Practice tests Flashcards

1
Q

Writing which presents a clear argument about an idea is called?

A

Expository writing

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2
Q

Writing which is anecdotal, experiential, and personal using literary devices is what?

A

Narrative

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3
Q

Writing which communicates on specialized topics or provides instructions is called?

A

Technical writing

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4
Q

_______ writing argues a position or opinion on a topical issue.

A

Editorial

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5
Q

When referencing place values in decimals, does it start at the first number or the first number after the decimal?

A

First number after the decimal

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6
Q

In order to add two fractions with different denominators, you have to:

A

Find the least common multiple of the denominators; multiply the top and bottom of each fraction to make the denominators the same.

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7
Q

A type of graph that is appropriate for displaying one or more sets of continuous data

A

Line graph

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8
Q

A bar graph that is use to display and compare data intervals.

A

Histogram

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9
Q

How many kg are in a lb?

A

0.454

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10
Q

How many feet are in a yard?

A

3 feet

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11
Q

How many square feet are in a square yard?

A

9 square feet

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12
Q

How do you calculate the mean of a data set?

A

Add all of the data up, and divide by the number of data sets.

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13
Q

How do you calculate the median of a data set?

A

Arrange the sets in numerical order, count how many sets there are, divide by 2. If you have an odd number of sets, round up to the next number. That number corresponding to the number in the numerical order is the median.

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14
Q

How do you calculate the mode of a data set?

A

The set that appears most often. If none appear twice, there is no mode. If two appear more than once, the same number of times, they are bi-modal (it is possible for a data set to have two modes).

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15
Q

How man pounds are in a kg?

A

2.205

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16
Q

How many ounces are in a lb?

A

16

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17
Q

How do you find the area of a trapezoid, given the base,

A

A = top + bottom/2 (height)

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18
Q

Which of the following classes of chemical messengers is able to easily diffuse across the cell membrane?

a. Steroids
b. Interleukins
c. Catecholamines
d. Histamines

A

A, steroids

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19
Q

Which of these substances will best dissolve in water?

CH4, CCl4, HCI, N2

A

HCI

HCI is an ionic compound and dissociates into charged particles called ions. Because water molecules are polar, water is a good solvent for ions.

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20
Q

Which of the following is improved when repeated trials of an experiment have consistent results?

Reliability
Validity
Independent variables
Dependent variables

A

Reliability; it speaks to the repeatabilitiy of an experiment.

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21
Q

_________ refers to how accurately an experiment measures what it is designed to measure.

A

Validity

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22
Q

An _____________ is a condition that can be changed by the experimenter but is not improved through repeated trials

A

Independent variable

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23
Q

_____________ respond to changes in the independent variables, but it itself is not improved through repeated trials.

A

Dependent variables

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24
Q

Which of the following is best to display data in an experiment where cups are placed in a freezer and the temperature is recorded over time?

Pie chart
Bar graph
Venn diagram
Line graph

A

Line graph. This best represents changes over time.

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25
Q

_____ charts compare the values of different parts of a whole

A

Pie

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26
Q

_____ graphs can compare resulting data from different experimental groups over larger changes of time

A

Bar

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27
Q

_____ diagrams show similarities and differences and are not used to represent changes over time.

A

Venn

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28
Q

Changes over time are best represented by what type of graph?

A

Line graph

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29
Q

Which of the following is a function of a somatic reflex?

A. It helps to produce an involuntary response in the absence of a stimulus
B. It helps to produce a response quickly to protect the body from harm.
C. It helps to produce variable responses to the same sensory input.
D. It helps the individual to produce an appropriate voluntary response.

A

B. It helps to produce a response quickly to protect the body from harm

Reflex actions are involuntary, stereotyped, and predictable, as they require the body to respond quickly to a specific sensory input to protect the body.

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30
Q

A _______________ is an involuntary response to a stimulus

A

Somatic reflex

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31
Q

Which of the following is an example of a long bone?

Vertebra
Sacrum
Ribs
Femur

A

Femur

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32
Q

Carbohydrates are soluble in _________, unlike lipids.

A

Water

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33
Q

____________ are easily transported and digested in the body; this, the energy present in them is easily mobilized.

A

Carbohydrates

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34
Q

Which of the following is the function of the spleen in a healthy adult man?

It stores bile produced in the liver
It synthesizes platelets
It is a vestigial organ
It degrades aged red blood cells

A

It degrades aged red blood cells

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35
Q

A healthy spleen has narrow tubes that cause aged ___________ to rupture as they try to squeeze through.

A

Red blood cells

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36
Q

Which of the following occurs when a skeletal muscle is in a relaxed state?

Tropomyosin covers myosin-binding sites
Myosin forms cross bridges with actin filaments
Ca2+ is released into the cytosol of the muscle cell
ATP binds to myosin heads

A

Tropomyosin covers myosin-binding sites.

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37
Q

When a muscle is in a ________ state, tropomyosin covers myosin-binding sites on actin.

A

Relaxed

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38
Q

Which of the following results from the release of the neurotransitter dopamine into the nerve synapse?

The presynaptic neuron fires an action potential
Dopamine binds to receptor proteins on the membrane of the postsynaptic cell
Dopamine enters the cytoplasm of the postsynaptic cell
Dopamine causes the postsynaptic nerve cell to contract

A

Dopamine binds to receptor proteins on the membrane of the postsynaptic cell

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39
Q

When dopamine enters the synapse, it binds to ______________ of the postsynaptic cell, causing a response in the cell.

A

Receptor proteins

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40
Q

Dopamine is a polar molecule that acts by binding to receptors on the ___________ neuron.

A

Postsynaptic

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41
Q

How can you tell if a compound is covalent or ionic?

A

By looking at the periodic table. Elements to the left of Carbon are metals. Elements to the right are non-metals. If a compound is made of a two metals, it will be ionic. If a compound is made from a metal and a non-metal, its bonding will be ionic. If a compound is made from two non-metals, its bonding will be covalent.

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42
Q

Which of the following is the role of the urethra?

To transport urine out of the body
To transport the egg to the uterus
To connect the kidneys to the bladder
To connect the uterus to the outside of the body

A

To transport urine out of the body

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43
Q

After doing a belly flop into a swimming pool, a child says, “The water slapped me.” Which of the following is the property of water that causes the slap?

Irregular expansion
Hydrogen bonding
Capillary action
Hydrophobic exclusion

A

Hydrogen bonding

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44
Q

A student wants to design an experiment to demonstrate the effects of acid rain on plant life. Which of the following substances should be combined with water to simulate acid rain?

Vinegar
Table salt
Baking soda
ammonia

A

Vinegar. Vinegar is acidic, with a pH less than 7. Adding it to water will acidify the water to simulate acid rain.

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45
Q

For which of the following temperature scales is 0 degrees equal to the freezing point of water?

Kelvin
Fahrenheit
Celsius
Newton

A

Celsius

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46
Q

Which of the following is an example of a nonspecific action of the immune system?

A. Plasma cells produce antibodies to attack foreign cells.
B. Memory T-cells are produced in response to vaccines
C. Inflammation is initiated in response to infection
D. Cytotoxic T-cells are activated to attack infected cells.

A

C. Inflammation is a nonspecific response to an infection and results in redness, fever, swelling, and pain at the site of infection.

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47
Q

Which of the following hormones requires iodine for its production?

a. Thyroid hormones
b. melatonin
c. parathyroid hormoen
d. calcitonin

A

a. The human body needs iodine, a naturally occurring element, to produce the thyroid hormones thyroxine and triiodothyronine.

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48
Q

A gene is bring copied into a molecule that contains ribose and uracil. Which of the following cellular processes does this describe?

a. DNA replication
b. Translation
c. Gene splicing
d. Transcription

A

d. Transcription is the process by which a gene, encoded in DNA, is copied into a messenger RNA. RNA contains ribose sugar and uracil base.

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49
Q

Which of the following cell organelles are abundant in nerve and muscle cells to help meet their ATP requirements?

a. endoplasmic reticulum
b. mitochondria
c. golgi bodies
d. nucleus

A

b. mitochondria play a role in cellular respiration and help generate ATP, which provides cellular energy to carry out different functions.

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50
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the adaptive immune system?

a. It uses phagocytes for the ingestion of foreign particles
b. It produces antibodies against a specific antigen in the body
c. It exerts the first response of the immune system against infection
d. It is comprised of non-specific barriers against a pathogen.

A

B. The adaptive immune system contains B cells, which differentiate into plasma cells, which produce antibodies against specific antigens.

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51
Q

Which of the following terms best describes the bonding together of smaller molecules to form larger molecules?

a. anabolism
b. catalysis
c. catabolism
d. anaphylaxis

A

a. Anabolism describes the endothermic process by which bonds are formed between molecules to make larger molecules

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52
Q

In humans, A and B alleles are codominant over O to determine blood type. Which of the following combinations of parental genotypes has the greatest probability of producing a child with type AB blood?

a. AB and BO
b. AO and BO
c. AB and AB
d. AA and BB

A

D. This combination of genotypes has a 100% chance of producing a child with type AB blood.

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53
Q

An infant’s immune system is immature at the time of birth. They reeive their birthing parent’s antibodies through the plaenta before birth and from breast milk after birth. Which of the following terms can be used to describe this type of immunity?

a. Active immunity
b. Adaptive immunity
c. innate immunity
d. passive immunity

A

D. Passive immunity is an immune response in which antibodies are directly obtained from outside the body. Examples of passive immunity include immunoglobulin therapy and the transfer of antibodies from the birthing parent through the placenta and breast milk.

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54
Q

Which of the following methods could be used to determine how much volume is taken up by rocks placed in a container?

a. Mass the container; mass the container with the rocks in it; calculate the difference in these two masses.
b. Count the number of rocks; mass the rocks; then divide the mass of the rocks by the number of rocks.
c. Fill the container to capacity with water, add rocks to the container; collect the water that overflows and mass it.
d. Mass the container empty; fill it with the rocks and water; then mass it again and find the difference.

A

C. The volume of the container is approximated by filling it with water. Adding rocks to the container displaces an equal volume of water. Therefore, the water that spills out of the container will equal the volume of the rocks. This question assumes that the rocks are more dense than water.

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55
Q

Which of the following outcomes will most likely result from an increase in a population’s level of education and standard of living and an improvement in educational and employment opportunities for women?

a. Increase in the population’s average female fertility
b. Increase in population’s death rate
c. Decrease in the population’s life expectancy
d. Decrease in the population’s birth rate

A

d. A decrease in birth rates usually is a consequence with women being engaged with work and education. typically, fertility rates and women’s empowerment are inversely proportional.

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56
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding the lymphatic system? Select all that apply.

a. It is a closed circulatory system
b. The lymph flows from the interstitial spaces towards the heart.
c. The lymph transports carbon dioxide to the lungs for expiration
d. The lymphatic system helps the body to absorb lipids.
e. The lymphatic system contains more red blood cells than white blood cells.

A

B, D

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57
Q

The ___________ system contains a clear fluid called lymph that flows in one direction from the interstitial spaces toward the lymph ducts that then empty into the veins to enter the circulatory system and travel toward the heart.

A

Lymphatic

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58
Q

____________ vessels, called lacteals, absorb dietary lipids from the small intestines.

A

Lymphatic

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59
Q

Which of the following is true of centromeres of mitotic chromosomes prior to anaphase?

a. It is the region where sister chromatids are most closely attached.
b. It is the region where crossing over occurs
c. It is the region where replication begins
d. It is the region where histones are made.

A

A. A centromere is a specialized region where to chromatids are most closely attached.

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60
Q

Which of the following is the collagen-rich material that connects muscles to bone?

a. Tendon
b. ligament
c. reticular tissue
d. areolar tissue

A

A. Tendons connect muscle to bone. For example, the Achilles tendon connects the lower leg muscles to the heel bone.

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61
Q

A field containing a single variety of commercial bananas is devastated by a virus. Nearby, wild banana groves with similar plant densities show infection, but many plants remain healthy. Which of the following statements best explains this observation?

a. Crowded fields lead to higher plant stress and greater susceptibility to infection.
b. Density-dependent shading in the commercial fields leads to rapid spread of viruses in damp soil.
c. Wild bananas have more genetic variation, and some plants are resistant to the banana virus.
d. Commercial bananas are genetically modified and less robust than wild bananas.

A

C. A single variety is a clone of a high-yielding plant, and it has no genetic variation. All the cloned plants are susceptible to the virus. Variation is a prerequisite of adaptation to changing environments.

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62
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the color change and substance properties for acid-base indicator testing?

a. Blue litmus turns red, indicating the presence of a base with a pH > 7 .
b. Red litmus turns blue, showing the presence of an acid with a pH > 7.
c. Blue litmus turns red, indicating the presence of an acid with a pH < 7.
d. Red litmus turns blue, showing the presence of a base with a pH < 7.

A

C. Blue litmus would turn red with an acid, and acids have a pH less than 7.

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63
Q

The process known as gastrulation results in the formation of which of the following embryonic structures?

a. Germ layers
b. circulatory system
c. neural crest
d. limb buds

A

A. The gastrula derives from invagination of the blastula early in development and is the structure in which the germ layers (the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm) are laid down.

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64
Q

Which of the following correctly describes physcial changes between states of matter?

a. Deposition occurs when the water in a lake changes to ice.
b. Evaporation occurs when candle wax burns to form smoke.
c. Condensation occurs when glue solidifies with exposure to air.
d. Sublimation occurs when dry ice turns into carbon dioxide gas.

A

D. Sublimation is the conversion of a solid into a gas without passing through a liquid stage. Since carbon dioxide goes from a solid phase to a gaseous phase, this process is sublimation.

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65
Q

Which of the following describes the function of the ribosome in a cell?

a. Production of ATP molecules from energy in nutrient molecules.
b. Disposal and recycling of damaged or unneeded cell parts.
c. Use of genetic information to build specific protein molecules.
d. Regulation of molecules entering and leaving the cell.

A

C. The ribosome is the site of translation of the genetic code of DNA and RNA into the amino acid code of proteins.

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66
Q

Which of the following statements describes an ion of the isotope Aluminum-27?

a. The ion has 13 neutrons
b. The atom has a mass number of 14.
c. The atom has 27 electrons.
d. The ion has an electric charge of +3.

A

D. This ion contains 13 protons and 10 electrons. Losing three electrons will give the ion a charge of +3. The mass number (27) is the sum of protons and neutrons

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67
Q

An element’s ______ number is the sum of protons and neutrons.

A

Mass

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68
Q

Which of the following molecules present in blood has the ability to buffer changes in pH?

a. Cholesterol
b. Bicarbonate
c. Plasma sugars
d. Circulating salts

A

B. Bicarbonate is the conjugate-base of carbonic acid, which is made from water and carbon dioxide, both of which are present in abundance in blood. Therefore, bicarbonate is a buffer in conjunction with carbonic acid.

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69
Q

Which of the following connects the ovaries to the uterus?

a. vas deferens
b. ureters
c. fallopian tubes
d. urethra

A

C.

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70
Q

Which of the following explains what happens in the circulatory system during hyperventilation?

a. Oxygen levels increase, causing an increase in blood pH.
b. Carbon dioxide levels decrease, causing an increase in blood pH.
c. Oxygen levels decrease, causing a decrease in blood pH.
d. Carbon dioxide levels increase, causing a decrease in blood pH.

A

B. As carbon dioxide levels decrease, the blood become more basic, increasing blood pH.

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71
Q

A patient who has a mutation that causes type 1 diabetes mellitus is trying a therapy that will use their own somatic stem cells to restore their insulin production. Before their stem cells can be used for therapy, which of the following should be done?

a. The stem cells should be inactivated with UV radiation
b. A normal gene should be supplied in place of the defective one before therapy.
c. The patient should be advised that the genetically altered cells will be passed on to offspring
d. The patient should be tested to ensure that their body will not reject the stem cells

A

B. The patient’s insulin-producing genes are damaged. A functional insulin-producing gene should be placed into the cells with the aim of integrating the gene into the DNA.

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72
Q

Vitamin b12 is converted to methyl-cobalamin, which is consumed in a reaction where methionine synthase produces the amino acid methionine. Which of the following molecules is the catalyst in this reaction?

a. Vitamin b12
b. methyl-cobalamin
c. methionine synthase
d. methionine

A

C. Methionine synthase has the suffix -ase, which is standard nomenclature for enzymes. Its name further indicates that it helps to make methionine, so it is a catalyst.

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73
Q

In which of the following parts of the digestive system is vitamin b12 absorbed?

a. Stomach
b. pancreas
c. large intestine
d. small intestine

A

D. Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the distal ileum of the small intestine by receptor-mediated endocytosis.

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74
Q

Which of the following diseases is primarily caused by a toxin produced by a microorganism?

a. Cholera
b. leprosy
c. acne
d. HIV

A

A. Diarrhea associated with cholera is caused by cholera toxin secreted by certain strains of the bacterium vibrio cholerae.

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75
Q

Which of the following will occur in the absence of melanocytes in the skin?

a. The skin will have a thin dermis
b. The skin will not have pigmentation
c. The skin will get tanned on exposure to sunlight
d. The skin will not be able to maintain its temperature.

A

B. Melanocytes produce the pigment called melanin, which gives skin its color. In the absence of melanocytes, the skin will not be able to produce the pigment melanin and will have a pale and white appearance.

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76
Q

Which of the following options demonstrates correct sentence structure?

a. Poring over the books for hours; they were to be sold tomorrow.
b. The books were to be sold tomorrow, that’s why she spent house poring over them.
c. She spent hours poring over the books because they were to be sold tomorrow.
d. Tomorrow, the books were to be sold, therefore, she spent house poring over them.

A

C

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77
Q

Leslie’s fear of the dentist’s drill made her dread her office visits; ________, knowing the importance of good dental health, she keeps her appointments.

Which word should be used to correctly link the two clauses in the sentence above?

a. however
b. consequently
c. likewise
d. therefore

A

A

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78
Q

A student is editing a document. Which of the following words is written correctly?

a. dis-honesty
b. check-list
c. ex-manager
d. rattle-snake

A

C

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79
Q

Based on an examination of word parts, which of the following words means “a lover of books”?

Bibliography
Bibliophile
Bibliophobe
Bibliomancy

A

Bibliophile

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80
Q

Based on an analysis of word structure, which of the following is the meaning of the word pandemic?

a. Something that affects all people
b. something that refers to greek mythology
c. something that causes a disease
d. Something that occurs in a specific area

A

A

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81
Q

Can scientists separate caffiene and nicotine from tea and coffee using simple chemical proceses?

Which of the following words are misspelled in the sentence above? (select all that apply.)

a. Scientists
b. caffiene
c. nicotine
d. proceses
e. seperate

A

B, D, E

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82
Q

Penicillin rarely kills bacteria it merely prevents them from multiplying.

Which of the following correctly punctuates the underlined portion of the sentence above?

a. bacteria it
b. bacteria, it
c. bacteria; it
d. bacteria it,

A

C

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83
Q

Which of the following sentences is correctly punctuated?

a. “An object that sinks,” said the teacher, “displaces an amount of water equal to the object’s volume.”
b. John said, Only three colors are available red, blue, and yellow.
c. Grandfather says, that we must eat healthy well balanced meals and exercise regularly to stay fit.
d. The principal announced that “Carol Williams the new mayor would be the chief guest on the occasion.”

A

A

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84
Q

Which of the following sentences would be appropriate in an informative article about small steps consumers can take to reduce waste and improve the environment?

a. Studies show that in order to create a new positive habitat, you should meditate at the same time each day.
b. Personally, I don’t believe climate change is really happening.
c. Consider using a cloth bag instead of paper or plastic when shopping.
d. Future generations are relying on you to make the changes right now.

A

C

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85
Q

Young children often have _______ as their role models.

Which of the following correctly completes the sentence above?

a. Heros
b. Hero’s
c. Heroes
d. Heroes’

A

C

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86
Q

“A Modest Proposal” by Jonathan Swift suggests that allowing rich landowners to eat the children of the poor is a solution for the problem of starvation in Ireland. While his idea is clearly outrageous, Swift pursues this idea to highlight the stark differences between the wealthy landowners and peasants. In particular, he is criticizing the Irish aristocracy’s treatment of the poor.

Which of the following best describes Swift’s tone?

a. Satirical
b. Humorous
c. Expository
d. Informative

A

A

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87
Q

Which of the following is defined as informal language?

a. Regionalism
b. Colloquialism
c. brand name
d. gender pronoun

A

B

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88
Q

Which of the following sentences require an appropriate citation within a writing assignment?

a. According to billboards popping up throughout Hanlon County, vitamin C is the best way to prevent the common cold.
b. According to a recent study published in the Midwestern Journal of Homeopathy, taking vitamin C alone is not enought to prevent the common cold.
c. Many of us feel that taking extra vitamin C does not do enough to help prevent the common cold.
d. My doctor used to remind me to drink orange juice every day. She would exclaim, “It is so good for you and chock-full of vitamin C!”

A

B

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89
Q

It has been truly said that whatever the mind can concieve and believe, the mind can achieve.

Which of the following words is misspelled in the sentence above?

a. concieve
b. believe
c. achieve
d. truly

A

A

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90
Q

Which of the following is a simple sentence?

a. Since the researchers’ explanation was not consistent with their earlier observations, they restructured their hypothesis, and they decided to reattempt the experiment in 2020.
b. The researches decided to reattempt the experiment in 2020 due to the inconsistency between their recent explanations and earlier observations.
c. Owing to the inconsistency between their recent explanations and earlier observations, the researchers decided to reattempt the experiment in 2020.
d. After the researchers found an inconsistency between their recent explanations and earlier observations, they decided to reattempt the experiment in 2020.

A

C

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91
Q

Based on the analysis of word structure, a “confluence” is which of the following?

a. Where flows come together
b. Where fluency is gathered
c. Where a counterargument is compiled
d. Where a barrier begins

A

A

92
Q

The doctor said, “I _______ the patient yesterday.”

Which of the following correctly completes the sentence above?

a. see
b. seen
c. saw
d. have seen

A

C

93
Q

Sharon went to work, keeps her medical appointment, and arrived early for the party.

Which of the following uses the correct verb tense to replace the error in the sentence?

a. arrives
b. would go
c. would arrive
d. kept

A

D

94
Q

Which of the following words is spelled correctly?

a. Receiveable
b. Receivable
c. Recieveable
d. Recievable

A

B

95
Q

Which of the following is the first step of the writing process?

a. Preparing an outline
b. Writing a draft
c. Citing sources
d. Writing a revision

A

A

96
Q

A student is asked by their Composition teacher to write a reflection on their writing process. Which of the following information is relevant to the reflection?

a. Their familiarity with the library
b. Their academic goals
c. Their current grade in composition
d. Their outlining strategy

A

D

97
Q

Which of the following words defines the suffix -ism?

a. quantity
b. belief
c. quality
d. process

A

B

98
Q

As indicated in the findings, a scale score of 240 points indicates a performance above the proficiency level.

Which of the following is the likely genre for the sentence above?

a. research paper
b. novel
c. personal level
d. sitcom

A

A

99
Q

Which of the following is the meaning of dis- in “disappear”?

a. bad
b. over
c. apart
d. not

A

D

100
Q

Which of the following is the meaning of the prefix ante-?

a. against
b. before
c. above
d. within

A

B

101
Q

After my little brother attacked me, I no longer wanted him around. I doubted that many children _______ ever this badly behaved.

Which of the following verbs correctly completes the sentence above?

a. was
b. is
c. were
d. are

A

C

102
Q

The inhabitants of the town believe that noise, smog, and traffic _______ away tourists. Which of the following predicates correctly completes the sentence above?

a. is driving
b. has driven
c. drives
d. drive

A

D

103
Q

Which of the following is a compound-complex sentence?

a. The wall was completely covered with vines, but the masked burglar climbed it anyway.
b. The masked burglar climbed the vine-covered wall using a rope
c. The masked burglar climbed a vine-covered wall that was 8 feet tall.
d. Though the wall was 8 feet tall, the masked burglar climbed it; they got inside the house through the back window.

A

D

104
Q

Which of the following sentences requires a citation?

a. This website gives details of numerous traders and investors in informal credit markets.
b. In this paper, the statistics on formal and informal sector credit have been drawn from NSS Organization’s 2007 survey on rural debt.
c. The informal sector consists of private moneylending practices and involves lending from families, friends, and relatives.
d. In my opinion, the definition of the formal credit market is broader than the informal sector.

A

B

105
Q

Which of the following sentences would likely be found in a professional business memo?

a. The grounds crew always does a great job at our business park.
b. A new pet supply store will be opening in town as a part of the new strip mall, and I can’t wait to go there.
c. This company is totally awesome to work for and has some amazing benefits.
d. All requests for personal time off must be submitted in writing to a manager.

A

D

106
Q

Which of the following sentences is punctuated correctly?

a. How did one man’s name get ont he list of womens’ names?
b. How did one mans’ name get on the list of womens’ names?
c. How did one mans’ name get on the list of women’s names?
d. How did one man’s name get on the list of women’s names?

A

D

107
Q

Which of the following pituitary hormones stimulates the process of gametogenesis?

a. oxytocin
b. prolactin
c. luteinizing hormone
d. Follicle stimulating hormone

A

D

108
Q

When blood leaves the left ventricle of the heart, which of the following structures does it enter next?

a. Aorta
b. inferior vena cava
c. pulmonary artery
d. pulmonary vein

A

A

109
Q

Calcium concentration in the blood is controlled by which of the following glands?

a. Pancreas
b. adrenal
c. parathyroid
d. Posterior pituitary

A

C

110
Q

Which of the following occurs as a result of the release of antidiuretic hormone?

a. the renal tubules absorb less water
b. urine becomes less concentrated
c. fluid volume in the body increases
d. insensible water loss increases

A

C

111
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the regulation of body temperature?

a. cerebellum
b. pons
c. hypothalamus
d. parietal lobe

A

C

112
Q

Breastfeeding of an infant provides which of the following types of immunity?

a. Artificial active
b. natural active
c. artificial passive
d. natural passive

A

D

113
Q

Which of the following antibody types mediates the body’s response to an allergen?

a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG

A

C

114
Q

which of the following is the function of the ureters?

a. to conduct urine from the kidneys to the bladder
b. to conduct urine from the bladder to outside the body
c. to move filtrate from the glomerulus to the loop of henle
d. to move filtrate from the loop of henle to the collecting duct

A

A

115
Q

Which of the following electrolytes plays an essential role in the clotting of blood?

a. sodium
b. magnesium
c. calcium
d. potassium

A

C

116
Q

Testosterone production is regulated by which of the following glands?

a. pineal
b. thymus
c. parathyroid
d. pituitary

A

D

117
Q

Bile aids in the digestion of which of the following?

a. fat
b. protein
c. vitamins
d. carbohydrates

A

A

118
Q

Which of the following is the hormone that regulates urine output?

a. thyroid stimulating
b. antidiuretic
c. adrenocorticotropic
d. follicle stimulating

A

B

119
Q

Which of the following does the respiratory system eliminate when there is an excess of hydrogen ions in the body?

a. oxygen
b. carbon dioxide
c. bicarbonate
d. lactic acid

A

B

120
Q

Blood cells are produced by which of the following?

a. red bone marrow
b. lamellae
c. lacunae
d. yellow bono marrow

A

A

121
Q

After passing through the glottis, inspired air then travels through which of the following structures?

a. larynx
b. trachea
c. pharynx
d. bronchi

A

A

122
Q

Which of the following types of muscle tissue is under voluntary control?

a. smooth
b. cardiac
c. visceral
d. skeletal

A

D

123
Q

An occurrence of too high of a concentration of which of the following electrolytes is associated with cardiac arrhythmias?

a. chloride
b. phosphorus
c. potassium
d. sodium

A

C

124
Q

Blood pH is measured by the gain and loss of which of the following?

a. bicarbonate
b. carbon dioxide
c. hydrochloric acid
d. hydrogen

A

D

125
Q

Which of the following is a structure that filters foreign particles from lymphatic fluid?

a. thymus
b. nodes
c. tonsils
d. spleen

A

B

126
Q

Which part of the brain regulates heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure?

a. corpus callosum
b. basal ganglia
c. hypothalamus
d. medulla oblongata

A

D

127
Q

Which of the following substances is involved in the destruction of ingested pathogens?

a. lymphatic fluid
b. stomach acid
c. bicarbonate
d. lipase

A

B

128
Q

The release of histamine is associated with which of the following?

a. macrophages
b. t-cells
c. neutrophils
d. mast cells

A

D

129
Q

Which part of the nephron is closest to the collecting duct?

a. glomerulus
b. loop of henle
c. bowman’s capsule
d. distal convoluted tubule

A

D

130
Q

Which of the following is a result of stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system?

a. decreased blood flow to the skeletal muscles
b. increased cardiac output
c. decreased respiratory rate
d. increased urinary output

A

B

131
Q

Which of the following hormones is produced by the thyroid gland and is active in calcium metabolism?

a. aldosterone
b. calcitonin
c. thyroxine
d. parathyroid

A

B

132
Q

Which of the following cardiac valves prevents blood from returning to the left ventricle of the heart?

a. pulmonic
b. mitral
c. tricuspid
d. aortic

A

D

133
Q

Which of the following describes the event of ovulation?

a. The fallopian tube moves the ovum to the uterus.
b. the oocyte undergoes its first meiotic division
c. the graafian follicle releases an ovum
d. the corpus luteum produces progresterone

A

C

134
Q

Which of the following is a structure of the inner ear?

a. tympanic membrane
b. cochlea
c. stapes
d. auricle

A

B

135
Q

Which of the following occurs at the beginning of systole in a healthy heart?

a. the ventricles contract
b. the atria contract
c. the mitral valve opens
d. the tricuspid valve opens

A

A

136
Q

Which of the following tissues attaches muscle to bone?

a. fascia
b. tendon
c. ligament
d. bursa

A

B

137
Q

Which of the following structures, located at the end of the ear canal, vibrates when sound waves strike it?

a. acoustic meatus
b. cochlea
c. eustachian tube
d. tympanic membrane

A

D

138
Q

Peripheral vasodilation results in heat loss through which of the following processes?

a. conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. evaporation

A

C

139
Q

Which of the following may indicate a hypersecretion of thyroid hormones?

a. weight loss
b. bradycardia
c. cold intolerance
d. lethargy

A

Weight loss

140
Q

Which of the following is the function of angiotensin II in the regulation of blood pressure?

a. vasoconstriction
b. vasodilation
c. increased heart raet
d. decreased heart rate

A

A

141
Q

Which of the following structures of the gastrointestinal system absorbs iron and bile salts?

a. Ileum
b. Jejunum
c. colon
d. duodenum

A

A

142
Q

Which of the following mediates the body’s response to stress?

a. cortisol
b. calcitonin
c. thyroid stimulating hormone
d. growth hormone

A

A

143
Q

Which of the following is a result of the process of meiosis?

a. the fertilization of an ovum takes place.
b. a somatic cell divides
c. sperm and ova are produced
d. cell death occurs

A

C

144
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of the protective meningeal layers of the brain from inside to outside?

a. dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid
b. arachnoid, dura mater, pia mater
c. pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater
d. arachnoid, pia mater, dura mater

A

C

145
Q

Which of the following structures of the respiratory system is the site of gas exchange?

a. pleurae
b. alveoli
c. trachea
d. bronchioles

A

B

146
Q

Which of the following valves prevents backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium of the heart?

a. aortic
b. tricuspid
c. pulmonic
d. mitral

A

B

147
Q

Which of the following is the average length of the female urethra?

a. 1 to 1.5 inches
b. 2 to 2.5 inches
c. 5 to 5.5 inches
d. 6 to 6.5 inches

A

A

148
Q

Which of the following is a site of sperm maturation in the male reproductive system?

a. seminal vesicles
b. vas deferens
c. epididymis
d. prostate gland

A

C

149
Q

Which of the following bones is a component of the appendicular skeleton?

a. Xyphoid process
b. symphysis pubis
c. sacrum
d. sternum

A

B

150
Q

A normal adult bladder has the capacity to hold up to how many mL of urine before involuntary micturition is likely to occur?

a. 200
b. 400
c. 600
d. 800

A

C

151
Q

Which of the following is associated with wound healing by primary intention?

a. minimal scar tissue
b. prolonged healing time
c. formation of granulation tissue
d. contraction of wound edges

A

A

152
Q

Which of the following is a role of platelets in hemostasis?

a. formation of plugs
b. promotion of vasodilation
c. conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
d. activation of calcium

A

A

153
Q

Which of the following is the effect of aldosterone secretion on electrolyte levels?

a. calcium levels are decreased
b. sodium levels are increased
c. potassium levels are increased
d. magnesium levels are decreased

A

B

154
Q

In the process of wound healing, which of the following plays a role in clearing a wound of cellular debris?

a. mast cells
b. fibroblasts
c. platelets
d. neutrophils

A

D

155
Q

Which of the following is the iron-containing component of a red blood cell?

a. fibrinogen
b. albumin
c. hemoglobin
d. erythropoietin

A

C

156
Q

Straightening the elbow by lowering the hand affects which of the following muscles?

a. biceps brachii
B. triceps brachii
c. brachialis
d. brachioradialis

A

B

157
Q

Which of the following hormones or enzymes is involved in fluid balance and is produced by the kidneys?

a. renin
b. aldosterone
c. antidiuretic hormone
d. angiotensin I

A

A

158
Q

Which of the following types of cells is primarily responsible for the destruction of old cells and invasive micro-organisms?

a. basophils
b. eosiniphils
c. B-cells
d. macrophages

A

D

159
Q

Which of the following parts of the central nervous system is responsible for the control of involuntary respirations?

a. medulla oblongata
b. cerebellum
c. parietal lobe
d. hypothalamus

A

A

160
Q

In a normally functioning cardiovascular system, where does the heartbeat originate?

a. Atrioventricular node
b. bundle of His
c. purkinje fibers
d. sinoatrial node

A

D

161
Q

Which of the following is a function of the gallbladder?

a. production of bile
b. absorption of bile
c. storage of bile
d. elimination of bile

A

C

162
Q

Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?

a. growth hormone
b. luteinizing hormone
c. adrenocorticotropic hormone
d. antidiuretic hormone

A

D

163
Q

Which of the following is the measurement of the percentage of red blood cells in whole blood?

a. hematocrit
b. hemoglobin
c. mean corpuscular volume
d. reticulocyte count

A

A

164
Q

Which of the following ions is most abundant in extracellular fluid?

a. calcium
b. chloride
c. sodium
d. potassium

A

C

165
Q

Where are nutrients absorbed when transported into the bloodstream?

a. stomach
b. gallbladder
c. pancreas
d. small intestine

A

D

166
Q

Which of the following tissues connects bones to joints?

a. fascia
b. muscle
c. cartilage
d. ligaments

A

D

167
Q

Which of the following structures comes after the ascending colon?

a. Ileocecal valve
b. transverse colon
c. rectum
d. appendix

A

B

168
Q

Which of the following is a function of the liver?

a. lipid metabolism
b. electrolyte reabsorption
c. erythropoietin production
d. insulin synthesis

A

A

169
Q

Which of the following structures prevents food from being aspirated into the lungs?

a. larynx
b. epiglottis
c. esophagus
d. nasopharynx

A

B

170
Q

Which of the following functions is associated with the dermal layer of the skin?

a. collagen formation
b. vitamin D activation
c. melanin production
d. storage of extra calories

A

A

171
Q

Which of the following is a wax-like substance secreted by glands in the external ear canal?

a. mucus
b. cerumen
c. sweat
d. sebum

A

B

172
Q

Production of which of the following is a function of the prostate gland?

a. testosterone
b. fluid to lubricate the head of the penis
c. substance to enhance sperm motility
d. gonadotropin releasing hormone

A

C

173
Q

Which of the following is the function of surfactant in the alveoli of the lungs?

a. uptake of oxygen in the alveoli
b. prevention of alveoli collapse
c. removal of carbon dioxide in the alveoli
d. increase alveoli surface tension

A

B

174
Q

Which of the following blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood to the right atrium of the heart?

a. anterior and posterior coronary arteries
b. brachial and cephalic veins
c. left and right carotid arteries
d. superior and inferior vena cavae

A

D

175
Q

An individual with which of the following blood types can receives only blood of that same type?

a. Type O
b. Type AB
C. Type A
d. Type B

A

A

176
Q

Which of the following structures is located between the descending colon and the rectum?

a. sigmoid colon
b. the cecum
c. the jejunum
d. ascending colon

A

A

177
Q

What is the formula for the perimeter of a shape with a radius given?

A

P=pi(r)+d

178
Q

If an object has a mass of 34 kilograms (kg), which of the following is the mass in milligrams (mg)?

a. 0.000034 mg
b. 0.034 mg
c. 34,000 mg
d. 34,000,000 mg

A

D

179
Q

Which of the following statements represents a valid conclusion from the data (a line graph showing the correlation between age and height in boys of average height 0-24 months old) presented in the graph above?

a. The height of any 18-month-old boy in this city can be estimated from this model
b. The height of any 16-month-old in this city can be estimated from this model.
c. The age of any child in this city less than 36 inches tall can be estimated from this model.
d. The age of a boy in any city who is 31 inches tall can be estimated from this model.

A

A

180
Q

How many mL are in one L?

A

1000

181
Q

An atom of lithium has 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons. What is this atom’s mass number?

A

7

182
Q

How is an atom’s mass number calculated?

A

It is the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in its nucleus.

183
Q

A blood pressure reading of 120/70 mm Hg refers to arterial pressures recorded during which of the following events?

a. atrial contraction/ventricular contraction
b. Atrial contraction/ventricular relaxation
c. ventricular contraction/ventricular relaxation
d. ventricular relaxation/atrial relaxation

A

C

184
Q

Which of the following is the gland on a hair follicle that supplies the hair shaft and the skin with oily secretions?

a. eccrine gland
b. apocrine gland
c. sebaceous gland
d. ceruminous gland

A

C

185
Q

Which of the following cells rid the body of dust and other particles that enter the lungs?

a. alveoli
b. macrophages
c. sertoli cells
d. erythrocytes

A

B

186
Q

Which of the following statements best explains why RNA inside a cell is almost never found as a single-stranded molecule?

a. alleles for genes are found in pairs, so their RNA also pair up
b. RNA normally exists with its complementary strand in a double helix.
c. RNA and DNA form hybrid pairs for all transcribing parts of the chromosome
d. short stretches of complementary sequences can cause RNA to fold back on itself.

A

D

187
Q

Which of the following actions are controlled by the autonomic nervous system? (select all that apply.)

a. heart rate increases while running
b. hand is withdrawn quickly after touching a hot surface
c. stomach muscles contract to aid digestion
d. salivary glands release secretions in response to the presence of food
e. blood vessels constrict to reduce the flow of blood to the skin

A

A, C, D, E

188
Q

A student is assigned a task of measuring the weight of one tennis ball using a scale for which the zero adjustment on the balance is not working. The student is given three balls and the can in which they were packaged. Which of the followings strategies will provide the best determination of the correct weight?

a. Weigh each ball separately and average the results
b. Weigh the empty can, weigh the can with a ball in it, and compute the difference between the two
c. Weigh the three balls together and divide by three.
d. weigh each ball separately, adjusting the beam weights from below first, and then from above. Then, average the results.

A

B

189
Q

Which of the following will likely happen in the case of blocked and injured ureters?

a. frequent urination
b. No urine formation
c. reduced flow of urine to the bladder
d. bladder stretches due to an increase in urine volume

A

C

190
Q

If an intensive property is independent of the amount of the material being measured, which of the following is an example of an intensive property?

a. mass
b. density
c. volume
d. length

A

B

191
Q

What is an intensive property?

A

Properties which do not depend on the amount of property for measurement

192
Q

Which of the following conditions might help a species to escape extinction in the face of changing environmental conditions, such as habitat destruction?

a. extreme specialization
b. small populations
c. narrow ecological niches
d. generalized distribution

A

D

193
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the organisms in which photosynthesis and oxidative respiration occur?

a. photosynthesis occurs only in plants, whereas oxidative respiration occurs in all life forms.
b. Photosynthesis occurs in many prokaryotes and some eukaryotes, whereas oxidative respiration occurs only in aerobic eukaryotes.
c. Photosynthesis occurs only in plants, whereas oxidative respiration occurs only in animals.
d. Photosynthesis occurs in many prokaryotes and eukaryotes, whereas oxidative respiration occurs only in aerobic prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

A

D

194
Q

Which component of a phospholipid gives it nonpolar characteristics?

a. glycerol molecule
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. phosphate group
d. carbon-hydrogen chains

A

D

195
Q

Which of the following describes the role of regulatory genes?

a. Regulatory genes control the expression of structural genes
b. regulatory genes catalyze chemical reactions
c. regulatory genes transfer information stored in DNA into proteins
d. regulatory genes code for membrane proteins

A
196
Q

Which of the following describes the role of regulatory genes?

a. regulatory genes control the expression of structural genes
b. regulatory genes catalyze chemical reactions
c. Regulatory genes transfer information stored in DNA into proteins
d. Regulatory genes code for membrane proteins

A

A

197
Q

Which of the following chemical bonds is found within a molecule of ammonia, NH3, given that N is a highly electronegative element and has a valence of 5?

a. nonpolar covalent bonds
b. polar covalent bonds
c. ionic bonds
d. hydrogen bonds

A

B

198
Q

Which of the following hormones is produced in the ovaries?

a. estrogen
b. vasopressin
c. prolactin
d. oxytocin

A

a.

199
Q

Which of the following pathogens would be unaffected by treatment with an antibiotic that inhibits ribosome function?

a. viruses
b. bacteria
c. protists
d. fungi

A

A

200
Q

Acid reflux is a condition in which the gastric juices of the stomach flow backward into the esophagus. Which of the following causes acid reflux?

a. the cardiac sphincter does not close tightly.
b. Peristalsis occurs slowly in the esophagus.
c. excess gastric juices are produced by the stomach
d. the pH value for gastric juices is increased

A

A

201
Q

Which of the following is a type of specialized antigen-processing cell that activates T-cells of the immune system?

a. plasma cells
b. thrombocytes
c. dendritic cells
d. eosinophils

A

C

202
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between genes and chromosomes?

a. genes are DNA sequences found on chromosomes
b. chromosomes contain genes composed of amino acids
c. chromosomes are DNA sequences found on genes
d. Genes contain chromosomes composed of amino acids.

A

A

203
Q

Which of the following is the value of the prefix milli- in the metric system?

a. 10^-6
b. 1000
c. 10^-3
d. 0.1

A
204
Q

“Dark matter” is a form of energy proposed to explain the repulsive forces between matter in the universe. It has never been observed directly. Which of the following is the best rationale for many scientists’ contention that it exists?

a. it serves as a working hypothesis to explain real observations in the universe
b. A basic scientific principle is to consider everything possible until proven otherwise
c. Since light energy exists in the universe, dark energy must also exist.
d. Light energy from distant stars is very faint because it is absorbed by dark energy.

A

A

205
Q

In human blood types, A and B alleles are codominant and O is recessive. Which of the following combinations of the parents’ genotypes has the highest probability of producing a child with blood type O?

a. both parents are heterozygous and have blood type AB
b. One parent is heterozygous for blood type A and the other is heterozygous for blood type B
c. One parent is homozygous for blood type A and the other is homozygous for blood type O.
d. One parent has blood type AB and dthe other is homozygous for blood type O.

A

B

206
Q

Which of the following options lists the correct order of events in a signaling pathway in a feedback loop used to maintain homeostasis?

a. receptor > effector > integration > Stimulus > Response
b. Receptor > stimulus > integration > response > effector
c. Stimulus > effector > integration > receptor > response
d. Stimulus > receptor > integration > effector > response

A

D

207
Q

Which of the following is true of enzyme-catalyzed reactions?

a. The enzyme is not consumed in the reaction
b. The substrate is produced in the active state
c. The substrate remains unchanged during the reaction
d. The enzyme raises the activation energy of the reaction

A

A

208
Q

Which of the following hormones is released in response to a drop in blood pressure?

a. melatonin
b. somatostatin
c. oxytocin
d. aldosterone

A

D

209
Q

A student observes that when the mercury rises and falls in a thermometer, the particles do not stick to the sides of the glass tube. However, when honey is poured from one glass container to another, the particles stick to the walls of the container. Which of the following explains the observation?

a. Mercury is more cohesive and less adhesive than honey
b. mercury is less cohesive and more adhesive than honey
c. Mercury is less cohesive and less adhesive than honey
d. Mercury is more cohesive and more adhesive than honey

A

A

210
Q

A student wants to study how friction affects the distance traveled by a marble on a surface. a marble was pushed on four different surfaces with the same force and the time taken for it to travel 1 meter was noted. What experimental term is used to define the condition of pushing the marble with same force on all four surfaces?

a. data collection
b. dependent variable
c. independent variable
d. experimental constant

A

D

211
Q

Which of the following describes the concentration of hydrogen ions in water with a pH of 7?

a. 10^7 M
b. 7 M
c. 0.7 M
d. 10^-7 M

A

D

212
Q

What is the formula for pH?

A

-log(H^+)

213
Q

When calculating population growth, which of the following equations is appropriate?

a. (emigrants - immigrants) + (birth - deaths)
b. (immigrants - emigrants) + (births - deaths)
c. (Births + deaths) - (emigrants + immigrants)
d. (births - deaths) - (immigrants + emigrants)

A

B

214
Q

Which of the following anatomical planes divides the body into superior and inferior portions?

a. sagittal
b. median
c. frontal
d. transverse

A

D

215
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes systemic circulation?

a. supplies oxygen-poor blood form the right ventricle to the lungs
b. Receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the right atrium
c. Supplies oxygen-rich blood from the left ventricle to the body
d. Receives oxygen-poor blood from the body to the left atrium

A

C

216
Q

Which of the following cell types confers waterproofing on the outer layers of skin?

a. melanocytes
b. keratinocytes
c. merkel cells
d. langerhans cells

A

B

217
Q

A student placed 30 mL NaOH solution in a beaker and added 5 mL of HCI to it. Which of the following would happen when the two substances are mixed?

a. hydrogen gas is released
b. Carbon dioxide gas is produced
c. the pH of the resultant solution is reduced
d. The concentration of OH- ions is increased

A

C

218
Q

In chickens, feather color can be white (WW), black (BB), or speckled (BW). A cross between a black-feathered chicken and white-feathered chicken produces speckled-feathered chickens. Which of the following is the outcome of a cross between two F1 offspring?

a. 1 BB: 1 BW: 1 WW
b. 1 BB: 2 BW: 1 WW
c. 2 BB: 1 BW: 1 WW
d. 1 BB: 1 BW: 2 WW

A

B

219
Q

Which of the following procedures is an appropriate negative control for testing the hypothesis that air contains bread mold spores?

a. seal slices of bread in a container to minimize air contact
b. Place slices of bread in a refrigerated environment
c. Add ingredients to the bread recipe that will slow mold growth
d. Expose a different mold-supporting medium to air

A

A

220
Q

Which of the following properties of water explains its characterization as the universal solvent?

a. kinetic energy of liquid water molecules
b. high specific heat
c. polarity of water molecuels
d. high surface tension

A

C

221
Q

A chlorine atom has 17 electrons and 17 protons. It forms an ionic bond with sodium and gains a negative charge. Which of the following is true for the chloride ion?

a. It is an ion with 18 electrons and 17 protons
b. It is an anion with 18 electrons and 18 protons
c. it is a cation with 17 electrons and 18 protons
d. It is a cation with 18 electrons and 18 protons.

A

A

222
Q

Which of the following is the circular muscle that regulates the opening and closing of a body aperture?

a. fossa
b. fascia
c. sphincter
d. valve

A

C

223
Q

Which of the following bones is the large, fused bone of the upper jaw that contains teeth?

a. mandible
b. maxilla
c. vomer
d. clavicle

A

B

224
Q

Which of these terms specifically means the intake and expulsion of air using the lungs?

a. inspiration
b. aeration
c. ventilation
d. oxygenation

A

C

225
Q

Which of the following is the main function of bile juices?

a. Breaking down proteins
b. emulsifying fats
c. detoxifying poisons
d. digesting carbohydrates

A

B

226
Q

Which of the following is the final step in the writing process?

a. preparing an outlikne
b. writing a draft
c. citing sources
d. writing a revision

A

D

227
Q

Which of the following best describes the stream of consciousness technique used to develop ideas?

a. Record all the ideas related to a topic as they come to one’s mind
b. think and prepare a map of a main idea and related ideas and facts
c. Identify primary and secondary sources of research and organize them
d. Write down related facts and information whenever and wherever one finds them

A

A