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ITC233 > Practise Final Exam > Flashcards

Practise Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network?

  • *A.** C and L source routes
  • *B.** directly-connected routes
  • *C.** local routes
  • *D.** remote routes
A

D. remote routes

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2
Q

Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a unicast, multicast, or broadcast address?

  • *A.** protocol
  • *B.** TTL
  • *C.** header checksum
  • *D.** destination IPv4 address
A

D. destination IPv4 address

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3
Q

Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?​

  • *A.** The end-to-end connectivity problems that are caused by NAT are solved because the number of routes increases with the number of nodes that are connected to the Internet.
  • *B.** The problems that are induced by NAT applications are solved because the IPv6 header improves packet handling by intermediate routers.​
  • *C.** Because IPv6 has integrated security, there is no need to hide the IPv6 addresses of internal networks.​
  • *D.** Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely large.​
A

D. Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely large.​

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4
Q

If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

  • *A.** The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
  • *B.** The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
  • *C.** There is no impact on communications.
  • *D.** The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
A

B. The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.

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5
Q

Which two commands could be used to check if DNS name resolution is working properly on a Windows PC? (Choose two.)

A. nslookup cisco.com
B. ipconfig /flushdns
C. net cisco.com
D. nbtstat cisco.com
E. ping cisco.com

A
  • *A.** nslookup cisco.com
  • *E.** ping cisco.com
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6
Q

Only employees connected to IPv6 interfaces are having difficulty connecting to remote networks. The analyst wants to verify that IPv6 routing has been enabled. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?

  • *A.** show running-config
  • *B.** copy running-config startup-config
  • *C.** show interfaces
  • *D.** show ip nat translations
A

A. show running-config

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7
Q

A small advertising company has a web server that provides critical business service. The company connects to the Internet through a leased line service to an ISP. Which approach best provides cost effective redundancy for the Internet connection?

  • *A.** Add a connection to the Internet via a DSL line to another ISP.
  • *B.** Add another web server to prepare failover support.
  • *C.** Add multiple connections between the switches and the edge router.
  • *D.** Add a second NIC to the web server.
A

A. Add a connection to the Internet via a DSL line to another ISP.

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8
Q

Two students are working on a network design project. One student is doing the drawing, while the other student is writing the proposal. The drawing is finished and the student wants to share the folder that contains the drawing so that the other student can access the file and copy it to a USB drive. Which networking model is being used?

  • *A.** point-to-point
  • *B.** client-based
  • *C.** peer-to-peer
  • *D.** master-slave
A

C. peer-to-peer

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9
Q

Which command is used to manually query a DNS server to resolve a specific host name?

  • *A.** ipconfig /displaydns
  • *B.** net
  • *C.** tracert
  • *D.** nslookup
A

C. tracert

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10
Q

What service is provided by POP3?

  • *A.** Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
  • *B.** Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
  • *C.** Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local mail application of the client.
  • *D.** An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
A

C. Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local mail application of the client.

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11
Q

Refer to the exhibit. What does the value of the window size specify?

A. the amount of data that can be sent before an acknowledgment is required.

B. the total number of bits received during this TCP session.

C. a random number that is used in establishing a connection with the 3-way handshake.

C. the amount of data that can be sent at one time.

A

A. the amount of data that can be sent before an acknowledgment is required.

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12
Q

To which TCP port group does the port 414 belong?

A. well-known

B. public

C. private or dynamic

D. registered

A

A. well-known

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13
Q

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 22. What service is the client requesting?

A. DHCP

B. TFTP

C. DNS

D. SSH

A

D. SSH

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14
Q

Floor(config)# interface gi0/1
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Registrar LAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.235.234 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface gi0/0
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Manager LAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.234.114 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/0
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP
Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.234.235.254 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/1
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.3 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the Registrar LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?

A. 192.168.235.1

B. 203.0.113.3

C. 192.168.234.114

D. 10.234.235.254

E. 192.168.235.234

A

E. 192.168.235.234

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15
Q

A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?

A. The IOS image is corrupt.

B. The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.

C. The POST process has detected hardware failure.

D. Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.

A

B. The configuration file is missing from NVRAM

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16
Q

Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered. (Not all options are used.)

1. login

2. service password-encryption

3. ip address 192.168.4.4 255.255.255.0

4. copy running-config startup-config

5. enable

A. R1(config)#

B. R1>

C. R1(config-router)#

D. R1#

E. R1(config-line)#

F. R1(config-if)#

A

1. — A.

2. — E.

3. — F.

4. — D.

5. — B.

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17
Q

What type of address is 198.133.219.162?

A. multicast

B. loopback

C. link-local

D. public

A

D. public

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18
Q

Given network 172.18.109.0, which subnet mask would be used if 6 host bits were available?

A. 255.255.224.0

B. 255.255.255.192

C. 255.255.255.248

D. 255.255.255.252

E. 255.255.192.0

A

B. 255.255.255.192

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19
Q

A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?

A. Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.

B. Power cycle the device.

C. Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter.

D. Exit global configuration mode.

E. Reboot the device

A

C. Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter

Review: While at the privileged mode prompt such as Router#, type exit ,press Enter , and the banner message appears. Power cycling a network device that has had the banner motd command issued will also display the banner message, but this is not a quick way to test the configuration.

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20
Q

What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

A. The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access.

B. The SSH client on the switch is enabled.

C. Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.

D. The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software.

A

C. Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.

Review: The transport input ssh command when entered on the switch vty (virtual terminal lines) will encrypt all inbound controlled telnet connections.

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21
Q

What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?

A. 2001:DA48::/64​

B. 2001::/64

C. 2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64​

D. 2001:DA48:FC5::A4:/64

A

C. 2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64​

Review: The /64 represents the network and subnet IPv6 fields. The fourth field of hexadecimal digits is referred to as the subnet ID. The subnet ID for this address is 2001:DA48:FC5:A4::0/64.​​

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22
Q

A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

A. It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what default gateway it should use.

B. It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the address of the DNS server.

C. It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to request permission to use this address.

D. It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.

A

D. It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.

Review: Stateless DHCPv6 or stateful DHCPv6 uses a DHCP server, but Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) does not. A SLAAC client can automatically generate an address that is based on information from local routers via Router Advertisement (RA) messages. Once an address has been assigned to an interface via SLAAC, the client must ensure via Duplicate Address Detection (DAD) that the address is not already in use. It does this by sending out an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message and listening for a response. If a response is received, then it means that another device is already using this address.

23
Q

Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?​

A. FE80::/10

B. FDEE::/7​

C. FF00::/8​

D. FEC0::/10

A

A. FE80::/10

Review: Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10. The original IPv6 specification defined site-local addresses and used the prefix range FEC0::/10, but these addresses were deprecated by the IETF in favor of unique local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique local address because it is in the range of FC00::/7 to FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix FF00::/8.

24
Q

What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a received IPv4 packet from traveling endlessly on a network?

A. It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.

B. It increments the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Parameter Problem message to the source host.

C. It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.

D. It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the source host.

A

D. It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the source host.

25
Q

A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)

A. mobility options

B. security

C. interference

D. coverage area

E. packet collision

F. extensive cabling

A

B. security

C. interference

D. coverage area

Review: The three areas of concern for wireless networks focus on the size of the coverage area, any nearby interference, and providing network security. Extensive cabling is not a concern for wireless networks, as a wireless network will require minimal cabling for providing wireless access to hosts. Mobility options are not a component of the areas of concern for wireless networks.

26
Q

Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

A. The untwisted length of each wire is too long.

B. The woven copper braid should not have been removed.

C. The wrong type of connector is being used.

D. The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.

A

A. The untwisted length of each wire is too long.

27
Q

A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)

A. EMI

B. signal attenuation

C. crosstalk

D. RFI​

E. extended length of cabling

A

A. EMI

D. RFI

Review: EMI and RFI signals can distort and corrupt data signals that are carried by copper media. These distortions usually come from radio waves and electromagnetic devices such as motors and florescent lights. Crosstalk is a disturbance that is caused by adjacent wires bundled too close together with the magnetic field of one wire affecting another. Signal attenuation is caused when an electrical signal begins to deteriorate over the length of a copper cable.

28
Q

Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)

A. TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network overhead.

B. The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.

C. The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.

D. UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.

E. The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.

F. The TCP process running on the PC randomly selects the destination port when establishing a session with the server.

A

B. The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.

D. UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.

E. The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.

29
Q

Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols.

1. DHCP

2. FTP

3. HTTP

4. SMTP

5. TFTP

A. TCP

B. UDP

A

1. — B.

2. — A.

3. — A.

4. — A.

5. — B.

30
Q

A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)

A. netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor

B. arp -a

C. tracert

D. ping

E. ipconfig

F. nslookup

G. telnet

A

D. ping

E. ipconfig

F. nslookup

31
Q

What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

A. speed and duplex settings

B. MAC addresses

C. next-hop addresses

D. interface descriptions

E. IP addresses

F. Layer 1 statuses

A

E. IP addresses

F. Layer 1 statuses

32
Q

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 25 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

A. 255.255.255.224

B. 255.255.255.192

C. 255.255.255.240

D. 255.255.255.128

A

A. 255.255.255.224

33
Q

Which frame field is created by a source node and used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal has not been altered by interference, distortion, or signal loss?

A. transport layer error check field

B. error correction process field

C. flow control field

D. User Datagram Protocol field

E. frame check sequence field

A

E. frame check sequence field

34
Q

What is a function of the data link layer?

A. provides delivery of data between two applications

B. provides for the exchange of frames over a common local media

C. provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts

D. provides the formatting of data

A

B. provides for the exchange of frames over a common local media

35
Q

Given network 172.18.109.0, which subnet mask would be used if 6 host bits were available?

A. 255.255.255.252

B. 255.255.255.192

C. 255.255.192.0

D. 255.255.255.248

E. 255.255.224.0

A

B. 255.255.255.192

36
Q

Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

A. 255.255.255.255

B. FFFF.FFFF.FFFF

C. the physical address of the destination host

D. AAAA.AAAA.AAAA

E. 0.0.0.0

A

B. FFFF.FFFF.FFFF

37
Q

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC3. In this scenario, what will happen next?

A. RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC3 MAC address.

B. SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.

C. RT1 will forward the ARP request to PC3.

D. RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/0 MAC address.

E. RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/1 MAC address.

A
38
Q

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

A. The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.

B. The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.

C. The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.

D. The switch will discard the frame.

E. The switch will forward the frame to all ports.

A

C. The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4

39
Q

Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?

A. segment

B. packet

C. bits

D. frame

A

B. packe

40
Q

Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

A. data link

B. transport

C. physical

D. network

E. session

A

B. transport

D. network

41
Q

Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

A. presentation

B. application

C. transport

D. session

E. data link

F. physical

G. network

A

A. presentation

B. application

D. session

42
Q

What are two ways to protect a computer from malware? (Choose two.)

A. Use antivirus software.

B. Delete unused software.

C. Empty the browser cache.

D. Keep software up to date.

E. Defragment the hard disk.

A

A. Use antivirus software.

D. Keep software up to date.

43
Q

A network administrator is issuing the login block-for 180 attempts 2 within 30 command on a router. Which threat is the network administrator trying to prevent?

A. a device that is trying to inspect the traffic on a link

B. a worm that is attempting to access another part of the network

C. an unidentified individual who is trying to access the network equipment room

D. a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router

A

D. a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router

44
Q

The employees and residents of Ciscoville cannot access the Internet or any remote web-based services. IT workers quickly determine that the city firewall is being flooded with so much traffic that a breakdown of connectivity to the Internet is occurring. Which type of attack is being launched at Ciscoville?

A. reconnaissance

B. Trojan horse

C. access

D. DoS

A

D. DoS

45
Q

Which statement describes the characteristics of packet-filtering and stateful firewalls as they relate to the OSI model?

A. A packet-filtering firewall uses session layer information to track the state of a connection, whereas a stateful firewall uses application layer information to track the state of a connection.

B. A packet-filtering firewall typically can filter up to the transport layer, whereas a stateful firewall can filter up to the session layer.

C. A stateful firewall can filter application layer information, whereas a packet-filtering firewall cannot filter beyond the network layer.

D. Both stateful and packet-filtering firewalls can filter at the application layer.

A

B. A packet-filtering firewall typically can filter up to the transport layer, whereas a stateful firewall can filter up to the session layer.

46
Q

Which two ICMP messages are used by both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols? (Choose two.)​

A. router solicitation

B. route redirection

C. neighbor solicitation

D. protocol unreachable

E. router advertisement

A

B. route redirection

D. protocol unreachable

47
Q

During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?

A. DoS attack​

B. identity theft

C. spyware

D. zero-day attack

A

C. spyware

48
Q

Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?

A. Internet

B. intranet

C. extranet

D. extendednet

A

C. extranet

49
Q

A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend does this describe?

A. cloud computing

B. online collaboration

C. bring your own device

D. video conferencing

A

C. bring your own device

50
Q

What is an ISP?

A. It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.

B. It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.

C. It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.

D. It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

A

C. It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.

51
Q

Which two traffic types use the Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP)? (Choose two.)

video

web

file transfer

voice

peer to peer

A

video

voice

52
Q

Which wireless technology has low-power and data rate requirements making it popular in home automation applications?

ZigBee

LoRaWAN

5G

Wi-Fi

A

ZigBee

53
Q
A

ITC233 (6 decks)

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