Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ITIL N689 > Practice Tests > Flashcards

Practice Tests Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What types of changes are NOT usually included within the scope of change management?

a) Changes to a mainframe computer
b) Changes to business strategy
c) Changes to a service level agreement (SLA)
d) The retirement of a service

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of service operation?

a) To undertake testing to ensure services are designed to meet business needs
b) To deliver and manage IT services
c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. What does the term IT operations control refer to?
    a) Managing the technical and applications management functions
    b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of operational activities and events
    c) A set of tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT infrastructure and applications
    d) A service desk monitoring the status of the infrastructure when operators are not available
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?

a) Service level management
b) Service portfolio management
c) Service asset and configuration management (SACM)
d) Incident management

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. What is the RACI model used for?
    a) Documenting the roles and responsibilities of stakeholders in a process or activity
    b) Defining requirements for a new service or process
    c) Analysing the business impact of an incident
    d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of service management
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which of the following is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?
    a) An agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same organization that assists in the provision of services
    b) A written agreement between the IT service provider and their customer(s) defining key targets and responsibilities of both parties
    c) An agreement between two service providers about the levels of service required by the customer
    d) An agreement between a third party service desk and the IT customer about fix and response times
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What is the MAIN purpose of availability management?
    a) To monitor and report availability of components
    b) To ensure that all targets in the service level agreements (SLAs) are met
    c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
    d) To ensure that service availability meets the agreed needs of the business
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which of the following does service transition provide guidance on?
  2. Introducing new services
  3. Decommissioning services
  4. Transfer of services between service providers

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT a stage of the service lifecycle?

a) Service optimization
b) Service transition
c) Service design
d) Service strategy

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about a configuration management system (CMS) is CORRECT?
    a) The CMS should not contain corporate data about customers and users
    b) There may be more than one CMS
    c) There should not be more than one configuration management database (CMDB)
    d) If an organization outsources its IT services there is still a need for a CMS
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. What are the three sub-processes of capacity management?
    a) Business capacity management, service capacity management and component capacity management
    b) Supplier capacity management, service capacity management and component capacity management
    c) Supplier capacity management, service capacity management and technology capacity management
    d) Business capacity management, technology capacity management and component capacity management
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which of the following would be stored in the definitive media library (DML)?
  2. Copies of purchased software
  3. Copies of internally developed software
  4. Relevant licence documentation
  5. The change schedule

a) All of the above
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Which process is responsible for reviewing operational level agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?

a) Supplier management
b) Service level management
c) Service portfolio management
d) Demand management

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which role should ensure that process documentation is current and available?

a) The service owner
b) The chief information officer
c) Knowledge management
d) The process owner

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which of the following does the release and deployment management process address?
  2. Defining and agreeing release and deployment plans
  3. Ensuring release packages can be tracked
  4. Authorizing changes to support the process

a) 1 and 2 only
b) All of the above
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Which of the following are characteristics of every process?
  2. It is measurable
  3. It delivers a specific result
  4. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Which of the following are key ITIL characteristics that contribute to its success?
  2. It is vendor-neutral
  3. It is non-prescriptive
  4. It is best practice
  5. It is a standard

a) 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Who should be granted access to the information security policy?
    a) Senior business managers and IT staff
    b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the information security manager
    c) All customers, users and IT staff
    d) Information security management staff only
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Which of the following are valid elements of a service design package (SDP)?
  2. Agreed and documented business requirements
  3. A plan for transition of the service
  4. Requirements for new or changed processes
  5. Metrics to measure the service

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which of the following are examples of tools that might support the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?
  2. A tool to store definitive versions of software
  3. A workflow tool for managing changes
  4. An automated software distribution tool
  5. Testing and validation tools

a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about problem management is/are CORRECT?
  2. It ensures that all resolutions or workarounds that require a change to a configuration item (CI) are submitted through change management
  3. It provides management information about the cost of resolving and preventing problems

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the request fulfilment process?

a) Dealing with service requests from the users
b) Making sure all requests within an IT organization are fulfilled
c) Ensuring fulfilment of change requests
d) Making sure the service level agreement (SLA) is met

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Which statement about value creation through services is CORRECT?
    a) The customer’s perception of the service is an important factor in value creation
    b) The value of a service can only ever be measured in financial terms
    c) Delivering service provider outcomes is important in the value of a service
    d) Service provider preferences drive the value perception of a service
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about internal and external customers is MOST correct?
    a) External customers should receive better customer service because they pay for their IT services
    b) Internal customers should receive better customer service because they pay employee salaries
    c) The best customer service should be given to the customer that pays the most money
    d) Internal and external customers should receive the level of customer service that has been agreed
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Which one of the following should IT services deliver to customers?

a) Capabilities
b) Cost
c) Risk
d) Value

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Which one of the following activities is part of the service level management (SLM) process?
    a) Designing the configuration management system from a business perspective
    b) Creating technology metrics to align with customer needs
    c) Monitoring service performance against service level agreements (SLAs)
    d) Training service desk staff how to deal with customer complaints about service
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Which one of the following activities is part of the service level management (SLM) process?
    a) Designing the configuration management system from a business perspective
    b) Creating technology metrics to align with customer needs
    c) Monitoring service performance against service level agreements (SLAs)
    d) Training service desk staff how to deal with customer complaints about service
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Which one of the following should a service catalogue contain?

a) The version information of all software
b) The organizational structure of the company
c) Asset information
d) Details of all operational services

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. What does “Warranty of a service” mean?
    a) The service is fit for purpose
    b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service
    c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
    d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Which is the first activity of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
    a) Understand the business vision and objectives
    b) Carry out a baseline assessment to understand the current situation
    c) Agree on priorities for improvement
    d) Create and verify a plan
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a benefit of using an incident model?
    a) It will make problems easier to identify and diagnose
    b) It means known incident types never recur
    c) It provides pre-defined steps for handling particular types of incidents
    d) It ensures all incidents are easy to solve
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the CORRECT sequence of activities for handling an incident?
    a) identification, logging, categorization, prioritization, initial diagnosis, escalation, investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure
    b) prioritization, identification, logging, categorization, initial diagnosis, escalation, investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure
    c) identification, logging, initial diagnosis, categorization, prioritization, escalation, resolution and recovery, investigation and diagnosis, closure
    d) identification, initial diagnosis, investigation, logging, categorization, escalation, prioritization, resolution and recovery, closure
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Which service lifecycle stage ensures that measurement methods will provide the required metrics for new or changed services?

a) Service design
b) Service operation
c) Service strategy
d) Service delivery

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. Which of the following processes are concerned with managing risks to services?
  2. IT service continuity management
  3. Information security management
  4. Service catalogue management

a) All of the above
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT a type of metric described in continual service improvement (CSI)?

a) Process metrics
b) Service metrics
c) Personnel metrics
d) Technology metrics

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. Which statement about the relationship between the configuration management system (CMS) and the service knowledge management system (SKMS) is CORRECT?

a) The SKMS is part of the CMS
b) The CMS is part of the SKMS
c) The CMS and SKMS are the same thing
d) There is no relationship between the CMS and the SKMS

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. What is the role of the emergency change advisory board (ECAB)?
    a) To assist the change manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during particularly volatile business periods
    b) To assist the change manager by implementing emergency changes
    c) To assist the change manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide whether they should be authorized
    d) To assist the change manager in speeding up the emergency change process so that no unacceptable delays occur
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the service desk is/are CORRECT?
  2. The service desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its users for all operational issues
  3. The service desk should be the owner of the problem management process

a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the CORRECT list of the four Ps of service design?

a) Planning, products, position, processes
b) Planning, perspective, position, people
c) Perspective, partners, problems, people
d) People, partners, products, processes

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. Which one of the following represents the BEST course of action to take when a problem workaround is found?
    a) The problem record is closed
    b) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented within it
    c) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented on all related incident records
    d) The problem record is closed and details of the workaround are documented in a request for change(RFC)
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which is NOT a source of best practice?

a) Standards
b) Technology
c) Academic research
d) Internal experience

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Why are public frameworks, such as ITIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

a) Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer
b) Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
c) Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
d) Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environment

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the term for customers of an IT service provider who purchase services as agreed in a legal contract?

a) Strategic customers
b) External customers
c) Valued customers
d) Internal customers

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which is NOT defined as part of every process?

a) Roles
b) Inputs and outputs
c) Functions
d) Metrics

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

In which areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?

  1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors
  2. Creating service application interfaces
  3. Specialized practices for IT recruitment
  4. Integrating ITIL with other operating models

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which is an objective of service transition?

a) To negotiate service levels for new services
b) To ensure that service changes create the expected business value
c) To reduce the impact of business critical service outages on key services
d) To plan and manage entries in the service catalogue

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which lifecycle stage ensures that the impact of service outages is minimized on a day-to-day basis?

a) Service design
b) Service operation
) Continual service improvement
d) Service transition

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which is the BEST description of a service catalogue?

a) A document used by IT staff to identify activities that must be performed
b) A list of all service level agreements (SLAs)
c) A list of all business requirements that have not yet become services
d) The part of the service portfolio that is visible to customers

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following is concerned with policy and direction?

a) Capacity management
b) Governance
c) Service design
d) Service level management

A

B

50
Q

Which is an example of an operational level agreement (OLA)?

a) A document that includes objectives which underpin targets in a service level agreement (SLA)
b) A document that outlines the responsibilities of both the IT service provider and the customer
c) A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis
d) A document that describes business services and their service level targets to operational staff

A

A

51
Q

A known error record has been created after completing diagnosis of a problem but before finding a workaround.

Is this a valid approach?

a) Yes: a known error record can be created at any time it is prudent to do so
b) No: a known error record should be created before the problem is logged
c) No: a known error record is created when the original incident is raised
d) No: a known error record should be created with the next release of the service

A

A

52
Q

Which is used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?

a) Change proposal
b) Change policy
c) Service request
d) Risk register

A

A

53
Q

Which person or group is responsible for agreeing service targets with the service provider?

a) The user
b) The customer
c) The supplier
d) The service desk staff

A

B

54
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding value?

a) Value is defined by the customer
b) Value is defined by the cost of the service
c) Value is determined by the features offered to the customer
d) Value is determined in financial terms only

A

A

55
Q

Software and technology are examples of which of the 4 P’s?

a) Processes
b) Performance
c) Products
d) Partners

A

C

56
Q

What is the MAIN reason for a service provider to understand the five aspects of service design?

a) To prevent security breaches in mission critical services
b) To ensure a holistic, results-driven approach
c) To allow service design to cut costs
d) To prevent breaches of service level agreements (SLAs)

A

B

57
Q

Which is the CORRECT set of steps in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) approach?

a) Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve
b) ‘Where do we want to be?’; ‘How do we get there?’; ‘Who plans the improvement?’; ‘How do we know we arrived?’; ‘How do we keep the momentum going?’
c) Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
d) ‘What is the vision?’; ‘Where are we now?’; ‘Where do we want to be?’; ‘How do we get there?’; ‘Did we get there?’; ‘How do we keep the momentum going

A

D

58
Q

Which three types of metric support Continual Service Improvement (CSI) activities?

a) Technology metrics, service desk metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metrics
b) Process metrics, software metrics and financial metrics
c) Technology metrics, process metrics and service metrics
d) Service metrics, technology metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metrics

A

C

59
Q

Which part of Financial Management for IT services deals with predicting and controlling income and expenditure within the organization?

a) Accounting
b) Budgeting
c) Cost models
d) Charging

A

B

60
Q

What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider’s customers?

a) Service catalogue management
b) Service portfolio management
c) Service desk
d) Business relationship management

A

D

61
Q

Which of these recommendations are best practice for service level agreements?

  1. Include legal terminology in service level agreements (SLAs)
  2. Ensure all the targets in an SLA are measurable.
  3. Ensure the agreement is signed as both sides have responsibilities
  4. Include the service hours and cost of delivering the service

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4

A

B

62
Q

Which is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?

a) An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use
b) An agreement that covers one service for a single customer
c) An agreement that covers service-specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure
d) An agreement that covers one service for all customers of that service

A

D

63
Q

Which is NOT a responsibility of service catalogue management?

a) Ensuring that information about live IT services is accurate
b) Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained
c) Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is consistent with the service portfolio
d) Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the service catalogue

A

B

64
Q

Which is NOT an objective of supplier management?

a) Implementing a supplier policy
b) Supplier categorization and risk assessment
c) Maintaining the service knowledge management system
d) Identifying opportunities for the continual service improvement register

A

C

65
Q

Which process has the objective: “To ensure all service models conform to strategic, architectural, governance, and other corporate requirements”?

a) Service transition planning and support
b) Design coordination
c) Service level management
d) Change management

A

B

66
Q

Which statement about the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is CORRECT?

a) The ECAB considers every high priority request for change
b) The review of completed emergency changes is one of the duties of the ECAB
c) The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
d) The ECAB will be chaired by the IT director

A

C

67
Q

Who is responsible for chairing a change advisory board (CAB)?

a) Change manager
b) Service owner
c) Change initiator
d) Business relationship manager

A

A

68
Q

What is the second phase in release and deployment management?

a) Review and close
b) Authorize changes
c) Release build and test
d) Release and deployment planning

A

C

69
Q

Which process has the objective: “to improve the quality of management decision making by ensuring that reliable and secure information is available throughout the lifecycle”?

a) Knowledge management
b) Availability management
c) Service asset and configuration management
d) Change management

A

A

70
Q

Which process would establish new or changed services into supported environments within the predicted cost, quality and time estimates?

a) Financial management for IT Services
b) Capacity management
c) Transition planning and support
d) Change management

A

C

71
Q

Which should be done when closing an incident?

  1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary
  2. Check that the user is satisfied with the outcome
  3. Record a known error record with the resolution
  4. Perform an incident review for lessons learned

a) 1 & 2
b) 2 & 3
c) 3 & 4
d) 1 & 4

A

A

72
Q

Which BEST describes hierarchical escalation?

a) Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident
b) Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill
c) Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an incident to maintain customer satisfaction
d) Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement

A

A

73
Q

A significant, unresolved problem is likely to cause major business disruption. Where is this MOST LIKELY to be escalated to?

a) IT service continuity management
b) Availability management
c) Incident management
d) Change management

A

A

74
Q

Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernable trends?

a) Service level management
b) Problem management
c) Change management
d) Event management

A

B

75
Q

Which is the BEST description of a service request?

a) A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change
b) Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
c) Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface
d) Any request for change (RFC) that is low-risk and which can be approved by the change manager without a change advisory board (CAB) meeting

A

A

76
Q

Which service desk organizational structure is NOT described in service operation?

a) Local service desk
b) IT help desk
c) Virtual service desk
d) Follow the sun

A

B

77
Q

Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?

a) Technical management
b) IT operations management
c) Request fulfilment
d) Applications management

A

B

78
Q

What is a process owner NOT responsible for?

a) Defining the process strategy
b) Communication of process information or changes to ensure awareness
c) Developing IT plans that meet and continue to meet the IT requirements of the business
d) Identifying improvement opportunities for inclusion in the CSI register

A

C

79
Q

What is a person responsible for if they are categorized as “I” in a RACI matrix?

a) They are accountable for the outcome of the activity b) They must perform an activity
c) They must be kept up to date on the progress of an activity
d) They manage an activit

A

C

80
Q

Which of these can be introduced to provide; improved detection and monitoring, pattern recognition analysis and service optimization?

a) Service automation
b) The DIKW structure
c) Event management
d) Standard changes

A

A

81
Q

Which of the following examples is a source of best practice?

a) A hardware supplier
b) A service management tool
c) ISO / IEC 20000
d) A consultancy organization

A

C

82
Q

Which is the CORRECT explanation of how a service facilitates an outcome?

a) By enhancing the performance of associated tasks and reducing the effect of constraints
b) By comparing service value with service cost to ensure there is an equal ratio
c) By ensuring data is translated directly into wisdom allowing better business decisions to be made
d) By allowing the achievement of contractual obligations and avoiding financial penalties

A

A

83
Q

What term is used for customers of IT services who do NOT work in the same organization as the service provider?

a) Strategic customers
b) External customers
c) Valued customers
d) Internal customers

A

B

84
Q

What should be defined for every process?

a) The process owner, process policy and set of process activities
b) The service owner, service level agreement and set of process procedures
c) The policy owner, operational level agreement and set of process steps
d) The service manager, service contract and set of work instructions

A

A

85
Q

All of the stages of the ITIL lifecycle have a role to play in ensuring the delivery of high quality IT services at optimum cost.

Which of these has the BEST opportunity to prevent difficulties as early as possible and minimize the cost of any remedial work?

a) Service transition
b) Continual service improvement (CSI)
c) Service design
d) Service operation

A

C

86
Q

Which is NOT part of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?

a) Successfully deploying service releases into supported environments
b) Designing and developing capabilities for service management
c) Ensuring that service changes create the expected business value
d) Planning the resources required to manage a release

A

B

87
Q

Which is an objective of service operation?

a) To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver services to the business and manage them at agreed levels
b) To successfully release services into a live or supported environment
c) To identify opportunities to provide services and exploit them
d) To define the capability required to deliver the IT strategy

A

A

88
Q

Which is the BEST description of a business case?

a) A decision support and planning tool that details the likely consequences of a business action
b) A document that details the terms of a service for particular customers in the same company
c) A complaint by the business about a missed service level
d) The terms and conditions in an IT outsource contract

A

A

89
Q

Which of these statements about service asset and configuration management is CORRECT?

  1. A configuration item (CI) can be a component part of one or more other CIs
  2. How an organization groups components into configuration items will depend on the level of control they wish to exert
  3. A single configuration management database (CMDB) is the objective for an organization
  4. All CMDB audits should be conducted by external auditors using a CMDB standard

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4

A

A

90
Q

Which BEST defines availability?

a) How quickly a service or component can be restored after failure
b) The ability of a third party supplier to meet the terms of its contract
c) The ability of a service desk to restore service to configuration items (CIs) and infrastructure components
d) The ability of a service, component or CI to perform its agreed function when required

A

D

91
Q

The definitive media library is the responsibility of:

a) Facilities management
b) Access management
c) Request fulfilment
d) Service asset and configuration management

A

D

92
Q

‘A cause of one or more incidents’ is the ITIL definition of which of these terms?

a) A known error
b) A workaround
c) A problem
d) A root cause

A

C

93
Q

Where would all the possible service improvement opportunities be recorded?

a) CSI register
b) Known error database
c) Capacity management information system
d) Configuration management database

A

A

94
Q

Which is NOT a defined area of value?

a) Customer preferences
b) Business policies
c) Customer perceptions
d) Business outcomes

A

B

95
Q

An Internal IT department would be considered which one of the ‘four P’s’ of service design?

a) Provider
b) People
c) Partner
d) Performer

A

B

96
Q

Which do technology metrics measure?

a) Components
b) Processes
c) The end-to-end service
d) Customer satisfaction

A

A

97
Q

What is the next step in the continual service improvement (CSI) model:

  1. What is the vision?
  2. Where are we now?
  3. Where do we want to be?
  4. How do we get there?
  5. Did we get there?
  6. ?

a) What is the return on investment (ROI)?
b) How much did it cost?
c) How do we keep the momentum going?
d) What is the value on investment (VOI)?

A

C

98
Q

Which do service metrics measure?

a) Functions
b) Maturity and cost
c) The end-to-end service
d) Infrastructure availability

A

C

99
Q

In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?

a) Operational level agreement (OLA)
b) Capacity plan
c) Service level agreement (SLA)
d) SLA monitoring (SLAM) chart

A

D

100
Q

Where would a customer’s initial service targets be recorded before the service level agreement (SLA) is produced?

a) In an operational level agreement (OLA)
b) In a list of service level requirements (SLR)
c) In the service catalogue
d) In the configuration management database (CMDB)

A

B

101
Q

The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?

a) Before the change is approved
b) Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out
c) After implementation but before the post implementation review
d) After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change

A

A

102
Q

Which of the following lists shows change types defined in ITIL?

a) Strategic, emergency and normal
b) Strategic, urgent and emergency
c) Standard, urgent and normal
d) Standard, emergency and normal

A

D

103
Q

Which is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?

a) To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management activities
b) To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided
c) To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
d) To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service

A

A

104
Q

What should be documented in an incident model?

  1. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
  2. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) targets and reliability
  3. Details of agreed service continuity requirements
  4. Escalation procedures for who should be contacted and when

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4

A

D

105
Q

Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?

a) Service level management
b) Problem management
c) Change management
d) Event management

A

B

106
Q

With which process is problem management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?

a) Incident management
b) Service asset and configuration management
c) Capacity management
d) IT service continuity management

A

A

107
Q

Which BEST describes budgeting for financial management of IT services?

a) A periodic negotiation cycle to recover costs to deliver services to customers
b) Predicting and controlling the income and expenditure of money
c) The process that enables a company to determine where its money is spent
d) The process to bill customers for the services supplied to them

A

B

108
Q

Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all live services and services that are about to be implemented?

a) Service level management
b) Service catalogue management
c) Demand management
d) Service transition

A

B

109
Q

Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

a) Capacity management
b) Incident management
c) Service level management
d) Financial management

A

A

110
Q

Which service design process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly addressed in all service designs?

a) Availability management
b) Capacity management
c) Design coordination
d) Release and deployment management

A

C

111
Q

Which process is responsible for ensuring that appropriate testing takes place?

a) Knowledge management
b) Release and deployment management
c) Service asset and configuration management
d) Service level management

A

B

112
Q

Which term describes the experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals?

a) Data
b) Information
c) Knowledge
) Governance

A

C

113
Q

What is the purpose of transition planning and support?

a) Provide overall planning for service transitions and coordinate the resources they require
b) Ensure that all service transitions are properly authorized
c) Provide the resources to allow all infrastructure elements of a service transition to be recorded and tracked
d) To define testing scripts to ensure service transitions are unlikely to ever fail

A

A

114
Q

Which would NOT involve event management?

a) Intrusion detection
b) Recording and monitoring environmental conditions in the data centre
c) Recording service desk staff absence
d) Monitoring the status of configuration items

A

C

115
Q

Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users?

a) Service level management
b) Service portfolio management
c) Request fulfilment
d) Demand management

A

C

116
Q

Which is the BEST description of a centralized service desk?

a) The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves
b) The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in one place
c) The desk provides 24 hour global support
d) There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization

A

D

117
Q

Which activity does application management perform?

a) Defining where the vendor of an application should be located
b) Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcome
c) Deciding who the vendor of storage devices will be
d) Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application

A

B

118
Q

Which statement about a service owner is INCORRECT?

a) Carries out the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
b) Contributes to continual improvement affecting the service they own
c) Is a stakeholder in all of the IT processes which support the service they own
d) Is accountable for a specific service within an organization

A

A

119
Q

Which rules should be followed when defining a RACI authority matrix?

a) More than one person is accountable
b) At least one person is consulted
c) Only one person is accountable
d) Only one person is responsible

A

C

120
Q

Which does NOT benefit from service automation?

a) Monitoring
b) Wisdom
c) Pattern recognition
d) Prioritization

A

B

ITIL N689 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions