Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CMA NCCT Test Prep > Practice Test Questions > Flashcards

Practice Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The medical assistant should attempt to answer all incoming telephone calls:

a. within 30 seconds.
b. by the third ring.
c. by the second ring.
d. within 10 seconds.

A

by the third ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Changing the voice pitch to avoid a monotonous tone that implies boredom is called:

a. volume.
b. inflection.
c. diction.
d. pronunciation.

A

inflection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Active immunity is best obtained by:

a. maternal antibodies acquired by the baby from breast milk.
b. producing antibodies as a result of having a disease.
c. maternal antibodies passed from the mother to the baby in the womb.
d. immunization with antibodies.

A

producing antibodies as a result of having a disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The growth hormone is produced by the:

a. thyroid.
b. thymus.
c. pituitary.
d. hypothalamus.

A

pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the appointment book?

a. It should be treated as a legal document
b. Cancellations are deleted from the book if they reschedule
c. No-shows should be erased since they did not arrive for their appointment
d. The daily pages are shredded at the end of the day

A

It should be treated as a legal document

Due to occasional patient dismissals from medical practices, all records of patient appointments become evidence in medicolegal cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE of appointment scheduling guidelines?

a. Walk-in patients are given priority ahead of patients who have been waiting
b. New patients should be scheduled for an abbreviated first visit just to get to know the physician
c. New patients are usually allotted more time than established patients
d. Regular patients are allotted more time than new patients

A

New patients are usually allotted more time than established patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The standard margin used for a business letter is

A

1 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In a professional letter, the author’s keyed signature is typed:

A

four lines below the complimentary closing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tthe horizontal line on the ECG paper represents:

A

time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

You would immediately report to the physician all the following EXCEPT:

a. premature atrial contractions (PAC)
b. ventricular tachycardia (V Tach)
c. bigeminy
d. ventricular fibrillation (V Fib)

A

premature atrial contractions (PAC)

Remember - PAC gets a pass!
V Tach, V Fib, and Bigeminy are all considered life threatening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A picture of a heart with a lightning bolt in the center is a symbol for a(n):

A

AED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the type of shock caused by severe allergic reaction?

A

anaphylactic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Funds placed in a banking account are called a(n):

A

deposit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A list of procedural charges developed from fees charged by most of the physicians in the same region or geographic area is referred to as:

a. coordination of benefits.
b. explanation of benefits.
c. utilization review.
d. usual, customary, and reasonable.

A

usual, customary, and reasonable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The defense mechanism used when a person transfers negative feelings to something or someone unrelated to a negative situation is:

a. projection.
b. denial.
c. introjection.
d. displacement.

A

displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When communicating with pediatric patients:

a. Avoid allowing children to touch any medical equipment.
b. Use slang to help the child understand.
c. Always state the truth.
d. Position yourself at a higher level than the child.

A

Always state the truth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The microscopic examination of urine includes the:

a. presence of crystals.
b. pH of the urine.
c. glucose concentration in the urine.
d. specific gravity of the urine.

A

presence of crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Plasma is described as:

a. clear yellow liquid portion of blood.
b. 1% of whole blood that contains the white blood cells.
c. red part of the blood after centrifugation.
d. bottom layer of blood after centrifugation.

A

clear yellow liquid portion of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Failure to act when duty indicates, resulting in or causing harm, is referred to as:

a. nonfeasance.
b. standard of care.
c. misfeasance.
d. malfeasance.

A

nonfeasance

Nonfeasance is failure to act when there was a duty to act, resulting in or causing harm. Malfeasance is performing an improper act that causes harm, and misfeasance is an improper performance of an act that causes harm. The standard of care is the quality or measure of care that is recognized as acceptable by usage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Sexual harassment is addressed in:

a. the Healthcare Portability and Accountability Act.
b. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.
c. the Civil Rights Act of 1965.
d. the Americans with Disabilities Act.

A

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act protects employees from sexual harassment and hostile work environment. The office of the EEOC has created guidelines on sexual harassment and the liability for the employer in regard to this.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The largest section in the CPT codes is:

a. E&M.
b. Surgery.
c. Radiology.
d. Medicine.

A

Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The primary coding manual for procedures and services performed by doctors in medical offices is commonly called:

a. HCPCS.
b. DRG.
c. ICD.
d. CPT.

A

CPT (Current Procedural Terminology)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When a patient has a condition that is not provided for or covered under his or her health insurance benefits, it is called a(n):

a. exclusion.
b. deduction.
c. waiting period.
d. review.

A

exclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the correct sequence for filing using reverse chronologic order?

A

When filing in reverse chronologic order, dates from present will be in front of previous year dates. For example, office visit entries from June of 2008 would be in front of visits from December 2006.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A preexisting condition is one that:

A

the patient had prior to obtaining health insurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The medical record material is the property of:

a. patient’s family.
b. health-care provider.
c. insurance company.
d. patient.

A

the health care provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The term laparoscopy means:

A

inspection of the abdominal organs through a lighted scope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The suffix -ad means:

A

toward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The term arteriostenosis means:

A

narrowing of an artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Treating all blood and bodily fluids as contaminated is a standard enforced by:

A

OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The infection ringworm is caused by what type of pathogen:

A

fungus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding setting up a sterile tray?

a. Maintain a border of at least one-half inch between nonsterile and sterile areas.
b. Do not pass contaminated or nonsterile items over a sterile field.
c. Pour liquids such as sterile saline into a sterile waterproof container on the sterile field.
d. Do not lean or reach over sterile field.

A

Maintain a border of at least one-half inch between nonsterile and sterile areas.

A border from 1 inch inside the sterile border; anything outside the 1-inch border is considered nonsterile. Do not lean or reach over sterile field.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are adhesive materials used in minor lacerations or as a follow-up to sutures to hold wound edges together?

a. Staples
b. Montgomery straps
c. Steri-Strips
d. Ligatures

A

Steri-Strips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Vitamin B-12 is used to treat which of the following:

a. osteoporosis.
b. night blindness.
c. clotting disorders.
d. scurvy.
e. pernicious anemia.

A

pernicious anemia

Pernicious anemia is a disorder in which the body cannot absorb vitamin B12. The body uses vitamin B12 to help produce red blood cells (RBC). Patients with pernicious anemia are treated with injections of vitamin B12.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The primary function of vitamin B12 is to promote what body process?

A

red blood cell (RBC) formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which type of patient education training materials would benefit a blind patient?

A

Braille materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When a diabetic patient does not want to learn to give himself insulin injections, it is best to:

a. Refer the patient to a diabetic support group or a social worker who specializes in diabetes.
b. Ask the patient to return to the office only when ready to comply with the instruction.
c. Recommend that the patient see an endocrinologist.
d. Train a member of the patient’s family to do it.
e. Notify the patient’s physician for further assistance.

A

Notify the patient’s physician for further assistance.

If a diabetic patient is refusing to comply with insulin injections, it is important to notify the physician who will consider options. Another person close to the patient may be identified to learn to give the injections or another option selected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Providing patient education on immunizations is an example of:

a. preventing illness.
b. restoring health.
c. conducting a treatment.
d. coping with impaired function.
e. maintaining and promoting health.

A

preventing illness (via preventative education)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Written patient education materials must:

a. Be explained to the patient.
b. Come from a credible source.
c. Include medical terms.
d. Be available in Braille.
e. Contain an area for the patient to write questions.

A

come from a credible source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The measurement of height and weight is referred to as:

a. auscultation.
b. inspection.
c. palpation.
d. mensuration.

A

mensuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Hypertension is now considered anything over:

a. 139/89.
b. 140/90.
c. 130/88.
d. 129/84.

A

139/89

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The medical word that means to take away pain or to be free from pain is:

a. algesia.
b. angina.
c. analgesia.
d. anesthesia.

A

analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The common route for tuberculosis skin testing is:

a. intramuscular.
b. intradermal.
c. intravenous.
d. subcutaneous.
e. oral.

A

intradermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What type of therapy would be used for a newborn baby with jaundice?

a. Thermotherapy
b. Hydrotherapy
c. Ultrasound heat therapy
d. Ultraviolet lamps

A

Ultraviolet lamps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hydrotherapy includes the use of:

a. infrared.
b. exercises.
c. diathermy.
d. whirlpool.

A

whirlpool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The term “costal” refers to the:

a. skin.
b. wrist.
c. head.
d. ribs.

A

ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The mucous membrane that lines the uterus is called the:

a. endometrium.
b. peritoneum.
c. periosteum.
d. epithelium.

A

endometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The medical term for the upper jaw bone is the:

a. hyoid.
b. maxilla.
c. mandible.
d. ethmoid.

A

maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The term “nephrolysis” means:

a. fixation of the renal pelvis.
b. destruction of kidney tissue.
c. surgical repair of the kidneys.
d. incision into the kidneys.

A

destruction of kidney tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The prefix con- means:

a. bad.
b. condition.
c. outside.
d. with.

A

with

Remember: a pair of cons work together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Authorization is usually not needed to give information to a(n):

a. attorney.
b. spouse.
c. custodial parent of a minor.
d. Patient’s insurance company.

A

custodial parent of a minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When a patient telephones the office with an emergency situation, the first step is to:

a. Access the patient’s medical record.
b. Instruct caller to hang up and activate EMS.
c. Ask the patient if he or she is taking any medications.
d. Alert the physician.

A

Alert the physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Oxygenated blood is usually carried by:

a. atria.
b. venules.
c. arteries.
d. veins.

A

arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The lobe of the brain that contains the area that interprets sound is the:

a. frontal.
b. temporal.
c. parietal.
d. occipital.

A

temporal

Remember: temporal is similar to timpani which creates a sound, so temporal = sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When making an initial appointment over the telephone, for a new patient, it is important to obtain the:

a. Patient’s date of birth.
b. name of the patient’s insurance plan.
c. Patient’s place of employment.
d. amount of co-payment due from the patient.

A

Name of the patient’s insurance plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The filing system used as a reminder of things to do by a certain date or time is referred to as a/an:

a. appointment diary.
b. appointment file.
c. recall file.
d. tickler file.

A

tickler file

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which of these represents the correct spelling of the term?

a. Ophtalmology
b. Ophtholmology
c. Ophthalmology
d. Opthalmology

A

Ophthalmology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The vertical line on the ECG paper represents:

a. time.
b. small blocks.
c. large blocks.
d. voltage.

A

voltage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A cardiac stress test requires a(n):

a. 12-lead ECG.
b. echocardiogram.
c. treadmill.
d. cardiac angiogram.

A

treadmill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The type of shock resulting from loss of blood is:

a. hypovolemic.
b. traumatic.
c. septic.
d. anaphylactic.

A

hypovolemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A percentage of each employee’s income paid by the employer for an unemployment fund is referred to as:

a. Employers’ Compensation Fund.
b. FUTA.
c. FICA.
d. Social Security.

A

FUTA (Federal Unemployment Tax Act)Federal

Unemployment Tax Act (FUTA) is a percentage of the employee’s income paid by the employer into an unemployment fund.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The listing of charges for a medical practice is called the:

a. fee schedule.
b. UCR.
c. claim form.
d. RVU.

A

fee schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When communicating with a sight-impaired patient, it is important to:

a. Raise your voice to assure the patient hears you.
b. Use open body language.
c. Transport the patient in a wheelchair to avoid an accident.
d. Tell the patient what you are about to do and what it involves.

A

Tell the patient what you are about to do and what it involves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

If a patient does not speak English, you should try to communicate by:

a. only communicating with the patient if accompanied by someone who speaks fluent English.
b. using gestures to demonstrate information.
c. raising your voice to increase understanding.
d. shouting at the patient.

A

using gestures to demonstrate information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The blood test used to test kidney function is:

a. complete blood count.
b. human chorionic gonadotropin.
c. sedimentation rate.
d. blood urea nitrogen.

A

blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Advance directives include a:

a. advance payment for a procedure.
b. notarized will.
c. living memorial.
d. living will.

A

living will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The Americans with Disabilities Act prohibits discrimination against people reasonable accommodations:

a. in pay.
b. for age.
c. in employment.
d. for race.

A

in employment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A person who has received care from the physician or another physician of the same specialty in the same group practice within 3 years is a(n):

a. minor patient.
b. new patient.
c. established patient.
d. recalled patient.

A

established patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

ICD-9 coding that identifies health-care encounters for reasons other than illness is called:

a. E codes.
b. fifth digits.
c. V codes.
d. modifiers.

A

V codes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The amount of money paid by an individual for a health benefits policy is the:

a. premium.
b. coinsurance.
c. co-payment.
d. deductible.

A

premium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The assignment of benefits means that the:

a. Patient will pay a lower co-payment.
b. Provider will accept the insurance remittance as full payment.
c. Provider will receive the full fee for service.
d. Patient will not be covered for certain services provided.

A

Provider will accept the insurance remittance as full payment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Proper patient charting requires following the “C’s” of charting. One of these “C” features is that the charting must be:

a. computerized.
b. complex.
c. clear.
d. closed.

A

clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which of the following is not an appropriate procedure to insure proper maintenance of medical records and to help avoid legal issues?

a. Sending letters to patients to notify of withdrawal of care
b. Delay in filing test results
c. Documenting any broken or missed appointments
d. Notation of patient’s noncompliance with the treatment plan

A

delay in filing test results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The term “intravascular” means:

a. inside a cell.
b. within a vessel.
c. outside the artery.
d. inside a valve.

A

within a vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The medical term for fainting is:

a. anaphylaxis.
b. sepsis.
c. shock.
d. syncope.

A

syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The medical term meaning inflammation of the inside lining of the heart is:

a. intracardial.
b. intracardiosis.
c. endocarditis.
d. endopathy.

A

endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The bacteria normally found in the intestinal tract but can cause a urinary tract infection if introduced through contamination is:

a. Bacillus anthracis.
b. Treponema pallidum.
c. Clostridium tetani.
d. Escherichia coli.

A

Escherichia coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which of the following would NOT be performed when doing a surgical handwash?

a. Apply hand lotion.
b. Remove jewelry.
c. Dry with sterile towel.
d. Use cuticle stick on nails.

A

apply hand lotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The first step in setting up a sterile field is to:

a. Fill a sterile syringe with local anesthetic agent.
b. Pour solutions that will be used during the procedure.
c. Cleanse the appropriate patient body area.
d. Wash your hands.

A

wash your hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Suture scissors are used to:

a. Cut suture material.
b. Make an incision.
c. Remove jagged edges from a laceration site.
d. Cut tissues.

A

cut suture material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of carbohydrates?

a. Foods with sugar and starch do not have any carbohydrates.
b. Carbohydrates are optional and not necessary in the recommended daily diet.
c. Carbohydrates are either complete or incomplete.
d. Carbohydrates produce 4 calories per gram.
e. Carbohydrates produce 9 calories per gram.

A

Carbohydrates produce 4 calories per gram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Trace minerals include:

a. sodium.
b. zinc.
c. potassium.
d. calcium.

A

zinc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

When the medical assistant is trying to reinforce verbal instructions for a patient, it is recommended to also:

a. Reassure the patient using constant therapeutic touch.
b. Ask the patient to call you in a couple of days to see if there are any questions.
c. Have the front office staff explain medical procedures.
d. Provide the patient with written instructions.
e. Explain the directions in the form of pronounced body language.

A

Provide the patient with written instructions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The affective domain of learning involves:

a. values.
b. mental and physical abilities.
c. knowledge.
d. comprehension.
e. sensory skills.

A

values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

A method to reevaluate the effectiveness of a patient education plan is by:

a. documenting in the medical record.
b. providing a list of resources.
c. sending the patient a questionnaire.
d. showing a DVD.
e. conducting a follow-up telephone call.

A

conducting a follow-up telephone call

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The pulse point located on the wrist is the:

a. dorsalis pedis.
b. popliteal.
c. radial.
d. femoral.

A

radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The average adult respiration rate is:

a. 8 to 12 per minute.
b. 10 to 20 per minute.
c. 12 to 20 per minute.
d. 16 to 24 per minute.

A

12 to 20 per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

A common example of an antidiarrheal is:

a. Coumadin.
b. Compazine.
c. Lomotil.
d. Tegretol.

A

Lomotil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which of the following is good practice when using a transfer belt?

a. The belt is safely used for all patients who have abdominal, back, and rib conditions.
b. The belt is buckled over the patient’s clothes around the waist at the midabdominal area.
c. The belt should not be used to assist in lifting a patient.
d. The belt is buckled over the patient’s clothes around the hip area.

A

The belt is buckled over the patient’s clothes around the waist at the midabdominal area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The stomach is located between the:

a. esophagus and gall bladder.
b. esophagus and duodenum.
c. larynx and gall bladder.
d. trachea and pharynx.

A

esophagus and duodenum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The term “plantar” refers to the:

a. back of the knee.
b. sole of the foot.
c. palm of the hand.
d. kneecap.

A

sole of the foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The term “meningitis” means:

a. swelling of the brain and spinal cord.
b. pain in the meninges and spinal cord.
c. destruction of the tissue covering the spinal cord.
d. inflammation of the membranes covering the brain.

A

inflammation of the membranes covering the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The medical term meaning disease of the nerves is:

a. neuropathy.
b. neurogenesis.
c. nephrolysis.
d. nephropathy.

A

neuropathy

94
Q

A mobile computer with a camera, microphone, and touch screen is a/an:

a. digital video unit.
b. facsimile.
c. electronic tablet.
d. word processor.

A

electronic tablet

95
Q

When managing multiple incoming calls, all the following are appropriate except:

a. automatically placing the second caller on hold.
b. obtaining permission of the first caller to be placed on hold.
c. attempting to respond to callers within 30 seconds.
d. providing options if the hold will be longer.

A

automatically placing the second caller on hold

96
Q

The snail-shaped tube that contains the receptors for hearing is the:

a. malleus.
b. cochlea.
c. incus.
d. stapes.

A

cochlea

97
Q

Active immunity is best obtained by:

a. maternal antibodies passed from the mother to the baby in the womb.
b. maternal antibodies acquired by the baby from breast milk.
c. immunization with antibodies.
d. producing antibodies as a result of having a disease.

A

producing antibodies as a result of having a disease

98
Q

The abbreviation “S/R” refers to:

A

suture removal

99
Q

Time-specific scheduling is used when:

a. Several procedures are scheduled at the same time.
b. There is a need to limit the time allotted to each patient.
c. Appointments are scheduled based on the physician’s availability.
d. A patient is given an appointment based on the length of time needed and available time.

A

A patient is given an appointment based on the length of time needed and available time.

100
Q

The mail service used to send the majority of medical office mail is:

a. Priority Mail.
b. Second-Class Mail.
c. Express Mail.
d. First-Class Mail.

A

First-Class Mail

101
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the date on a business letter?

a. The date is not necessary on a business letter.
b. The date includes the month and year only.
c. It is proper to abbreviate the date to save space.
d. The date is placed two lines below the letterhead.

A

The date is placed two lines below the letterhead.

102
Q

The patient asks the medical assistant if his ECG is normal. If the ECG is normal, what is the correct response from the medical assistant?

a. I don’t know.
b. Yes.
c. I only perform the test; the doctor must interpret it.
d. From what I can tell it is normal, but the doctor will confirm it.

A

I only perform the test; the doctor must interpret it

103
Q

A cardiac stress test requires a(n):

a. treadmill.
b. 12-lead ECG.
c. cardiac angiogram.
d. echocardiogram.

A

treadmill

104
Q

Another term for a partial-thickness burn is:

a. second degree.
b. full thickness.
c. superficial.
d. third degree.

A

second degree

105
Q

Another term for a first-degree burn is:

a. third degree.
b. second degree.
c. superficial.
d. first degree.

A

superficial

106
Q

The W-4 form states the:

a. amount of money withheld from the employee’s paycheck.
b. employee’s income and deductions for the total year.
c. number of exemptions an employee wishes to claim for tax purposes.
d. employee’s net income taxes.

A

number of exemptions an employee wishes to claim for tax purposes.

107
Q

A percentage of each employee’s income paid by the employer for an unemployment fund is referred to as:

a. FICA.
b. Employers’ Compensation Fund.
c. FUTA.
d. Social Security.

A

FUTA

Federal Unemployment Tax Act (FUTA) is a percentage of the employee’s income paid by the employer into an unemployment fund.

108
Q

What is the proper procedure to handle an unidentified caller who insists on speaking with the physician?

a. Put the caller on hold until he or she hangs up.
b. Hang up.
c. Transfer the call immediately to the physician.
d. Tell the caller that the physician is with a patient and you need a name and a number so the call can be returned.

A

Tell the caller that the physician is with a patient and you need a name and a number so the call can be returned.

If you answer a call from an individual who would like to speak with the physician, you should try to obtain their name and the reason for the call. If the patient is insistent on speaking with the physician, let the patient know that he is in with a patient and as soon as available you will give him or her the message, then ask for their full name and a number that the physician can reach him or her back at.

109
Q

When communicating with pediatric patients:

a. Avoid allowing children to touch any medical equipment.
b. Use slang to help the child understand.
c. Always state the truth.
d. Position yourself at a higher level than the child.

A

Always tell the truth

Trust is important, and one should never intentionally mislead or lie to a person of any age. If a child is lied to about a procedure not hurting and then there is some pain or discomfort associated with the procedure, the child will not trust future comments about procedures not hurting.

110
Q

Which of these tests is specific to immunology?

a. Rh typing
b. HBV
c. HCG testing
d. BUN

A

Rh type

111
Q

The qualitative analysis refers to:

a. the type of pathogen present in a specimen.
b. the quality of the specimen.
c. a pathogens susceptibility to specific antibiotics.
d. the number of pathogens present.

A

the type of pathogen present in a specimen.

112
Q

The law requires a person working in health care to report to the proper authority a patient diagnosed with:

a. cancer.
b. pneumonia.
c. alcohol abuse.
d. tuberculosis.

A

tuberculosis

113
Q

Performance of an improper act, resulting in or causing harm, is referred to as:

a. malfeasance.
b. nonfeasance.
c. misfeasance.
d. standard of care.

A

malfeasance

114
Q

The universal health-care insurance claim form currently in use in the United States is called the:

a. HCFA 1500 form.
b. CMS 1500 form.
c. super bill.
d. HCPCS form.

A

CMS 1500 form

115
Q

The largest section in the CPT codes is:

a. Surgery.
b. Radiology.
c. Medicine.
d. E&M.

A

Surgery

116
Q

The EOB is a(n):

a. authorization for the insurance company to send insurance payments.
b. the person eligible to receive insurance benefits.
c. established dollar amount of actual costs of medical services.
d. claim summary indicating what services were covered.

A

claim summary indicating what services were covered.

117
Q

The second party in an insurance plan is the:

a. insurance company.
b. patient.
c. physician.
d. insured party.

A

physician

118
Q

Which of the following is not an appropriate procedure to insure proper maintenance of medical records and to help avoid legal issues?

a. Documenting any broken or missed appointments
b. Sending letters to patients to notify of withdrawal of care
c. Delay in filing test results
d. Notation of patient’s noncompliance with the treatment plan

A

Delay in filing test results

Proper maintenance of medical records is an important task for the medical assistant or administrative specialist and helps to avoid legal issues that may arise from improper management of medical records. A couple of tasks that will help ensure proper maintenance is to document any missed or rescheduled appointments in the patient’s medical record. Also, if a patient is to be discharged from care, a letter must be sent to them with a copy of this letter in the chart and always document any noncompliance of care within the patient’s medical record.

119
Q

A patient’s demographic information is part of the:

a. database using POMR charting.
b. assessment using SOAP documentation.
c. treatment plan portion of POMR charting.
d. progress notes.

A

database using POMR charting.

A patient’s demographic information is part of the patient’s database. With POMR, the patient’s problems are numbered and listed on a form which is placed in front of the chart for easy reference.

120
Q

The term “menostasis” means:

a. suppression of menses.
b. formation of menses.
c. abnormal decrease in menses.
d. relating to menses.

A

suppression of menses.

The word root men/o means menses; menstruation, and the suffix -stasis means to stop, control, or suppress.

121
Q

The term “subcutaneous” means:

a. through the skin layers.
b. above the skin layers.
c. beneath or below the skin.
d. between the skin.

A

beneath or below the skin.

The prefix sub- means beneath or below; the word root cutane/o means skin, and the suffix -ous means pertaining to.

122
Q

The term “lipogenesis” means:

a. removal of fat cells.
b. suctioning fat from the body.
c. destruction of fat cells.
d. producing or forming fat.

A

producing or forming fat.

The word root lip/o means fat, and the suffix -genesis means producing or forming.

123
Q

“Anaerobic” is a term used to describe bacteria that:

a. cannot live without oxygen.
b. cannot be treated with antibiotics.
c. lives without the presence of oxygen.
d. is killed with the use of antiseptics.

A

lives without the presence of oxygen.

An anaerobe is a microorganism that can live and grow without oxygen: “a” meaning without or absence, “aerobic” meaning air = without air.

124
Q

Example of asepsis in the reception area are all EXCEPT:

a. allowing children to share toys.
b. offering a coughing patient a mask.
c. having PPE available.
d. posting flyers about flu prevention.

A

allowing children to share toys.

125
Q

When setting up a sterile tray, which of these statements is true?

a. Bandages used following the procedure are sterile.
b. Sterile solutions are not poured into the basin on the sterile tray.
c. A 1-inch border around the sterile field is considered contaminated.
d. Handwashing is not required.

A

A 1-inch border around the sterile field is considered contaminated.

126
Q

Which of the following items is allowed on the surgical field?

a. Sterile needle holder
b. Tube gauze
c. Bottle of Betadine®
d. Bandage scissors

A

Sterile needle holder

127
Q

Vitamin C is also knows as:

a. riboflavin.
b. cyanocobalamin.
c. thiamin.
d. ascorbic acid.

A

ascorbic acid.

128
Q

Common food allergens are:

a. peanuts and chocolate.
b. shellfish and beef.
c. eggs and gluten.
d. eggs and shellfish.

A

eggs and shellfish.

129
Q

All of the following are purposes of patient education except:

a. Conduct treatment.
b. Maintain and promote health.
c. Restore health.
d. Cope with impaired function.
e. Prevent illness.

A

Conduct treatment.

130
Q

When a diabetic patient does not want to learn to give himself insulin injections, it is best to:

a. Notify the patient’s physician for further assistance.
b. Train a member of the patient’s family to do it.
c. Refer the patient to a diabetic support group or a social worker who specializes in diabetes.
d. Ask the patient to return to the office only when ready to comply with the instruction.
e. Recommend that the patient see an endocrinologist.

A

Notify the patient’s physician for further assistance.

131
Q

When teaching flu prevention, the best source of information is the:

a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
b. American Lung Association.
c. National Advisory Committee on Immunizations.
d. American Academy of Family Physicians.
e. National Dairy Council.

A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

132
Q

A method to evaluate the patient’s understanding of his or her educational plan is:

a. feedback.
b. documentation in the medical record.
c. physician review of the plan.
d. Ask a relative.

A

feedback

133
Q

Radiology procedures are used to:

a. Provide physiatry.
b. Heal fractures.
c. Treat cancer.
d. Allow medical assistants to broaden their scope of practice.

A

treat cancer

Some radiology procedures are used to treat cancer; radiation oncology is a specialized area of imaging.

134
Q

Hypertension is now considered anything over:

a. 140/90.
b. 129/84.
c. 139/89.
d. 130/88.

A

139/89

New guidelines published by the National Institute of Health states that any blood pressure reading above 139/89 is considered hypertension.

135
Q

The drug type that is used to control seizures is an:

a. antiemetic.
b. anticonvulsant.
c. anticoagulant.
d. antihypertensive.

A

anticonvulsant

136
Q

A common example of an antiemetic is:

a. Benadryl.
b. Compazine.
c. Lomotil.
d. Tegretol.

A

Compazine

137
Q

Splints and casts are used to:

a. Passively exercise muscles.
b. Immobilize a bone or joint.
c. Take away pain.
d. Apply pressure on a muscle.

A

Immobilize a bone or joint.

138
Q

The type of exercise that contracts opposing muscles without the muscles shortening is called:

a. isometric.
b. resistant.
c. passive.
d. ergonomic.

A

isometric

Isometrics are done in static positions; the joint and muscle either worked against an immovable force or are held in static position while opposed by resistance without shortening the muscle. This is a type of active exercise.

139
Q

The term “cephalic” refers to the:

a. head.
b. ribs.
c. skin.
d. wrist.

A

head

The word root cephal/o means head, and the suffix -ic means pertaining to.

140
Q

The term “popliteal” refers to the:

a. kneecap.
b. lower back.
c. back of the knee.
d. palm of the hand.

A

back of the knee

141
Q

Which of these describes the correct flow of urine through the urinary tract?

a. From the ureter to the bladder to the kidney
b. From the ureter to the bladder to the urethra
c. From the urethra to the bladder to the ureter
d. From the kidney to the urethra to the bladder

A

From the ureter to the bladder to the urethra

142
Q

The term “transthorax” means:

a. across the chest.
b. through the chest.
c. inside the chest.
d. below the chest.

A

across the chest

The prefix trans- means across or through; the suffix -thorax means chest; pleural cavity.

143
Q

The term “nephropexy” means:

a. draining of the kidney.
b. puncture into the kidney.
c. creating a new opening into the kidney.
d. fixation of the kidney.

A

fixation of the kidney.

The word root nephr/o means kidney, and the suffix -pexy means surgical fixation.

144
Q

Which of the following is a phone call that usually requires the party to speak directly to the physician?
Select one:
a. A pharmacist verifying a patient’s name and information written on a prescription form
b. A nurse calling from the local hospital emergency department regarding patient admission orders
c. A patient requesting an appointment complaining of vomiting and diarrhea
d. A laboratory technician relating normal blood test results

A

A nurse calling from the local hospital emergency department regarding patient admission orders

The medical assistant will be responsible for handling incoming calls to the medical office. Some of the calls that the MA would be responsible for handling are a pharmacist verifying information written on a prescription form, a patient complaining of vomiting and diarrhea, a laboratory relating normal blood test results, and verifying insurance coverage. If there is an emergency call, the MA should direct this call to the physician.

145
Q 
The main memory bank of a computer located on the motherboard is the:
Select one:
a. LAN.
b. CPU.
c. RAM.
d. URL.
A

RAM

146
Q 
All of the following are muscle traits except:
Select one:
a. elasticity.
b. excitability.
c. contractility.
d. viscosity.
A

viscosity

147
Q 
The body system that includes the pituitary and thyroid glands is the:
Select one:
a. integumentary system.
b. excretory system.
c. nervous system
d. endocrine system.
A

endocrine system

148
Q 
When two or more patients are scheduled for an appointment at the same time, it is known as:
Select one:
a. double booking.
b. matrix scheduling.
c. time-specific scheduling.
d. wave scheduling.
A

double booking

149
Q

The medical practice appointment book:
Select one:
a. does not need a matrix designed.
b. is discarded when it is filled.
c. is only applicable for practices that do open-book scheduling.
d. is a document that needs to conform to the HIPAA privacy standards.

A

is a document that needs to conform to the HIPAA privacy standards.

150
Q 
Which of these represents an example of a properly keyed signature?
Select one:
a. Dr. Martin Garcia, MD
b. James Jones, MD
c. Doctor Tang, MD
d. Dr. Brown, MD
A

James Jones, MD

151
Q

The reference initials on the bottom of a document are the initials of the person:
Select one:
a. who processed the letter in uppercase letters.
b. who is the signator in uppercase letters.
c. who is the signator in lowercase letters.
d. receiving the letter.

A

who is the signator in uppercase letters.

152
Q

If a patient asks if there is any discomfort from an ECG procedure, what should the medical assistant tell the patient?
Select one:
a. The ECG procedure does not hurt and does not send electricity through you.
b. The electrodes are cold and may feel too tight, but we need to get a good connection.
c. Don’t worry. We do lots of these examinations every day.
d. If you feel any shocks or electrical tingling, please let me know.

A

The ECG procedure does not hurt and does not send electricity through you.

153
Q 
When performing an ECG, leads aVR, aVL, and aVF are the:
Select one:
a. standard leads.
b. bipolar leads.
c. augmented voltage leads.
d. limb leads.
A

augmented voltage leads.

154
Q 
An open wound caused by forceful tearing away of skin from bony structure by trauma, sometimes leaving a skin flap, is a(n):
Select one:
a. Incorrect.
b. contusion.
c. puncture.
d. laceration.
e. avulsion.
A

avulsion

155
Q 
Purposefully altering a diagnosis on a medical claim is an example of:
Select one:
a. accounts receivable.
b. liability.
c. fraud.
d. accounts payable.
A

fraud

Why: Fraud is an act of deception that is used to take advantage of another person or entity. Improperly altering a diagnosis on a medical claim would be an example of fraud.

156
Q 
A list of procedural charges developed from fees charged by most of the physicians in the same region or geographic area is referred to as:
Select one:
a. utilization review.
b. coordination of benefits.
c. usual, customary, and reasonable.
d. explanation of benefits.
A

usual, customary, and reasonable.

157
Q 
The stage of development characterized by the importance of self-image is the:
Select one:
a. preschool-age child.
b. adolescent.
c. adult.
d. school-age child.
A

adolescent

158
Q

When communicating with a sight-impaired patient, all the following techniques may be used except:
Select one:
a. Speak in a louder tone.
b. Explain what you are going to do and what you are doing.
c. Alert patient before touching him or her.
d. Describe surroundings and locations of structures.

A

Speak in a louder tone

Unless hearing is also impaired, it is not necessary to speak louder to a sight-impaired person.

159
Q 
The normal range for an adult blood glucose level is:
Select one:
a. 110 to 170 mg/dL.
b. 110 to 170 mg/mL.
c. 70 to 110 mg/mL.
d. 70 to 110 mg/dL
A

70 to 110 mg/dL

160
Q 
In a healthy adult patient, a normal WBC count would be:
Select one:
a. 2,000 cells/mm3.
b. 1,000 cells/mm3.
c. 20,000 cells/mm3.
d. 7,000 cells/mm3.
A

7,000 cells/mm3

161
Q 
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 deals with:
Select one:
a. sexual harassment.
b. equal employment.
c. equal pay.
d. racial discrimination.
A

sexual harassment.

162
Q 
An incident report contains all the following EXCEPT the injured party's:
Select one:
a. address.
b. immediate treatment.
c. insurance carrier.
d. name.
A

insurance carrier.

163
Q 
All of the following are examples of HCPCS Level II code charges except a(n):
Select one:
a. appendectomy.
b. ambulance transport.
c. durable medical equipment.
d. dental procedure.
A

appendectomy

164
Q 
The medical assistant or administrative specialist must have the patient give written authorization for reimbursement to the physician for billed charges. This is called:
Select one:
a. co-payment.
b. capitation.
c. assignment of benefits.
d. coordination of benefits.
A

assignment of benefits

Assignment of benefits is when the patient signs a written authorization to allow the physician to bill for charges as well as accept direct payment for those from the insurance provider.

165
Q 
An association that provides all health care to the insured person for a fixed fee is a(n):
Select one:
a. PPO.
b. RVU.
c. HMO.
d. CMS.
A

HMO

An HMO, health maintenance organization, is comprised of physicians who work under contract to provide services to the subscriber of the plan. Plans are set up on a contracted fee for service.

166
Q

When you remove paper clips from the papers and gather all chart items together before filing the chart, it is known as:

a. indexing.
b. destroying.
c. sorting.
d. conditioning.

A

conditioning

The process of conditioning or inspecting the medical records means removing all paper clips and rubber bands that do not need to be filed in the chart.

167
Q 
An alphabetic file is also referred to as a:
Select one:
a. manila file folder.
b. master file.
c. color-coded file.
d. numeric file.
A

master file.

A numeric file is a file that is filed by numbers; a color-coded file is one that is filed using numbers or letters that are on color-coded tabs. Manila folders describe the outside color of the files that hold the medical documents.

168
Q 
The medical term meaning referring to the sole or bottom of the foot is:
Select one:
a. plantar.
b. dorsal.
c. caudal.
d. palmar.
A

plantar

169
Q

The prefix dys- means:

A

painful; difficult

170
Q 
The Escherichia coli bacteria are normally found in the:
Select one:
a. throat.
b. lungs.
c. intestines.
d. nose.
A

intestines

171
Q 
When preparing a biopsy tray, the instrument not included is a:
Select one:
a. bandage scissors.
b. forceps.
c. needle holder.
d. scalpel.
A

bandage scissors

172
Q 
Tubular gauze would be best used to:
Select one:
a. Pack an orifice that is bleeding.
b. Apply pressure to a chest wound.
c. Bandage fingers and toes.
d. Cover a wound on the abdomen.
A

Bandage fingers and toes.

173
Q 
High levels of triglycerides in the diet may lead to:
Select one:
a. hypertension.
b. hyperthyroidism.
c. cardiovascular disease.
d. diabetes.
A

cardiovascular disease

174
Q

Which of the following is FALSE of the diabetic diet?
Select one:
a. A well-maintained diabetic diet will aid in preventing fluctuations in blood glucose levels.
b. Diabetic patients should not avoid eating regular meals.
c. Diabetics should not limit the intake of simple sugars.
d. The goal of the diabetic diet is to prevent abnormal fluctuations in insulin.
e. The caloric intake for a diabetic should be tailored for each patient.

A

Diabetics should not limit the intake of simple sugars.

175
Q 
The Joint Commission recommends that a patient educational plan be:
Select one:
a. exclusive.
b. a patient charge.
c. conducted only by a licensed person.
d. multidisciplinary.
e. performed outside the medical office.
A

multidisciplinary

The Joint Commission (TJC) recommends that patient educational plans be team oriented and multidisciplinary. It is important to incorporate all members of the team who are involved with patient’s health-care needs.

176
Q 
An effective educational tool to use with the patient would probably not include a/an:
Select one:
a. anatomical model.
b. DVD.
c. journal.
d. brochure.
e. medical dictionary.
A

medical dictionary.

177
Q 
When conducting patient education, HIPAA requirements must be upheld regarding:
Select one:
a. posters.
b. DVDs.
c. brochures.
d. emails.
e. CDs.
A

emails

178
Q

The hearing test that measures the patient’s response to sound is called:
Select one:
a. tuning fork.
b. tympanometry.
c. An otoscope is a lighted instrument used to examine the middle and inner ear canal.
d. otoscopy.
e. audiometry.

A

audiometry

179
Q

A growth chart reflects all the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. the length compared to the height.
b. the height compared to the weight.
c. the percentile compared with other children of the same age and sex.
d. the weight compared to the height.

A

the length compared to the height

180
Q 
The sublingual route for medication administration is:
Select one:
a. on the tongue.
b. on the skin.
c. under the tongue.
d. under the skin.
A

under the tongue

181
Q 
A common drug for hypertension is:
Select one:
a. Dilantin.
b. albuterol.
c. lisinopril.
d. Decadron.
A

lisinopril

182
Q 
The proper temperature for hot soaks should be:
Select one:
a. 60°F to 70°F.
b. 100°F to 105°F.
c. 85°F to 95°F.
d. 120°F to 125°F.
A

100°F to 105°F

183
Q

Resistance exercise is performed:
Select one:
a. by walking or jogging.
b. with counter pressure applied to the muscle to increase the effectiveness and to assess improvement.
c. to realign an affected area.
d. on the patient by another person or mechanical device.

A

with counter pressure applied to the muscle to increase the effectiveness and to assess improvement.

184
Q 
The thalamus and hypothalamus are located in the:
Select one:
a. medulla oblongata.
b. diencephalon.
c. mediastinum.
d. diaphragm.
A

diencephalon

The diencephalon is the second largest portion of the brain and is made up of the hypothalamus and thalamus.

185
Q 
The cell that forms bone tissue is a/an:
Select one:
a. osteoclast.
b. osteoblast.
c. osteosarcoma.
d. osteochondroma.
A

osteoblast

186
Q 
Which of the following is the innermost layer of the uterus?
Select one:
a. Myometrium
b. Endometrium
c. Perineum
d. Epimetrium
A

Endometrium

187
Q 
The medical term meaning pertaining to the neck and face is:
Select one:
a. cervicolacrimal.
b. blepharocervical.
c. fasciobuccal.
d. cervicofacial.
A

cervicofacial

188
Q

The term “arthrocentesis” means: Why: The word root arthr/o means joint, and the suffix -centesis means surgical puncture to remove fluid.
Select one:
a. discharge from a joint.
b. creation of a new opening into a joint.
c. surgical reconstruction of a joint.
d. puncture into a joint to aspirate fluid.

A

puncture into a joint to aspirate fluid.

189
Q 
A blood pressure reading of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is considered to be normal for an adult.
Select one:
a. 110/90
b. 120/80
c. 140/90
d. 130/80
A

120/80

190
Q 
Pulse rate is a measurement of the number of times the heart beats in a(n):
Select one:
a. minute.
b. hour.
c. day.
d. second.
A

minute

191
Q 
A pulse with an irregular rhythm is known as a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
a. thready pulse
b. tachyrhythmia
c. dysrhythmia
d. unusual pulse
A

dysrhythmia

192
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the physiological factors affecting blood pressure?
Select one:
a. condition of the heart muscle
b. volume or amount of blood in the arteries
c. volume or amount of blood in the veins
d. peripheral resistance of the vessels

A

volume or amount of blood in the veins

193
Q 
The physician's hands are the primary tool used for the physical exam, but special instruments are also used to help with the exam and diagnosis and include all of the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. telescope.
b. otoscope.
c. sphygmomanometer.
d. tape measure.
A

telescope

194
Q 
A pulse rate above 100 BPM is known as:
Select one:
a. bradypnea.
b. tachypnea.
c. tachycardia.
d. bradycardia.
A

tachycardia

195
Q 
The objective section of a SOAP chart note includes all of the following except?
Select one:
a. fever
b. medication dosage
c. weight
d. blood work
A

medication dosage

196
Q 
Which of the following is NOT one of the standard positions used for a variety of medical and surgical examinations and procedures?
Select one:
a. lithotomy
b. dorsal recumbent
c. Trendelenburg
d. Turners
A

Turners

197
Q

The systolic is the top number of blood pressure and the heart is in a relaxation state.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

198
Q 
Which of the following is NOT correct about the acronym SOAP charting?
Select one:
a. A = Administration
b. O = Objective
c. P = Plan
d. S = Subjective
A

A = Administration

199
Q 
A childhood disease would be considered part of the patient's
Select one:
a. social history.
b. demographic information.
c. past medical history.
d. family history.
A

past medical history

200
Q 
Palpation is used to determine anything unusual EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. function.
b. size.
c. shape.
d. tenderness.
A

function

201
Q 
Which of the following is a characteristic that needs to be noted and recorded when pulse rate is observed?
Select one:
a. rhythm
b. all of the above
c. rate
d. volume
A

all of the above

202
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is used to examine the interior of the eye, especially the retina.
Select one:
a. otoscope
b. stethoscope
c. ophthalmoscope
d. sphygmomanometer
A

ophthalmoscope

203
Q 
During a female exam which position would be used when performing a PAP and pelvic examination?
Select one:
a. Lithotomy
b. Sim's
c. Supine
d. Knee-chest
A

Lithotomy

204
Q 
If a patient indicates he or she does not have any allergies, the medical assistant should record this information as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
a. PH
b. NA
c. CC
d. NKA
A

NKA

Also, NKDA for No Known Drug Allergies

205
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is used to detect sounds produced by blood pressure.
Select one:
a. mercury sphygmomanometer
b. aneroid sphygmomanometer
c. manometer
d. stethoscope
A

stethoscope

206
Q 
Which reading is considered Hypertension (HTN)?
Select one:
a. 140/90
b. 136/88
c. 139/76
d. 120/70
A

140/90

207
Q 
While interviewing a patient about his or her chief complaint, a medical assistant would use \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ questions.
Select one:
a. open-ended
b. leading
c. closed
d. rhetorical
A

open-ended

208
Q 
You will obtain a/an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ pulse from the chest.
Select one:
a. Pedis
b. Apical
c. Sternal
d. Carotid
A

apical

209
Q 
Which of the following is an incorrect respiration range for the indicated age group?
Select one:
a. 40 - 60 infant
b. 20 - 30 for 2 - 10 year old
c. 14 - 20 adult
d. 18 - 24 for 11 - 18 year old
A

40 - 60 infant

210
Q

SOAP notes are also called:

A

progress notes

211
Q 
Vital signs, weight change, fevers, blood work, and other measurable data are all examples of \_\_\_\_\_\_ information.
Select one:
a. Objective
b. Observation
c. Subjective
d. Source-oriented
A

Objective

212
Q

Blood pressure is actually caused by the action of the blood moving against the walls of the arteries.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

213
Q

Which medical record format makes it complicated to identify and locate past medical problems, treatments and results?
Select one:
a. POMR - problem-oriented medical record
b. SOMR - source-oriented medical record
c. SOAP - subjective, objective, assessment, plan

A

SOMR

214
Q 
A patient has come in complaining of SOB (shortness of breath), cough producing green sputum, and difficulty breathing. Which of the following positions would be most appropriate for this patient?
Select one:
a. Dorsal recumbent
b. Prone
c. Semi-Fowler's
d. Trendelenburg
A

Semi-Fowler’s

215
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the use of special tools to measure the body or specific parts.
Select one:
a. Mensuration
b. Menstruation
c. Methylation
d. Microcirculation
A

Mensuration

216
Q 
Which of the following is NOT considered one of the vital signs?
Select one:
a. BMI
b. pulse
c. temperature
d. respiration
A

BMI

217
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a normal temperature for the method used?
Select one:
a. 98.6 axillary
b. 99.6 rectal
c. 98.6 oral
d. 97.6 axillary
A

98.6 axillary

218
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the instrument used for measuring the pressure the blood exerts against the walls of the artery.
Select one:
a. otoscope
b. sphygmomanometer
c. ophthalmoscope
d. stethoscope
A

sphygmomanometer

219
Q 
In a healthy person, normally the heart beats around \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ times per minute.
Select one:
a. 110-140
 b. 60-100
c. 40-55
d. 150+
A

60-100

220
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is used to examine the eyes.
Select one:
a. ophthalmoscope
b. stethoscope
c. telescope
d. otoscope
A

ophthalmoscope

221
Q 
A patient’s distance vision is tested by using a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Chart.
Select one:
a. Jaeger
b. Snellen
c. Ishihara
A

Snellen

222
Q 
Which of the following is NOT one of the six commonly used methods of physical examination?
Select one:
a. inspection
b. auscultation
c. palpation
d. pronunciation
A

pronunciation

223
Q 
All of the following information would be found on a medical history form EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. past medical history.
b. present illness.
c. insurance information.
d. family history.
A

insurance information

224
Q

A blood pressure reading that indicates a temporary fall in blood pressure
that occurs when a patient moves rapidly from a lying to a standing position is known as ________ hypotension.
Select one:
a. postprandial
b. severe
c. orthostatic/postural
d. neurally mediated

A

orthostatic/postural

225
Q

A tympanic temperature is taken on the side of the forehead.
Select one:
True
False

A

False

Tympanic temperature is taken in the ear (think… tympanic membrane)

226
Q 
Which of the following is considered a normal/average blood pressure?
Select one:
a. 130/80
b. 100/80
c. 90/58
d. 120/80
A

120/80

227
Q 
Which of the following would not be included in the problem section of the medical record?
Select one:
a. Anemia
b. Increased thirst
c. Hypertension
d. Urinary tract infection
A

Increased thirst

228
Q 
A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is used to examine the ears.
Select one:
a. protoscope
b. stethoscope
c. ophthalmoscope
d. otoscope
A

otoscope

229
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is passively assessing the range of motion of a joint.
Select one:
a. Inspection
b. Manipulation
c. Mensuration
d. Auscultation
A

Manipulation

230
Q 
A patient’s near vision is tested by using a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Reading Card.
Select one:
a. Ishihara
b. Jaeger
c. Snellen
A

Jaeger

231
Q 
The physical examination may include all of the following except:
Select one:
a. percussion
b. EKG
c. laboratory tests
d. menstruation
A

menstruation

Menstruation refers to female bleeding as part of their monthly cycle.

MenSURation refers to measurements.

232
Q

The first time you hear the heartbeat is called the diastolic pressure
Select one:
True
False

A

False

The first heart sound is the systolic and the last is the diastolic

CMA NCCT Test Prep (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions