Practice Unit 1 Flashcards
At the suprascapular notch, the suprascapular artery typically passes directly __________ to the transverse scapular ligament.
superior
The posterior longitudinal ligament is positioned __________ to the spinal cord.
anterior
As the femoral artery (external iliac) exits the pelvis, it is positioned __________ to the inguinal ligament and __________ to the iliopsoas muscle.
posterior - anterior
The inferior gluteal nerve exits the greater sciatic nerve directly __________ to the piriformis muscle.
inferior
Within the popliteal fossa, the popliteal artery is positioned directly __________ to the popliteus muscle.
posterior
The tendon of the peroneus longus muscle passes __________ to the lateral malleolus prior to attaching in part to the lateral aspect of the base of the 1st metatarsal.
posterior-inferior
The subclavian artery and vein pass __________ to the clavicle.
posterior-inferior
The radial nerve passes directly __________ to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.
anterior
The axillary artery and cords of the brachial plexus pass directly __________ to the pectoralis minor muscle.
posterior
The radial nerve and profunda brachii artery pass directly __________ to the shaft of the humerus.
posterior
The long thoracic nerve is positioned directly __________ to the serratus anterior muscle.
lateral
The ulnar nerve and superior ulnar collateral (or posterior ulnar recurrent) artery pass directly __________ to the medial epicondyle of the humerus.
posterior
Near the wrist, the radial artery is positioned directly __________ to the tendon of the flexor carpi radialis muscle.
lateral
The ulnar artery and nerve pass directly __________ to the transverse carpal ligament.
superficial
The radial artery passes directly __________ to the trapezium and base of the first metacarpal.
posterior
The tendon of the extensor pollicis longus muscle passes directly __________ to the dorsal tubercle of the radius.
medial
The obturator externus muscle passes directly __________ to the neck of the femur.
posterior
During its posterior course, the medial circumflex femoral artery passes directly __________ to the pectineus muscle.
lateral
Immediately inferior to the inguinal ligament, the femoral nerve is positioned directly __________ to the femoral artery.
lateral
The median nerve and tendons of the FDS and FDP muscles all pass directly __________ to the transverse carpal ligament.
deep
As they exit the greater sciatic foramen, the superior gluteal nerve, artery and vein are positioned __________ to the piriformis muscle.
superior
The obturator internus tendon passes directly __________ to the neck of the femur.
posterior
The tendon of the flexor hallucis longus muscle passes directly __________ to the sustentaculum tali of the calcaneus.
inferior
The tibial nerve passes directly __________ to the medial malleolus.
posterior
The sural nerve passes __________ to the lateral malleolus.
posterior-inferior
The tibial attachment of the anterior cruciate ligament is positioned __________ to the tibial attachment of the posterior cruciate ligament.
anterior
The plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament is positioned inferior to the head of the talus.
inferior
As it exits the greater sciatic foramen, the sciatic nerve is positioned __________ to the piriformis muscle.
inferior
The tendon of the peroneus longus muscle passes __________ to the long plantar ligament.
superior
The radial artery passes __________ to the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus muscle prior to piercing the 1st dorsal interosseous muscle.
anterior
Which of the following procedure is most likely to produce radiation that can lead to a skin burn? A. 3-View X-ray of the hand B. 60 minute US exam of the pelvis C. 60 slice CT scan of the chest D. Angiographic pulmonary procedure
D. Angiographic pulmonary procedure
The DICOM standard has proven useful in medical imaging because images __________
A. are routinely made anonymous when downloaded out of PACS.
B. are labeled with the correct patient information.
C. can be routinely reviewed by multiple caregivers.
D. will consistently have the same quality appearance.
C. can be routinely reviewed by multiple caregivers.
Fertilization normally takes place within the:
A. ampulla of the Fallopian (uterine) duct.
B. body of the uterus.
C. cervix.
D. ovary.
E. upper vagina.
A. ampulla of the Fallopian (uterine) duct.
The conceptus on its way through the uterine tube absorbs fluids to the extent a fluid-filled cavity is formed. At this point the conceptus is referred to as a: A. blastula. B. gastrula. C. inner cell mass. D. morula. E. trophoblast.
A. blastula
The individual cells that form as the result of cleavage following fertilization are called: A. blastocysts. B. blastomeres. C. oocytes. D. trophoblasts. E. zygotes.
B. blastomeres
The portion of the blastocyst that makes first contact with the maternal tissue is the: A. ectoderm. B. embryoblast. C. exocoelomic membrane. D. germ disk. E. trophoblast.
E. trophoblast
Which of the following is the ideal site for implantation of the conceptus? A. Ampulla B. Cervical lining C. Endometrium D. Mesentery E. Ovary
C. Endometrium
Which of the following occurs during the 2nd week of embryonic development?
A. Acrosome reaction takes place
B. Blastocele form in the inner cell mass
C. Extraembryonic ectoderm forms
D. Neural plate forms on the ectoderm
E. All of the above events occur during the 2nd week
C. Extraembryonic ectoderm forms
Which of the following derives from the hypoblasts? A. Amniotic membrane B. Cytotrophoblasts C. Endoderm D. Notochord E. Yolk sac membrane
E. Yolk sac membrane
Which of the following occurs during the second week of embryonic development? A. Cleavage B. Lacunar stage C. Morula formation D. Trilaminar disk formation E. Zona reaction
B. Lacunar stage
Which of the following structures of the 2nd week conceptus gives rise to all embryonic tissues? A. Epiblasts B. Hypoblasts C. Trophoblasts D. Yolk sac E. Blastomere
A. Epiblasts
Intraembryonic coelom:
A. forms in the blastocoel.
B. forms in the lateral mesoderm.
C. is continuous with the amniotic cavity during the 4th week.
D. is continuous with the chorionic cavity during the 1st week.
E. is the space in the neural tube.
B. forms in the lateral mesoderm.
Which of the following is the result of embryonic folding (cranial, caudal & lateral)?
A. Allantois is positioned dorsal to the embryo
B. Amniotic membranes degenerate
C. Cardiogenic area is positioned caudal to oropharyngeal membrane
D. Yolk sac is totally pinched off from the embryo
E. All of the above
C. Cardiogenic area is positioned caudal to oropharyngeal membrane
Which layer of the embryonic disc undergoes neurulation? A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Hypoblast D. Mesoderm E. Notochordal plate
A. Ectoderm
Which of the following is derived from the neural canal?
A. Allantois
B. Chorionic cavity
C. Spinal cord
D. Notochord
E. Central canal of spinal cord and ventricles of brain
E. Central canal of spinal cord and ventricles of brain
The ventral body cavities of adults arise from which of the following embryonic structures? A. Intraembryonic coelom B. Extraembryonic coelom C. Blastocoel D. Amniotic cavity E. Zona pellucida
A. Intraembryonic coelom
Which of the following structures is responsible for the formation of three germ layers during the 3rd week of development? A. Primitive streak B. Primitive node C. Buccopharyngeal membrane D. Neural folds E. Cardiogenic field
A. Primitive streak
Which of the following would you Not find in a developing limb bud?
A. Motor nerve (axons)
B. Myotome
C. Neural crest
D. Sclerotome
E. All of the above are found in a limb bud
D. Sclerotome
Which of the following is innervated by the dorsal rami of the spinal nerve? A. Erector spinae B. Intercostal muscles C. Quadratus lumborum D. Rectus abdominis E. Strap (anterior) muscles of the neck
A. Erector spinae
Which of the following is true for the development of the musculoskeletal system?
A. C8 spinal nerve is located cranial to C8 vertebra
B. T1 spinal nerve is located caudal to the T1 vertebra
C. All muscles of the limbs arise from the epimere
D. Cranial 1/3 of the C7 somite is permanently lost during resegmentation
E. None of the above
B. T1 spinal nerve is located caudal to the T1 vertebra
Dermatomes represent:
A. a segmental sensory innervation of the body
- The of the brachial plexus is formed by the union of roots C5 and C6.
upper trunk
- The posterior wall of the axilla is bounded by the teres major, latissimus dorsi and
_ muscles.
subscapularis
- The pectoralis minor, coracobrachialis and short head of the biceps brachii all attach in part to the _ and are innervated by branches of the __ cord of the brachial plexus.
coracoid process - lateral
- An infection associated with the hypothenar eminance would typically first spread to the ____ lymph nodes of the upper extremity.
supratrochlear
- The rotator cuff muscles of the shoulder include the supraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis and ___.
infraspinatus
- The ____ muscle attaches to the greater tubercle of the humerus and is innervated by a branch of the axillary nerve.
teres minor
- The superior and middle bands of the glenohumeral ligament attach to the ___ of the humerus.
lesser tubercle
- The ulnar nerve passes between the two heads of the _____ muscle as it enters the forearm.
flexor carpi ulnaris
- The radial recurrent artery typically anastomoses with the ____ artery.
radial collateral
- The ___ and ____ muscles have only a single primary function, flexion of the forearm.
brachialis - brachioradialis
- The carpal tunnel is bounded anteriorly by the ____.
transverse carpal ligament
- A loss of cutaneous innervation over the lateral aspect of the thenar eminence is consistent with a lesion of the ____ branch of the radial nerve.
superficial
- The ulnar side of the dorsal venous network of the hand is typically drained by the ____ vein.
basilic
- The _____ branch of the radial artery typically crosses the flexor pollicis brevis muscle as it anastomoses with the superficial palmar arch.
superficial palmar
- The _____ muscle attaches in part to the medial epicondyle of the humerus and functions in flexion of the proximal IP joint of digits 2-5.
flexor digitorum superficialis
- The radiocarpal joint is innervated by branches of the ____, ____ and ____ nerves.
ulnar - median - radial
- The spinal nerves and radicular vessels exit the vertebral canal by traversing the ______ .
intervertebral foramina
- The _____ muscle (subdivision of erector spinae) attaches in part to the costal angles of the ribs.
iliocostalis
- CSF is located in the ____ space surrounding the spinal cord.
subarachnoid
- The medial edge of the _____ muscle forms the lateral border of the femoral triangle.
sartorius
- The perforating branches of the ______ artery are the primary blood supply to the posterior compartment of the thigh.
profunda femoral
- The ____ muscle attaches in part adjacent to the anterior superior iliac spine and is innervated by a branch of the superior gluteal nerve.
tensor fasciae latae
- The ____ muscle attaches in part to the adductor tubercle of the femur and is innervated by the ____ and _____ nerves.
adductor magnus - sciatic - obturator
- The ligament of the femoral head attaches in part to the _____ of the inominate.
acetabular notch
- Swelling within the anterior compartment of the leg may cause compression of the _____ nerve.
deep peroneal
- At the distal end of the tibia, the tibial nerve is positioned between the tendons of the ____ and ____ muscles.
flexor hallucis longus - flexor digitorum longus
- A “ “ (loss or weakness of wrist extension) is typically associated with a lesion of the radial nerve.
wrist drop
- A ___ syndrome is typically associated with a compression of the median nerve at the wrist.
carpal tunnel
- A ___ gait, characterized by a tilting of the pelvis towards the uninvolved side, may be due to a lesion of the superior gluteal nerve.
gluteal
- The common peroneal nerve is the most commonly injured nerve in the lower extremity due to its close association with the neck of the ___ .
fibula
- Intramuscular injections should be restricted to the superior lateral quadrant of the ___ region of the lower extremity due to the absence of neurovascular structures.
gluteal
- A depressed ___ tendon reflex is consistent with a compression of either the S1 or S2 spinal roots.
calcaneal
- The popliteus muscle functions to “unlock” the knee joint during ___ of the leg.
flexion
- The ___ artery and axillary nerve typically traverse the quadrangular space, an anatomical region bounded inferiorly by the teres major muscle.
posterior circumflex humeral
- The pronator teres muscle is the (infero-) medial border of the ___ fossa.
cubital
- The ___ and ___ nerves are the two nerves most at risk for injury during the surgical excision of the axillary lymph nodes.
thoracodorsal - long thoracic
- “Jogger’s foot” (aching, burning, numbness and tingling on the medial side of the sole of the foot) may be due to compression of the __________ nerve where this nerve pass deep to the abductor hallucis muscle.
medial plantar
- The dorsalis pedis artery is the distal continuation of the ___ artery.
anterior tibial
- The deltoid ligament attaches to the tibia, talus, navicular and calcaneus, and resists forced ___ (movement) of the foot.
eversion
- The iliofemoral ligament helps to maintain the body in an erect posture by preventing overextension of the ___ joint.
hip
- The __________ muscle attaches in part to the adductor tubercle and ischial tuberosity.
adductor magnus
- The obturator internus and obturator externus muscles both attach in part to the __________ or the femur.
trochanteric fossa
- The subscapularis muscle attaches in part to the __________ of the humerus.
lesser tubercle
- The long head of the triceps brachii muscle attaches in part to the __________ of the scapula.
infraglenoid tubercle
- The __________ muscle attaches in part to the dorsal aspect of the base of the 3rd metacarpal.
extensor carpi radialis brevis
- The __________ muscle attaches in part to the palmar base of the distal phalanx of the thumb.
flexor pollicis longus
