Practice Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The Standard tool used for command, control, response coordination, and overall management of complex incidents, planned events, or emergencies. This system permits
clear point of command and can be expanded or contracted with ease.
A. NIMS
B. ICS
C. Unified Command
D. Mactac
E. None of the above

A

B: ICS

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2
Q

In MACTAC, Compliant with the NIMS, a ____________ team is composed of ____ to ____ officers brought together as a tactical response team. The team is given a call sign based on a mission objective.
A. Force protection / 3 - 5
B. Containment / 4- 5
C. Assault / 3 – 5
D. Resource / 4 – 5

A

C: Assault / 3-5

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3
Q

Department members must give thoughtful consideration to their actions to avoid damaging the ________________ and __________________ the department has with the community.
A. Trust and Confidence
B. Liability and Reputation
C. Image and Transparency
D. Reputation and Trust
E. None of the above

A

D: Reputation and Trust

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4
Q

Under Suzanne’s Law entry for All Juveniles 17 years old or younger and missing persons 18 through 20 years old (even though legally considered adult) will also be immediately entered into NCIC within __________ hours of receiving the required minimum data elements.
A. 3 hours
B. 2 hours
C. 6 hours
D. By end of shift
E. None of the above

A

B: 2 hours

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5
Q

In a MACTAC the Area Sergeant will establish an incident command in order to establish 4 C’s.
A. Control, Compute, Continue, Communicate
B. Control, Communicate, Calculate, Cooperate
C. Contain, Control, Communicate, Coordinate
D. Control, Conceal, Comply, Coordinate
E. None of the above

A

C: Contain, Control, Communicate, Coordinate

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6
Q

A _________________ is the location from which primary logistics and administrative functions are coordinated and administered. The _________________ may be collocated with the Incident Command Post. There is only one ___________________ per incident, and it is designated by the incident name. The _________________ is established and managed by the Logistics Section.
A. Camp
B. Base
C. Staging area
D. Command post
E. None of the above

A

B: Base

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7
Q

Area(s) near a residence where the residents have a reasonable expectation of privacy.
Considerations in determining whether an area is _______________ and subject to the protections of the Fourth Amendment are: (1) proximity of the area to the home; (2) whether the area is included in an enclosure which surrounds a home; (3) nature of uses to which an area is put; (4) steps taken to protect the area from observation from passers-by. The legal protection associated with ______________ is always determined in favor of the property owner, not law enforcement?
A. Curtilage
B. Investigative detention
C. Motor vehicle
D. Protective sweep
E. None of the above

A

A: Curtilage

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8
Q

Under a STAR protocol, a minimum of _______ officers will respond to a call?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. None of the above

A

C: 3

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9
Q

The show-up should be done with a relative timeframe of __________ hours following the incident?
A. 6-12 hours
B. 1-3 hours
C. 5-10 hours
D. 3-9 hours
E. None of the above

A

B: 1-3 hours

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10
Q

In MACTAC _______________________ contacts to mitigate active shooter, hostage and/or siege scenarios in conjunction with responding tactical teams.
A. Convoy operations
B. Regional response
C. Situation reporting
D. Coordinated force-on-force
E. None of the above

A

D: Coordinated force - on - force

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11
Q

A team effort that allows agencies with jurisdictional responsibility, either geographical or functional, to participate in the management of an incident is a _____________________.
A. NIMS
B. ICS
C. Unified command
D. Incident command
E. None of the above

A

C: Unified Command

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12
Q

Prior to logging out for lunch, units will _________________ the area supervisor who will ensure sufficient manpower is available to cover the area during that time.
A. Email
B. AM
C. Contact
D. Not do anything
E. None of the above

A

C: Contact

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13
Q

In a STAR protocol call for service, The patrol supervisor will.
A. Advise patrol to slow momentum
B. Announce an action plan
C. Announce their acknowledgment and self-dispatch to the call
D. Contact the PR and obtain new current updates
E. All of the above

A

C: Announce their acknowledgment and self-dispatch to the call

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14
Q

In Preventing Harassment, discrimination and retaliation, _____________ occurs when an employer treats an individual less favorably than other similarly situated individuals because of their protected status.
A. Discrimination
B. Adverse party
C. Disparate treatment
D. Harassment
E. None of the above

A

C: Disparate Treatment

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15
Q

On-duty officers who witness an alleged crime are obligated to cooperate in the criminal investigation. As such, on-duty LVMPD members who are witnesses to alleged criminal acts are not entitled to a _______ hour notice. However, if the member requests a representative to be present before being interviewed as part of the criminal investigation, a representative will be permitted as long as the representative responds without delay.
A. 24
B. 48
C. 36
D. 72
E. None of the above

A

B: 48

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16
Q

A concentration of alcohol which indicates a ______ percent or above, at the time of BAC test, is per se impairment and may be grounds for discipline.
A. 06
B. 08
C. 02
D. 01
E. None of the above

A

C: .02

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17
Q

In Community policing and the SARA method, SARA is nationally recognized model developed to implement and facilitate the problem-solving process consisting of four steps: S_____, A________, R_________, and A__________.
A. Study, Articulate, Recognize, Adjust
B. Scanning, Analysis, Recognize, Act
C. Scanning, Arise, Response, Articulate
D. Scanning, Analysis, Response, Assessment
E. B, C and D

A

D: Scanning, Analysis, Response, Assessment

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18
Q

On a missing person’s report, the patrol supervisor will Ensure that an _______ is completed in P1 with the ______ number included for all NCIC entries.
A. FI, Scope
B. Property Report, Event
C. ICR, NIC
D. Contact card, telephone
E. None of the above

A

C: ICR, NIC

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19
Q

__________ will respond to any incident where a department member, in the course of their duties, is a victim of a significant violent crime or sustains substantial injury, to include in-custody death including any subject assigned to the Electronic Monitoring Program (EMP) either with an ankle monitor or on house arrest.
A. CIRT
B. Homicide
C. Patrol Investigations
D. FIT
E. A and B

A

D: FIT

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20
Q

First arriving officers will protect the inner and outer perimeter of the crime scene with ______________ crime scene tape.
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Orange
D. Green ​
E. None of the above

A

B: Yellow

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21
Q

The Show-Up witness instructions form will be completed on all show-up’s involving ___________________ regardless of identification outcome.
A. Child
B. Department member
C. Celebrity
D. Felony Crimes
E. All of the above

A

D: Felony Crimes

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22
Q

In Driving/Vehicle Procedures, after a vehicle collision, the supervisor will ensure that a check ride report (LVMPD 461) is completed on the involved member, and forward a copy to _____ and _____ for entry in the member’s UMLV training record.
A. VCB, EVOC
B. EVOC, RBT
C. VCB, AOST
D. EVOC, UMLV
E. A and C

A

C: VCB, AOST

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23
Q

In Pending calls for service, communications will dispatch on-shift units to routine calls (including report calls) up to _______ minutes before the conclusion of their shift.
A. 60
B. 75
C. 30
D. 45 ​
E. All of the above

A

D: 45

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24
Q

Under Body Worn Cameras, On Officer Involved Shootings (OIS) or deadly force situations, __________ personnel will be responsible for collecting and securing the BWC from all involved and witness officers upon arrival at the scene.
A. CIRT
B. FIT
C. IAB
D. Sergeant
E. A and B

A

B: FIT

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25
Q

In the protest and civil disobedience policy, during a protest If there is an immediate threat of harm to property, then only ____ order to disperse must be provided. The determination to give the order to disperse is the responsibility of the ___________________ upon consultation with the on-scene lieutenant. Isolated, nonviolent, unlawful activity by individuals should not automatically form the basis to declare an assembly unlawful; those acts should be addressed independently.
A. 1, IC
B. 3, Sergeant
C. 2, Watch Commander
D. 3, Sheriff designee
E. B and D

A

A: 1, IC

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26
Q

In foot pursuits, a supervisor will respond to a foot pursuit when the following occurs.
A. Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect
B. Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if it is occupied or not
C. Any reportable force
D. Any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory oversight
E. All of the above

A

E: All of the above

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27
Q

In foot pursuits, a supervisor will make reasonable efforts to ascertain information, direct responding resources, and ________________ of the foot pursuit?
A. Debrief
B. Approve
C. Review
D. Take command
E. None of the above

A

D: Take Command

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28
Q

During a bomb threat, location of explosive device or detonation, the supervisor will respond to and assume command of the scene. The field supervisor or senior officer in charge will remain at
the scene to __________ the ____________ supervisor of all relevant matters?
A. Search/ANSEC
B. Brief/ARMOR
C. Plan/SWAT
D. Dictate/CIRT
E. None of the above

A

B: Brief / ARMOR

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29
Q

During a bomb threat, location of explosive device or detonation, the supervisor will establish
_______________ in accordance with LVMPD Major Incident and all Hazard Plan and completes ____________ as required.
A. Perimeter/CIU
B. Communication/Brief
C. Probable Cause/Arrest Packet
D. ICS/ICS-AAR

A

D: ICS / ICS-AAR

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30
Q

During a bomb threat, location of explosive device or detonation, the supervisor will determine if an evacuation of the premises will be initiated. At least ___________ floors above and below the device should be evacuated in a high-rise building?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1 ​
E. E. All of the above

A

C: 2

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31
Q

In bomb threats-Located explosive devices-detonations, location of explosive device or detonation, the __________________ will be in the vicinity of the device determined suitable by ARMOR supervisor. Command of the primary location and all personnel assigned to it will rest solely with the ranking ARMOR member. The overall incident command will remain with the patrol IC. ​
A. Incident Command Post
B. Camp
C. Tactical Operations Center
D. Base
E. B and D

A

C: Tactical Operations Center

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32
Q

bomb threats-Located explosive devices-detonations, the field _______________ will be operated and staffed, and a staging area established as for any unusual occurrence, by LVMPD personnel, who will oversee all field operations in connection with the explosive. Investigative personnel will report to the field ___________ or staging area as directed, when arriving at the scene?
A. Command Post (CP)
B. Tactical Operations Center
C. Unified Command
D. Scene
E. None of the above

A

A: Command Post (CP)

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33
Q

____________ was developed so responders from different jurisdictions and disciplines can work together to react better to natural disasters and emergencies, including acts of terrorism. Benefits include a unified approach to incident management; standard command and management structures; and emphasis on preparedness, mutual aid, and resource management?
A. ICS
B. NIMS
C. Unified Command
D. Tactical Operations Center
E. None of the above

A

B: NIMS

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34
Q

During All Major Incident and All Hazard Plan, regardless of size or type of incident, the top three
(3) priorities for establishing incident objectives are;
A. Arrive, Control, Execute
B. Assemble, Communicate, Act
C. Life Safety, Incident Stabilization, Property Preservation
D. Control, Assemble, Finish
E. None of the above

A

C: Life Safety, Incident Stabilization, Property Preservation

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35
Q

In a hostage situation upon arrival, the sergeant will assess the situation and take command by prioritizing and communication objectives. Upon reinforcing the inner perimeter and establish a secondary perimeter based on the nature of the incident, assign Officer as an __________________ team (designating roles such as verbal communication, low lethality options, hands on, etc.…) to control the subject should the subject surrender, release the hostage, or exit the structure?
A. Immediate action
B. Strike
C. MACTAC
D. Negotiations
E. None of the above

A

A: Immediate Action Team

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36
Q

In Barricaded Subject Plan, the ________________ will be in command of police operations in a barricade situation?
A. Watch Commander
B. Senior Officer
C. Area Patrol Sergeant
D. Area PD Sergeant
E. A and D

A

C: Area Patrol Sergeant

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37
Q

In Barricaded Subject Plan, the patrol supervisor will upon arrival, assess the situation and take command by __________________ and ___________________ objectives?
A. Analyzing/Controlling
B. Assessing/Writing
C. Subtracting/Adding
D. Prioritizing/Communicating
E. None of the above

A

D: Prioritizing / Communicating

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38
Q

In Barricaded Subject Plan, after arriving and taking command of the objectivces, the Patrol supervisor will, ____________ the inner perimeter and establish a secondary perimeter based on the nature of the incident?
A. Find
B. Direct
C. Reinforce
D. Establish
E. None of the above

A

C: Reinforce

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39
Q

In a CBRNE incident the Sergeant will coordinate the evacuation of the area _______________ of the spillage or suspected spillage, with the ARMOR section or fire department, in accordance with the Table of Isolation and Evacuation distances found in the Hazardous Materials Guidebook.
A. Upwind
B. Downwind
C. Next
D. Nearby
E. None of the above

A

B: Downwind

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40
Q

In MACTAC, first arriving units will, if time allows, establish a _____________ officer assault team. The Assault Team will make entry to interrupt, interdict, or neutralize the threat.
A. 1-3
B. 4-5
C. 6
D. 2-4 ​
E. None of the above

A

B: 4-5

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41
Q

In determining the level of force used, the officer shall only use such force as is ______________ reasonable as opposed to ________________ reasonable under all of the circumstances?
A. Subjectively/Objectively
B. Physically/Verbally
C. Objectively/Subjectively
D. Obstructively/Forcibly
E. None of the above

A

C: Objectively / Subjectively

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42
Q

Under Duty to Intervene the reporting officer will document in writing no later than _______ days after the occurrence the Date, Time and Location of the incident, identify, if known, and description of the participants, description of the actions taken as a result of the observation?
A. 15
B. 7
C. 10
D. 3
E. None of the above

A

C: 10

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43
Q

The subject demonstrates the intent to harm the officer, others or themselves is ________________ level of resistance?
A. Compliant
B. Obstructive
C. Assaultive
D. Life Threatening
E. None of the above

A

C: Assaultive

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44
Q

What are the elements of deadly force?
A. Assaultive, Argumentative, Physical, Life threatening
B. Active, Non-compliant, Refusal, Armed
C. Ability, Opportunity, Imminent Jeopardy, Preclusion
D. Ability, Opportunity, Jeopardy, Preclusion

A

C: Ability, Opportunity, Imminent Jeopardy, Preclusion

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45
Q

A civilian employee who also uses force (empty hand, OC spray, or firearm) is required to complete a ________________ Report.
A. Officer’s
B. Contact
C. Memo
D. Use of Force
E. Both A and D

A

D: Use of Force

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46
Q

All reportable uses of force on a subject, regardless of visible injury, will be ____________ and downloaded into Blue Team?
A. Video Recorded
B. Audio Recorded
C. Photographed
D. Typed ​
E. None of the above

A

C. Photographed

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47
Q

The positioning of a police vehicle in the path of an occupied subject vehicle where contact between the vehicles is anticipated to be minimal, and the potential for injuries is low. The intent of ____________ is to prevent an avenue of escape by the safe placement of a price vehicle. _____________ is NOT a use of force?
A. Pinching
B. Parking
C. Ramming
D. Blocking
E. None of the above

A

D: Blocking

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48
Q

A police officer, in a standard sedan without a partition cage will place the arrestee in the ___________ passenger seat?
A. Front
B. Rear
C. Both A and B
D. Driver rear
E. None of the above

A

A: Front

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49
Q

A two-officer unit, in a standard sedan without a partition cage, the arrestee will be placed in the ______ passenger seat behind the ___________’s position and the second officer ________ the driver.
A. Rear / Passenger / Behind
B. Rear / Passenger / Next
C. Front / Driver / Next
D. Front / Passenger / Behind

A

A: Rear / Passenger/ Behind

50
Q

When a CIT officer has been dispatched to an event, the __________ CIT officer on the scene has the authority to direct police activities during the event unless relieved by a field supervisor?
A. Most qualified
B. Lethal
C. Senior
D. Low lethal (verbal command)
E. None of the above

A

C: Senior

51
Q

After any CIT critical incident, including; barricades, OIS, Hostage situation or any event that requires significant resources such as SWAT or Crisis Negotiators the Supervisor will ensure that an _____________, is completed by a patrol CIT officer by the end of shift?
A. Officer’s Report
B. Blue Team
C. ICR
D. After Action Report
E. Both A and C

A

D: After Action Report

52
Q

Persons who are clearly in an intoxicated condition and unable to exercise care for themselves only as last resort should these persons be detained for protective custody. Nevada law allows for a person to be placed in ___________________ if the person is in a public place unlawfully under the influence of a controlled substance or alcohol and is unable to exercise care for his health or safety or the health or safety of other persons?
A. Civil Protective Custody
B. Under Arrest
C. Legal 2000
D. Medical Release
E. None of the above

A

A: Civil Protective Custody

53
Q

In order to release property of an Arrestee to a third party, the Officer will request the presence of a supervisor for cash being released valuing over $____ or for non-cash property being released valuing $____, the supervisor will sign the property report prior to the arrestee being transported to the appropriate correctional facility?
A. $750/$1000
B. $2500/$5000
C. $100/$250
D. $500/$750
E. None of the above

A

C: $100 / $250

54
Q

Regarding Employee Domestic Disturbance or DUI being court-referred treatment program, the supervisor will address the employee’s behavior through _______________ and/or counseling, training, or care programs.
A. Contact report
B. Blue Team report
C. Discipline
D. Officer’s report
E. None of the above

A

C: Discipline

55
Q

In ICS the effective span of control on incidents may vary from _____ to ______, and a ratio of ______ supervisor to _________ reporting elements is recommended.
A. 4/5 - 1/10
B. 3/7 - 1/5
C. 3/7 - 1/7
D. 5/10 - 1/5
E. None of the above

A

B: 3/7 - 1/5

56
Q

A ________ is the location where resources may be kept to support incident operations if a Base is not accessible to all resources. They are temporary locations within the general incident area, which are equipped and staffed to provide food, water, sleeping areas, and sanitary services. Camps are designated by geographic location and number. Multiple camps may be used, but not all incidents will have this?
A. Base
B. Camp
C. Helipad
D. Staging areas
E. None of the above

A

B: Camp

57
Q

The ___________________ is the location from which the Incident Commander oversees all incident operations. There is generally only one of these for each incident or event, but it may change locations during the event. Every incident or event must have some form of an
________________. This location will be positioned outside of the present and potential hazard zone but close enough to the incident to maintain command. The location will be designated by the name of the incident?
A. Tactical operations center
B. Base
C. Incident Command Post
D. Camp ​
E. None of the above

A

C: Incident Command Post

58
Q

As a __________________ command in which responding agencies and/or jurisdictions with responsibility for the incident share incident management.
A. Single
B. Incident
C. Unified
D. Chain of
E. None of the above

A

C: Unified

59
Q

In the incident command organizational level, the incident commander’s support position is named a _________________?
A. Chief
B. Captain
C. Deputy
D. Assistant
E. None of the above

A

C: Deputy

60
Q

_____________ is a counter terrorism response concept that provides officers options based on tactical knowledge, skills and abilities to respond to extreme violent incidents, which requires immediate police intervention?
A. NIMS
B. Strike team
C. MACTAC
D. Immediate Action Team
E. None of the above

A

C: MACTAC

61
Q

A MACTAC squad is comprised of _________ or more strike teams and a squad leader?
A. One ​
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. None of the above

A

B: Two

62
Q

A MACTAC strike team consists of __________ to ________ commissioned Officers, which is similar to the current model employed by the U.S. Military Infantry Forces and are the base of the current LVMPD Active Shooter Team.
A. 1/3
B. 2/4
C. 3/5
D. 4/5 ​
E. None of the above

A

D: 4/5

63
Q

In MACTAC __________________ teams, obtain information about the activites and resources of a potential suspect (e.g., moving a two-officer team to a location where they can monitor security cameras or oversee an area of operation or incident command area.
A. Strike Team
B. Assault
C. Reconnaissance
D. Force Protection
E. None of the above

A

C: Reconnaissance

64
Q

In MACTAC __________________ teams, obtain information about the activites and resources of a potential suspect (e.g., moving a two-officer team to a location where they can monitor security cameras or oversee an area of operation or incident command area.
A. Strike Team
B. Assault
C. Reconnaissance
D. Force Protection
E. None of the above

A

C: Reconnaissance

65
Q

In MACTAC, A location established at the scene of the incident where injured victims will be taken prior to a formal triage, treatment, and transport (TTT) area by medical personnel. This is managed by the fire branch of the unified command.
A. Containment
B. Casualty Collection Point (CCP)
C. Force Protection
D. Cold Zone
E. Both B and D

A

E: Both B and D

66
Q

In MACTAC the first arriving officer will 4 A’s
A. Assess, Announce, Ask, Act
B. Act, Assemble, Announce, Act
C. Assess Announce, Assemble, Act
D. Arrive, Announce, Assess, Advise
E. None of the above

A

C: Assess, Announce, Assemble, Act

67
Q

Per LVPPA bargaining agreement under a medical emergency, required to absent themselves from work to personally care for a member of their immediate family in those medical emergencies which require the employee’s prompt attention. Emergency leave shall be taken as sick leave, except for a one-time provision of ______ hours of vacation leave that may be used per fiscal year?
A. 40
B. 20
C. 48
D. 30
E. None of the above

A

C: 48

68
Q

Per LVPPA bargaining agreement, Employees who discovered they are pregnant must notify health and safety within ______ months to make arrangement to sick, vacation or comp time during maternity leave?
A. 6
B. 3
C. 1
D. Immediately
E. None of the above

A

A: 6

69
Q

Per LVPPA bargaining agreement, Patrol division vacation bidding, leave slips for vacation may be submitted up to ________ months in advance of a vacation. Once approved by an employee’s supervisor, no other leave by another employee, even if senior, may supersede this approved leave.
A. 3
B. 1
C. 12
D. 6
E. None of the above

A

D: 6

70
Q

In a MACTAC squad there will be _________ squad leader with _________ or more team leaders to lead their respective teams?
A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 1/2
D. 2/2
E. None of the above

A

C: 1/2

71
Q

An exception to the search warrant requirement that must satisfy these conditions: (1) the officer must be in a position in which he has a legal right to be; (2) the items must be immediately recognizable as contraband or evidence; and (3) the seizure must be mad without substantial addition intrusion.
A. Open View
B. Plain Feel
C. Plain View
D. Search Warrant
E. None of the above

A

C: Plain View

72
Q

What a person knowingly exposes to the public is not protected by the fourth amendment no matter where the exposure takes place. It does not justify a warrantless seizure.
A. Open View
B. Plain Feel
C. Search Warrant
D. Plain View
E. None of the above

A

A: Open View

73
Q

U.S vs. Glass has some factors that courts use in deterring whether a police-citizen contact is a _________. These factors include A) Telling a person that he is a suspect for a particular type of crime, B) The number of Officers that are present, C) Moving the conversation from public to private place or whether the contact is in a public or private place, D) Whether the person is told that he
need not to talk to officers, E) Whether the person’s egress was blocked?
A. Probable Cause Stop
B. Seizure
C. Compliant
D. Safe
E. None of the above

A

B: Seizure

74
Q

Once a juvenile is adjudicated as an adult, they will be considered an adult for how long?
A. 2 years
B. 1 year
C. 6 months
D. Always
E. None of the above

A

D: Always

75
Q

In custody events with the call being held at the ____ minute mark the area sergeant will have an officer sent to the call; this will include the area sergeant requesting officers from a neighboring area command?
A. 60
B. 90
C. 120
D. 45 ​
E. None of the above

A

B: 90

76
Q

Sergeants will make calls to PRs to advise of delays or cancellations unless they are unavailable to do so due to being assigned to an event, check out for _____________, or when they do not have access to an MDT?
A. Administrative duties
B. Lunch
C. Coffee
D. Community Contact
E. None of the above

A

A: Administrative Duties

77
Q

The __________________ is based on reasonable suspicion or articulable facts that a person may have immediate access to a dangerous weapon and is a threat to the safety of the officer. It must be confined to the areas of the vehicle where the person has access, and the officer Amy only enter unlocked compartments or areas where a weapon may be present
A. Search warrant
B. Inventory
C. Vehicle frisk
D. Tow search
E. None of the above

A

C: Vehicle Frisk

78
Q

During a Barricaded subject incident, _____________ will make the request for SWAT and Crisis Negotiators?
A. Assisting Sergeant
B. Senior Officer
C. Communications
D. Scribe
E. None of the above

A

C: Communications

79
Q

Under SARA model the patrol officers, __________________ with the appropriate COP officers to analyze problems and to determine responses?
A. Emails
B. Coordinates
C. Reports
D. Dictate

A

B: Coordinates

80
Q

Department members are _____________ from disclosing information pertaining to any other members of the Department without permission of the affected member (to include “___________” in text or photos)?
A. Permitted, linking
B. Allowed, tagging
C. Prohibited, tagging
D. Prohibited, linking

A

C: Prohibited, Tagging

81
Q

In harassment even _____ (___) incident, if it is severe, may constitute harassment. If it is deemed not to rise to the level of harassment, it may still constitute a violation under agency policy?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 1

A

D: 1

82
Q

In receipt of complaints, complaints of harassment and discrimination will be documented on an SOC and forwarded to the __________ of the EDS. All other complaints against department employees will be documented on an SOC and forwarded directly to _________ for review and assignment for investigation. Not all citizen contacts will rise to the level of an SOC?
A. Director, Supervisor
B. Director, IAB
C. Supervisor, IAB
D. Sergeant, Lieutenant

A

B: Director, IAB

83
Q

Under Criminal violations by law enforcement employees, on-duty officers who _______________ an alleged crime are ____________ to cooperate in the criminal investigation. As such, on-duty LVMPD members who are witnesses to alleged criminal acts are not entitled to a 48-hour notice. However, if the member requests a representative to be present before being interviewed as part of the criminal investigation, a representative will be permitted as long as the representative responds without delay?
A. Report, protected
B. Participates, willing
C. Witness, obligated
D. Reviews, exempt

A

C: Witness, Obligated

84
Q

Under Firearms at the scene of a dead body call only the firearm used in an incident (suicide, accidental shooting, etc.) will be impounded as evidence by a ______________. All other firearms will be the responsibility of the _________________ or Public Administrator.
A. Patrol officer, patrol officer
B. CSA, deputy coroner investigator
C. Patrol officer, deputy coroner investigator
D. CSA, patrol investigations detective

A

B: CSA, deputy coroner investigator

85
Q

Any occurrence in which a driver of a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or another stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building, which results in bodily injury, a complaint of bodily injury, death of any person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of $750 or more is a ___________________?
A. Accident
B. Incident
C. Collision
D. Event

A

C: Collision

86
Q

Any occurrence in which a driver of a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or another stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building which does not result in bodily injury, complaint of bodily injury, death of any person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of less than $750. For LVMPD purposes, the terms “collision” and “incident” represent two separate categories of department vehicle collisions is a __________________?
A. Event
B. Accident
C. Collision
D. Incident

A

D: Incident

87
Q

Department Vehicle Incident Report LVMPD _______ or ______ will be investigated by traffic officer or traffic supervisor which criteria visible damage is apparently minor (e.g., small dents/ scratches/repairs/damage to undercarriage (rim, oil, pan, etc.)), no injuries or claimed injuries, Involves citizen vehicle or non-motorist, training collision with serious injury or death or major property damage, any use of PIT, blocking with contact, pinching, or ramming, email to chain of command of member up to assistant sheriff.
A. NHP 5, PDO
B. PD42 or PDO
C. 393 or NHP 5
D. PD42 or PDO

A

D: PD42 or PDO

88
Q

Under Field Force Extrications, when subjects refuse to release themselves from these protester devices, each individual protester will be advised they are ______________ and given an additional chance to comply before force is used to remove the devices.
A. Detained
B. Under Arrest
C. Warned
D. Free to leave

A

B: Under Arrest

89
Q

Under Field Force Extrications, the Incident Commander (IC) will Establish ICS, Arrive at Scene, determine if a criminal offense has occurred, and assess the need to have protesters immediately removed from the area, request the locked protesters to release themselves and disperse, if they refuse, issue the dispersal order, if the protesters still refuse to release and disperse, request the HSST through Dispatch. Direct officers to ____________ and ____________ a buffer zone, ensuring inbound foot and vehicle traffic is diverted. Designate an arrest team to take custodial arrest and complete booking of protesters once released from their devices by HSST (consider notification to DSD if multiple arrests).
A. Create / Maintain
B. Communicate / disrupt
C. Dispatch / Create
D. Move / Clear

A

A: Create / Maintain

90
Q

Compliant with National Incident Management System (NIMS), a ___________ is comprised of ___________ officers brought together as a tactical response team.
A. Support, 3-5
B. Security, 4-5
C. Assault, 4-5
D. Strike, 4-5

A

Strike, 4 - 5

91
Q

In Use of Force policy, projectile weapons may be used against persons who are holding a firearm if it can be utilized to de-escalate and intervene with a potential deadly force situation; however, the following conditions​must be met: a minimum of _____ (__) officers are present, _____ (__) officer acting as lethal coverage, Officers have considered the use of available cover/ concealment.
A. 3, 2
B. 1, 1
C. 2, 1
D. 1, 2

A

C: 2, 1

92
Q

For Investigative Responsibilities a supervisor will _________ the ________________, if deadly force was used or if there is substantial bodily injury, substantial bodily injury is an injury that creates a substantial risk of death, causes a serious permanent disfigurement, or results in a prolonged loss or impairment of the functioning of any body part. Examples may include skeletal fractures, brain bleeds, head/chest injuries which create a risk of death, or paralysis. Wounds not amounting to substantial bodily injury may include a broken wrist, cracked tooth, abrasions, or sprains.
A. Meet, officers
B. Analyze, report
C. Verify, use of force
D. Determine, use of force

A

C: Sergeant (Supervisory)

93
Q

In transporting prisoners, Officers will not be diverted to any other law enforcement activities while transporting unless the risk to third parties is both clear and grave, the risk to the arrestee(s) is minimal, and ____________ approval is given.
A. Prisoner’s
B. Watch Commander
C. Sergeant (Supervisory)
D. Dispatch

A

C: Sergeant (Supervisory)

94
Q

In Code 3 Driving (excluding pursuit driving), in Code 3 driving with emergency lights and siren, emergency response driving, will NOT exceed posted speed limit by more than _____ MPH. In regard to pursuit driving, the ____ MPH over posted speed limit maximum rule is removed.
A. 10
B. 25
C. 20
D. 30

A

C: 20

95
Q

In Inter-Jurisdictional pursuits initiated by outside agencies, Officers are prohibited from entering into pursuits that were initiated by another jurisdiction or law enforcement agency unless assigned to the pursuit by a supervisor. A supervisor will not assign officers to participate in such pursuits unless assistance is requested by initiating agency, and they provide sufficient information including the crime the suspects are believed to have committed so that a supervisor can determine if the pursuit is in compliance with the provisions of this policy. If insufficient information is received and/ or if the outside agency-initiated pursuit is not in compliance with this policy, the pursuit will not be joined by LVMPD police officers. However, a _______________ may authorize officer(s) to drive in a routine operation toward the area of the pursuit to be in a relatively good position to render back up and other aid once the pursuit vehicle is stopped.
A. Sergeant (supervisor)
B. Watch Commander
C. Area Lieutenant
D. PD Sergeant

A

A: Sergeant (supervisor)

96
Q

Officers assigned to “In the Box” squads that do not arrive at the Rally Point prior to the squad leaving, ___________ attempt to catch up or follow their squads, but will be reassigned to the “Stay at Home Squad”.
A. Will
B. May
C. Shall
D. Will not

A

D: Will Not

97
Q

Under Supervisor Guide to Employee Enhancement PEAP, a _________ Connection is described as taking the time and effort to get to know your employees as individual people, “Who they are and what they want to be.”
A. PEAP
B. Captain
C. Supervisory
D. Squad-mate

A

C: Supervisory

98
Q

Per LVPPA bargaining agreement, immediate family shall be defined as spouse, parent, sibling, child, grandchild, and grandparent (including legally adoptive relationships, current _____________ and step relations), or any of the previously specified relationships to the employee’s spouse, significant other, or domestic partner. This shall also apply to legal guardianship/dependent situations. For the purposes of section 10.3 utilization only, “significant other” shall be interpreted to apply when it involves a person the employee lives with who they consider a mate. The expansion of the immediate family definition to include a significant other or domestic partner is not extended to any other provisions in this contract.
A. Cousins
B. Nieces / Nephews
C. Uncles / Aunts
D. In-Laws (spouse’s parents)

A

D: In - Laws (spouse’s parents)

99
Q

Per LVPPA bargaining agreement, all maternity/paternity leaves must be taken as one continuous leave period (unless special circumstances clearly show a legitimate need for broken periods of leave without pay being the last to be designated. By the ____________ month of pregnancy, employees should make an appointment with the Health Section, to develop a tentative plan for leave usage.
A. 1st
B. 3rd
C. 6th
D. 9th

A

C: 6th

100
Q

Under EIIP Supervisor’s Manual, if no pattern or concern exists after face-to-face meeting, complete EIIP Alert in Blue Team and forward Alert to second line supervisor for approval within ____ calendar days of the chain receiving an EIIP era email notification.
A. 10
B. 7
C. 2
D. 14

A

D: 14

101
Q

Under EIIP Supervisor’s Manual, in a significant event report, when a supervisor becomes aware of an incident or situation which meets the criteria outlined above, the supervisor will: Ensure the employee is made aware of PEAP services, log in to Blue Team and choose “Significant Event Report” from the “__________” drop-down menu.
A. Significant event
B. Event number
C. Incident Type
D. Other

A

C: Incident Type

102
Q

Under Miranda Confessions, after a suspect has invoked his Miranda rights and re-engages officers/detectives advising he wants to speak with detectives and talk about the incident, the detectives will ________________ the suspect and conduct an interview/interrogation.
A. Speak with the suspect w/o Miranda as he revoked his rights to speak
B. Re-mirandize the suspect and complete the interview/interrogation
C. Not re-mirandize the suspect as he is speaking freely
D. Not speak to the suspect as he’s already invoked his rights

A

B: Re- mirandize the suspect and complete the interview/interrogation

103
Q

In Use of Force the use of low lethal shotgun under ____ yards will be ______________ force.
A. 5 / Intermediate
B. 5 / Deadly
C. 7 / Intermediate
D. 7 / Deadly

A

D: 7 / Deadly

104
Q

In use of force the use of 40mm under ____ yards will be __________________ force.
A. 5 / Intermediate
B. 5 / Deadly
C. 7 / Intermediate
D. 7 / Deadly

A

B: 5 / Deadly

105
Q

The utilization of a police vehicle to intentionally hit another vehicle is a ________________, and is considered to be _____________ Force, regardless of speed and to be used when all other means of apprehension have been considered and rejected as impractical and an imminent threat of death or substantial bodily injury exists. Officers will consider the safety of the public and subjects before utilizing this use of force which a report WILL be completed.
A. PIT / Intermediate
B. Blocking / Deadly
C. Ramming / Deadly
D. VCT / Intermediate

A

C: Ramming / Deadly

106
Q

In Protest and Civil Disobedience policy, when confronting a dangerous crowd or a situation where public safety has been compromised, the department will declare it an unlawful assembly and attempt to provide orders to disperse at least _____ times, giving demonstrators ample time to leave the area. Unless there is an immediate risk to public safety or significant property damage is occurring, reasonable time will be allowed for a crowd to comply with commands before enforcement action is taken.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

C: 3

107
Q

In Protest and Civil disobedience policy, if there is an immediate threat of physical harm or death to a person, then _______ order to disperse must be provided.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

A

A: 0

108
Q

In the Use of Force policy, under the investigative responsibilities of a sergeant on use of non-deadly force. All reportable uses of force on a subject, regardless of visible injury, will be photographed and downloaded into ________________.
A. Axon
B. OnBase
C. Blue Team
D. Officer’s report

A

C: Blue Team

109
Q

In Use of Force with a Vehicle, _______________ Any contact with damage will be reported as a traffic ________________ on a Vehicle Incident Report (LVMPD 42). A Use of Force Report is not required.
A. Ramming / Accident
B. Ramming / Incident
C. Blocking / Accident
D. Blocking / Incident

A

D: Blocking / Incident

110
Q

Code 3 driving is a police tactic used in responding to an emergency. Good judgment, communication, and coordination are important elements of a code 3 response that ensure officers are _____________ safety while ____________ risks.
A. Reports / Accidents
B. Arrests / Use of Force reports
C. Maximizing / Minimizing
D. Avoiding / having

A

C: Maximizing / Minimizing

111
Q

In ShotSpotter, responding to calls that involve firearms are inherently dangerous and require good ___________, sound tactics, and heightened safety awareness. The safety of both department members and citizens will be the primary consideration when determining the appropriate response to a ShotSpotter event.
A. Communication
B. Training
C. Judgement
D. Location

A

C: Judgement

112
Q

In ShotSpotter, responding officers will treat ShotSpotter incidents as “_______________________” and respond in a safe and strategic manner.
A. Report Calls
B. Crimes in Progress
C. Slowed and methodical
D. Suspect GOA calls

A

B: Crimes in Progress

113
Q

In ShotSpotter, Patrol supervisor will ________________________ to the call as a STAR de-escalation protocol. If unavailable to respond, will ensure communications requests a sergeant or lieutenant from another area command to respond.
A. Monitor the radio
B. Message Dispatch
C. Acknowledge and self-dispatch
D. Acknowledge and monitor

A

C: Acknowledge and self - dispatch

114
Q

In ShotSpotter, Patrol supervisor will ensure a __________ and an _____________ is completed for all ShotSpotter events in which a crime is confirmed to have been committed. Including all pertinent information and any recommendations for follow-up.
A. Patrol Brief / CIU
B. CIU / FI
C. FI / PD callout
D. CIU / ICR

A

D: CIU / ICR

115
Q

In Bomb Threats-located explosive devices, the patrol supervisor will respond to and assume command of the scene. The field supervisor or senior officer in charge will remain at the scene to brief the __________ supervisor of all relevant matters. Establish an _________________ in accordance with LVMPD and Completes __________ as required.
A. ARMOR / ICS / ICS-AAR
B. ARMOR / Barricade / CIU
C. Watch Commander / ICS / CIU
D. Watch Commander / Barricade / ICS-AAR

A

A: ARMOR / ICS / ICS-AAR

116
Q

In MACTAC, This team aims to isolate, contain, or neutralize the threat and create a warm zone.
A. Containment Team
B. Reconnaissance Team
C. Rescue Team
D. Assault Team

A

D: Assault Team

117
Q

In MACTAC, any area with dedicated law enforcement protecting a defined geographic area(s) that has been cleared and secured. To establish a _____________ zone, arriving officers and personnel clear and secure all perimeters. The command post, triage, treatment, and transport area (s) and staging area are examples of areas inside the ______ zone.
A. Warm
B. Cold
C. Hot
D. Active

A

B: Cold

118
Q

In MACTAC, a geographic area with a known threat. Only law enforcement or armed personnel attempting to isolate, contain, or neutralize hostile threat(s) are allowed in this area.
A. Warm
B. Cold
C. Hot
D. Active

A

C: Hot

119
Q

In MACTAC, an area designated as a delineation between the clean (unaffected) and dirty (affected) areas of an event. This area should have the officers present to sweep everyone for weapons. The injured will be swept and moved to the formal triage, treatment and transport area(s), while uninjured/witnesses will be swept and moved to a refuge area.
A. Staging
B. Security
C. Transition
D. Command Post

A

C: Transition

120
Q

In Maintenance of Values and Ethics, all internal investigations should be completed within _____ days unless approved by the IAB ______________.
A. 30 / Director
B. 60 / Sergeant
C. 90 / Sergeant
D. 90 / Lieutenant

A

D: 90 / Lieutenant

121
Q

In Drug Free Workplace, upon becoming aware or developing reasonable suspicion of an employee’s impairment, a supervisor will contact IAB immediately and will conduct a preliminary investigation (which may include an FST). The supervisor should request a secondary _________ to observe any indicators of impairment to confirm the reasonable suspicion.
A. IAB detective
B. Supervisor
C. Traffic
D. Civilian

A

B: Supervisor

122
Q

Department members are prohibited from disclosing information pertaining to any other members of the Department without permission of the __________________ (to include “tagging” in text or photos).
A. Sergeant
B. Affected member
C. PIO office
D. COP section

A

B: Affected member