the children’s language scores improved
for reasons other than the treatment
The use of a single-group pretest-posttest design is a limitation because there is inadequate control of internal and external validity without a control group. The absence of a control group is a limitation because control groups are a way of introducing control and can better isolate the effect of the treatment. Furthermore,
since it is a longitudinal study, improvement based on language development cannot be
ruled out.
Which of the following muscles produces the opposing action to those that produce velopharyngeal
closure?
A. Musculus uvulae
B. Levator veli palatini
C. Palatoglossus
D. Stylopharyngeus
C. Palatoglossus
Velopharyngeal closure is largely produced by soft palate elevation,
and the only muscle in the list that produces soft palate depression (the opposite of soft
palate elevation) is the palatoglossus.
A 9-month-old child was observed during a speech-language evaluation. To express herself, the child
occasionally touched her mother, gained eye contact, and then gestured toward an object. If the child’s
development is normal, within the next month or so the child will begin to
A. use consistent sound and intonation patterns as signals for specific intentions
B. reach for objects that she desires
C. establish joint reference with her caretaker
D. use recognizable words and phrases to express her intentions
A. use consistent sound and intonation patterns as signals for specific intentions
In normal development, a child begins to use vocalizations to express
specific intentions at around 10 months of age.
An otolaryngologist has referred a 45-year-old man for voice treatment following medialization
thyroplasty for a paralyzed vocal fold. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic strategy
for the SLP to use?
A. Assisting the patient to produce a soft glottal attack
B. Digitally manipulation of the patient’s neck to reduce strap-muscle tension
C. Assisting the patient to produce a hard glottal attack
D. Employing techniques aimed at increasing airflow
C. Assisting the patient to produce a hard glottal attack
Medialization thyroplasty moves the paralyzed vocal fold closer to the
mid-glottis to allow better compensation by the unaffected fold. Only the production of a
hard glottal attack addresses the compensatory behavior.
Which of the following types of cerebral palsy is characterized by slow, arrhythmic writhing and
involuntary movements of the extremities?
A. Athetosis
B. Spasticity
C. Hypotonia
D. Bulbar palsy
A. Athetosis
Athetosis is a type of cerebral palsy that is characterized by slow,
arrhythmic writhing and involuntary movements of the extremities.
Research regarding the use of intensive phonemic-awareness treatment for children who have difficulty
learning to read has demonstrated that the treatment
A. is effective only for children from 4 to 8 years old
B. is effective mainly with children who have remediated all phonological process errors
C. is effective only when combined with a supplemental literacy program
D. might have no direct relationship to improvement in reading abilities
D. might have no direct relationship to improvement in reading abilities
Intensive phonemic-awareness treatment programs are thought to
improve reading by training children to better differentiate and process speech sounds.
However, to date, research has not successfully separated the effects of intensive
intervention, so no direct relationship has yet been proved.
Control over the fundamental frequency of the laryngeal tone is most closely related to the activity of
which of the following muscles?
A. Posterior cricoarytenoid
B. Lateral cricoarytenoid
C. Cricothyroid
D. Sternocleidomastoid
C. Cricothyroid
The cricothyroid muscle has the greatest control over the fundamental
frequency of the laryngeal tone by lengthening or tensing the vocal folds.
A two-year-old child produces the following utterances during a play-based conversation with her mother.
Utterance Gloss/Child’s Intended Meaning
No kitty / It’s not a kitty.
My doggie /This toy dog is mine.
No goat / It’s not a goat.
Kitty house / The cat is in the house.
Big kitty / It’s a big cat.
Doggie ball / The dog pushed the ball.
Which of the following semantic-syntactic constructions does the child show evidence of using?
Select all that apply.
A. Disappearance
B. Denial
C. Possessor + possession
D. Attribute + entity
E. Agent + action
B. Denial
C. Possessor + possession
D. Attribute + entity
E. Agent + action
Denial is shown through the utterance of “no kitty,” possessor + possession is shown through the utterance of “my doggie,” attribute + entity is shown through the utterance of “big kitty,” and agent + action is shown though the utterance of “doggie ball.”
Which of the following errors is likely to persist the longest in the speech of children who are learning
Standard American English (SAE) as a first language and are following the normal developmental
course for speech and language acquisition?
A. Assimilation
B. Consonant cluster reduction
C. Final-consonant deletion
D. Velar fronting
B. Consonant cluster reduction
Consonant cluster reduction is the most persistent of the normal
developmental processes listed.
Doing which of the following would likely yield the most useful information about the effectiveness of an
intervention strategy?
A. Reviewing the results of standardized assessment instruments
B. Utilizing a single-subject design (ABAB) or a reversal procedure (ABA)
C. Utilizing the subjective, objective, assessment, and plan (SOAP) format
D. Requesting that a colleague reevaluate the client
B. Utilizing a single-subject design (ABAB) or a reversal procedure (ABA)
An ABAB or ABA design shows changes when intervention is applied.
Single-subject design using ABAB or ABA design is the best method to determine whether intervention has succeeded.
hich of the following provides the most important diagnostic information to an SLP making a differential
diagnosis between childhood apraxia of speech and flaccid dysarthria in a child?
A. The child’s articulation performance at the sentence level
B. A history of the child’s development of chewing, eating, and swallowing
C. A history of the child’s language development
D. The child’s willingness to function in sociocommunicative events
B. A history of the child’s development of chewing, eating, and swallowing
A child with childhood apraxia of speech does not have difficulties with
chewing, eating, and swallowing, whereas a child with flaccid dysarthria is likely to have
such difficulties.
Which of the following is the ratio of reinforcement that will most quickly cause a newly acquired
behavior to be habituated?
A. A random ratio of tokens to correct responses
B. A ratio of 1 token to 1 correct response
C. A ratio of 1 token to 4 correct responses only
D. A ratio of 1 token to 10 correct responses only
A. A random ratio of tokens to correct responses
When the goal is to reinforce a behavior that has already been
acquired, a random ratio of tokens to correct responses creates an intermittent
reinforcement schedule and is the most effective. Such a reinforcement schedule decreases
the client’s dependence on the token reward.
Mr. Charles, age 78, has had Alzheimer’s disease for the past nine years. A recent speech and language
evaluation at his nursing home indicated severe deficits in verbal reasoning, memory, word finding,
discourse, pragmatics, phonology, semantics, and syntax. Which of the following should the speech-
language pathologist do next?
A. Recommend individual treatment to improve his receptive and expressive language
skills, beginning with the areas where he is least deficient
B. Recommend individual treatment to improve his receptive and expressive language
skills, beginning with the areas where he is most deficient
C. Initiate group treatment with other adults with language impairments to improve
spontaneous conversational speech and pragmatic skills
D. Examine his living conditions and, if necessary, educate the nursing staff concerning
ways to help him communicate more effectively
D. Examine his living conditions and, if necessary, educate the nursing staff concerning
ways to help him communicate more effectively
Mr. Charles has Alzheimer’s disease with loss of memory and
deteriorating language skills. The best that can be done for him is to help his caregivers
improve the conditions related to his basic communication needs. Speech-language
treatment itself is very unlikely to be effective and thus is not appropriate.
A physician told the spouse of a client that melodic intonation therapy (MIT) would improve the client’s
speech considerably. The most appropriate next action by the SLP would be to
A. provide MIT, as recommended
B. tell the physician that it is inappropriate for the physician to make recommendations
for a speech treatment
C. consider the potential value of incorporating MIT into the client’s treatment
D. explain MIT to the client’s spouse to assist in the decision-making process about the
type of therapy to use
C. consider the potential value of incorporating MIT into the client’s treatment
MIT is a procedure appropriately used by SLPs to promote certain
results. The SLP has responsibility for determining the value of this procedure in relation to the objectives of the speech-language treatment program.
