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Practice Test Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side?

a. nonaxial
b. condyloid
c. nonsynovial
d. synovial

A

A. Nonaxial

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2
Q

What is credible nutrition information?
Select one:
a. Nutrition information that is supported by news and media
b. Nutrition information that is reported to be true
c. Nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science Correct
d. Nutrition information that is believable

A

C. nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science.

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3
Q

Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion?

Select one:

a. Labored or heavy breathing associated with exertion
b. Failure of diastolic blood pressure to rise by more than 15 mm Hg
c. An elevation of systolic blood pressure to 220 mm Hg
d. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms Correct

A

d. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms.

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4
Q

An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?

Select one:

a. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities.
b. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.
c. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching. Incorrect
d. Avoid walking and jogging and opt for cycling.

A

b. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

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5
Q

What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients?

Select one:

a. 0 to 60 seconds
b. 90 to 120 seconds Incorrect
c. 60 to 90 seconds
d. 120 to 180 seconds

A

a. 0 to 60 seconds

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6
Q

What is meant by the term tolerable upper limit (UL)?

Select one:

a. The same as daily value (DV)
b. The amount recommended for the average person to take
c. The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect
d. The amount of a specific nutrient in a single serving

A

c. The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect

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7
Q

Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete’s macrocycle annual training plan?

Select one:

a. In-season training
b. Preseason training
c. Off-season training
d. Cardio training

A

d. Cardio training

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8
Q

What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?

Select one:

a. Concentric Incorrect
b. Amortization
c. Isometric
d. Eccentric

A

b. Amortization

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9
Q

Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist?

Select one:

a. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension
b. The infraspinatus being active during shoulder external rotation
c. The transversus abdominus being active during hip extension
d. The serratus anterior being active during shoulder flexion

A

a. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension

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10
Q

What is the primary action of the multifidus?

Select one:

a. Regulate inspiration
b. Increase intra-abdominal pressure
c. Support the contents of the pelvis
d. Stabilize and extend the spine

A

d. Stabilize and extend the spine

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11
Q

When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called?

Select one:

a. Sustain talk
b. Change talk
c. An affirmation
d. A collecting summary

A

a. Sustain talk

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12
Q

Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human eye may be classified in what way?

Select one:

a. Arthrokinematic
b. Osteokinematic
c. Anterior
d. Posterior

A

a. Arthrokinematic

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13
Q

What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?

Select one:

a. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
b. EPOC is the faster rate of glycolysis that occurs after exercise.
c. EPOC is the increase in breathing rate that occurs during rest periods between exercise intervals.
d. EPOC is the increase in protein breakdown that occurs after exercise.

A

EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.

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14
Q

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?

Select one:

a. Strength
b. Power
c. Speed
d. Neuromuscular stabilization

A

d. Neuromuscular stabilization

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15
Q

A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is driving her?

Select one:

a. Intrinsic motivation
b. Extrinsic motivation
c. Affiliation motivation
d. Autonomy motivation

A

b. Extrinsic motivation

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16
Q

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?

Select one:

a. Hip hinge
b. Pulling
c. Pushing
d. Squatting

A

c. Pushing

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17
Q

Beth is considering opportunities for how to begin her career as a fitness professional. If her primary goal is to earn a stable income by helping clients reach their fitness goals, which of the following would provide the best option?

Select one:

a. Working for a premium health club company
b. Creating online coaching programs
c. Offering in-home training services
d. Working for a low-cost health club company

A

a. Working for a premium health club company

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18
Q

Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?

Select one:

a. Left ventricle
b. Right ventricle
c. Left atrium
d. Right atrium

A

b. Right ventricle

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19
Q

A client wants to improve their mile time. Which of the following is an outcome goal?

Select one:

a. I want to run in the morning before work.
b. I want to run 3 times per week.
c. I want to run a 6-minute mile.
d. I want to run outside.

A

c. I want to run a 6-minute mile.

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20
Q

What is glycogen?

Select one:

a. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
b. The storage form of carbohydrate in plants
c. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate breakdown in humans
d. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate storage in humans and animals

A

a. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans

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21
Q

What is defined as the force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it?

Select one:

a. Stabilization force
b. Acceleration force
c. Ground reaction force
d. Deceleration force

A

c. Ground reaction force

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22
Q

The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?

Select one:

a. Pulmonary arteries
b. Bronchioles
c. Alveolar sacs
d. Trachea

A

c. Alveolar sacs

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23
Q

Increasing which of the following is the best way to improve a client’s adherence to an exercise plan?

Select one:

a. Self-efficacy
b. Length-tension relationship
c. Strength
d. Cool-down

A

a. Self-efficacy

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24
Q

What is the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body?

Select one:

a. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
b. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
c. Thermoregulation
d. Peripheral vasodilation

A

c. Thermoregulation

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25
Q

When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility?

Select one:

a. Self-myofascial techniques
b. Active stretches
c. Dynamic stretches
d. Sports drills

A

Self-myofascial techniques

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26
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

Select one:

a. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow
b. A normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable
c. The state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream.
d. The state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream

A

a. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

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27
Q

What is the correct position of the hands during the standing hammer curl exercise?

Select one:

a. Palms facing inward toward each other
b. Palms facing up
c. Palms facing outward away from each other
d. Palms facing down

A

a. Palms facing inward toward each other

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28
Q

What is osteoporosis?

Select one:

a. Lower than normal bone density
b. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults
c. A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile
d. Chronic inflammation of the joints

A

c. A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile

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29
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?

Select one:

a. 0 to 15 seconds
b. 15 to 60 seconds
c. 60 to 90 seconds
d. 90 to 120 seconds

A

b. 15 to 60 seconds

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30
Q

How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)?

Select one:

a. 90 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 45 minutes

A

b. 30 minutes

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31
Q

Which of the following are the correct five kinetic chain checkpoints when utilizing kettlebells?

Select one:

a. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
b. Feet, ankles, hips, shoulders, neck
c. Ankles, knees, wrists, shoulders, head
d. Feet, knees, hips, elbows, shoulders

A

a. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

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32
Q

Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following?

Select one:

a. Release of stored energy during concentric phase
b. Prolonged amortization phase
c. Rapid amortization phase
d. Absent stretch reflex

A

c. Rapid amortization phase

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33
Q

When NASM recommends relying on the current best information in making decisions about client care, what is it referring to?

Select one:

a. Evidence-based practice
b. Peer-observed procedure
c. Traditional compliance
d. Popular theories and methods posted on online fitness forums

A

a. Evidence-based practice

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34
Q

Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase?

Select one:

a. Postural alignment
b. Core strength
c. Rate of force production
d. Maximal muscular strength
Feedback

A

a. Postural alignment

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35
Q

What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program?

Select one:

a. To ensure safety
b. To make sure the program is difficult enough
c. To enhance enjoyment of exercise
d. To make sure the client isn’t doing too much exercise

A

a. To ensure safety

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36
Q

SAQ programs for youth have been found to decrease what?

Select one:

a. Sports participation
b. Power
c. Strength
d. Athletic injuries

A

d. Athletic injuries

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37
Q

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?

Select one:

a. Pushing assessment
b. Bench press strength assessment
c. Push-up test
d. Overhead press

A

a. Pushing assessment

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38
Q

Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?

Select one:

a. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work
b. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work.
c. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work.
d. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

A

d. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

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39
Q

Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?

Select one:

a. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual
b. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual
c. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual Incorrect
d. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

A

d. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

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40
Q

From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training?

Select one:

a. Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness
b. Increased cardiac output and oxygen transport
c. Reduced blood pressure and cholesterol levels
d. Improved respiratory efficiency and metabolism

A

a. Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness

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41
Q

Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training?

Select one:

a. Circuit training
b. Hypertrophy training
c. Integrated training
d. Isolated training

A

c. Integrated training

42
Q

In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component?

Select one:

a. Core training
b. Balance training
c. Resistance training
d. Cardiorespiratory training

A

c. Resistance training

43
Q

Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins?

Select one:

a. Left atrium
b. Left ventricle
c. Right atrium
d. Right ventricle

A

c. Right atrium

44
Q

What best describes an essential amino acid?

Select one:

a. An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body
b. An amino acid that is in all types of foods
c. An amino acid that is available in all protein foods
d. An amino acid that is required after a workout

A

a. An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body

45
Q

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?

Select one:

a. Self-regulation
b. Intention
c. Outcome expectations
d. Self-efficacy

A

d. Self-efficacy

46
Q

When working in a health club, what piece of equipment would it be essential to know the location of?

Select one:

a. The AED, in case the personal trainer will need to perform CPR on a health club member
b. Rags and cleaning supplies
c. The remote control for the TVs or sound system
d. The vacuum cleaner, in case a personal trainer has to clean during the shift

A

a. The AED, in case the personal trainer will need to perform CPR on a health club member

47
Q

For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward?

Select one:

a. Knee dominance
b. Knee valgus
c. Knee varus
d. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt

A

c. Knee varus

48
Q

What does the first law of thermodynamics state?

Select one:

a. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
b. All energy is converted to heat.
c. Food increases metabolic rate.
d. Metabolic rate is constant.

A

a. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.

49
Q

Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?

Select one:

a. Davis’s law
b. Overload principle
c. Wolff’s law
d. Archimedes’ principle

A

a. Davis’s law

50
Q

Which of the following should be emphasized the most in a core training program?

Select one:

a. Number of sets/reps
b. Speed of exercise completion
c. Quality of movement
d. Amount of external resistance

A

c. Quality of movement

51
Q

Social physique anxiety is more prevalent in which population?

Select one:

a. People with a low body fat percentage
b. Females
c. Males
d. People with a low body mass index

A

b. Females

52
Q

Omega-3 fatty acids do not include which of the following fatty acids?

Select one:

a. Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA)
b. Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)
c. Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)
d. Palmitic acid

A

d. Palmitic acid

53
Q

How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol?

Select one:

a. Seven
b. Four
c. Six
d. Three

A

b. Four

54
Q

At which stage of change are self-efficacy levels generally the highest?

Select one:

a. Precontemplation
b. Preparation
c. Contemplation
d. Maintenance

A

d. Maintenance

55
Q

What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?

Select one:

a. Amortization phase
b. Unloading phase
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Loading phase

A

c. Stretch-shortening cycle

56
Q

What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?

Select one:

a. 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills
b. 10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills
c. 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8
d. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

A

d. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

57
Q

Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?

Select one:

a. Power step-up
b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
c. Butt kick
d. Tuck jump

A

b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

58
Q

What is the best choice of attire to an interview at a health club?

Select one:

a. Business casual
b. Brand-new workout clothes
c. Professional business attire
d. Jeans and a polo shirt

A

c. Professional business attire

59
Q

In which population is type 1 osteoporosis most prevalent?

Select one:

a. Adolescent girls
b. Men under the age of 50
c. Postmenopausal women
d. Women under the age of 50

A

c. Postmenopausal women

60
Q

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?

Select one:

a. Decreased volume and intensity
b. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss
c. Body fat loss
d. Muscle mass atrophy

A

c. Body fat loss

61
Q

Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client’s emotional considerations?

Select one:

a. Self-image
b. Self-efficacy
c. Resilience
d. Self-esteem

A

b. Self-efficacy

62
Q

What are the two categories of bone markings?

Select one:

a. Depressions and processes
b. Short and long
c. Surface and deep
d. Irregular and flat

A

a. Depressions and processes

63
Q

A client who is training with you to improve his body composition states that he only sleeps 4 or 5 hours a night because he thinks that any more is a waste of time. How might you respond to him in view of his body composition goals?

Select one:

a. Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management.
b. Express understanding that he has a busy schedule and that sleep may not be a priority, and explain that this should not affect his body composition goals, as sleep and weight are unrelated.
c. Explain that as long as he spends the extra hours engaged in physical activity, he should be able to meet his body composition goals.
d. Explain that 4 or 5 hours may not be enough for his requirements and that he should aim for 6 to 7 hours per day.

A

a. Explain that adequate sleep is important in regulating hunger and satiety hormones, and that chronic sleep deprivation is detrimental for weight management.

64
Q

What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?

Select one:

a. Single-leg squat
b. Step-ups
c. Depth jump
d. Barbell clean

A

b. Step-ups

65
Q

Mac, an NASM-CPT, has been working as a personal trainer at a health club for almost 3 years. He has consistently received positive job evaluations, making him eligible for a promotion. What opportunity would be the most appropriate to pursue, given his experience?

Select one:

a. Group fitness manager
b. General manager
c. Area fitness manager
d. Fitness manager

A

d. Fitness manager

66
Q

Why is it important for fitness professionals to pay attention to their personal grooming when working in a fitness facility?

Select one:

a. Paying attention to personal grooming will make it easier to make new friends while working.
b. Personal grooming is critical for creating engaging social media posts.
c. Personal grooming can help personal trainers appear more in shape, which is important for attracting clients.
d. Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are.

A

d. Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are.

67
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels?

Select one:

a. Maximal Strength
b. Muscular Development
c. Stabilization Endurance
d. Strength Endurance

A

b. Muscular Development

68
Q

Stored energy from an efficiently functioning stretch-shortening cycle is released during which muscle action?

Select one:

a. Eccentric
b. Concentric
c. Isokinetic
d. Isometric

A

b. Concentric

69
Q

Which type of lipids are considered to be heart-healthy and associated with reduced inflammation?

Select one:

a. Saturated fats
b. Omega-6 fatty acids
c. Trans fats
d. Omega-3 fatty acids

A

d. Omega-3 fatty acids

70
Q

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength?

Select one:

a. Muscular Development Training
b. Stabilization Endurance Training
c. Strength Endurance Training
d. Power Training

A

d. Power Training

71
Q

Which of the following modalities was designed to be carried, lifted, thrown, and pulled as a functional training tool?

Select one:

a. Sandbags
b. TRX Rip Trainer
c. Battle ropes
d. Kettlebells

A

a. Sandbags

72
Q

Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset?

Select one:

a. Power step-ups and ice skaters
b. Bench press and stability ball push-ups
c. Deadlifts and squats
d. Single-leg hops and ball push-ups

A

b. Bench press and stability ball push-ups

73
Q

How can diastolic blood pressure be defined?

Select one:

a. The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body
b. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded
c. The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute)
d. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded

A

b. The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded

74
Q

What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)?

Select one:

a. Inspiration is prolonged.
b. Breathing becomes more shallow.
c. Breathing settles into a more consistent rhythm.
d. Expiration becomes more forceful.

A

d. Expiration becomes more forceful.

75
Q

Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following?

Select one:

a. Reducing burnout
b. Winning a triathlon
c. Developing intrinsic motivation
d. Providing psychological benefits

A

d. Providing psychological benefits

76
Q

A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following?

Select one:

a. Limiting the number of sports leagues that are using a community center
b. Allowing more permits for fitness facilities to open
c. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails
d. Reducing the number of fast-food restaurants

A

c. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails

77
Q

How many calories are in 1 gram of protein?

Select one:

a. 9
b. 4
c. 2
d. 6

A

b. 4

78
Q

What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3?

Select one:

a. At least two days of training in stage 1 to recover
b. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.
c. Another stage 3 day to optimize training adaptations
d. Two days of no exercise to reduce the risk of overtraining

A

b. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.

79
Q

Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?

Select one:

a. Medicine ball pullover throw
b. Front medicine ball oblique throw
c. Overhead medicine ball throw
d. Medicine ball chest pass

A

a. Medicine ball pullover throw

80
Q

The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following?

Select one:

a. The built environment
b. The constructed environment
c. The assembled environment
d. The manufactured environment

A

a. The built environment

81
Q

What is the correct order of segments for the spine, starting at the top?

Select one:

a. Thoracic, cervical, and lumbar
b. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar
c. Cervical, lumbar, and thoracic
d. Lumbar, cervical, and thoracic

A

b. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar

82
Q

During which Phase of OPT should the exerciser be most concerned with increasing the speed (repetition tempo) of exercises?

Select one:

a. Phase 5 Power
b. Phase 3 Muscular Development
c. Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance
d. Phase 4 Maximal Strength

A

a. Phase 5 Power

83
Q

What is a key technique consideration during the squat jump with stabilization?

Select one:

a. Letting feet turn out for support
b. Performing reps as quickly as possible
c. Keeping the knees in line with the toes
d. Letting the knees cave inward

A

c. Keeping the knees in line with the toes

84
Q

Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell?

Select one:

a. Actin
b. A sarcomere
c. Endomysium
d. Myosin

A

b. A sarcomere

85
Q

Flexibility training can reduce the risk of what three conditions?

Select one:

a. Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries
b. Type 2 diabetes, anxiety, and muscle strains
c. High blood pressure, muscle strains, and balance deficits
d. Anxiety, poor posture, and ligament sprains

A

a. Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries

86
Q

Which joints are most associated with human movement?

Select one:

a. Saddle
b. Nonsynovial
c. Synovial
d. Nonaxial

A

c. Synovial

87
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out?

Select one:

a. Abdominals
b. Adductor complex
c. Upper trapezius
d. Anterior and posterior tibialis

A

d. Anterior and posterior tibialis

88
Q

What movement term is used to describe the concept of adducting the shoulder blades so that they become closer together?

Select one:

a. Scapular protraction
b. Scapular retraction
c. Scapular depression
d. Scapular elevation

A

b. Scapular retraction

89
Q

What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise?

Select one:

a. It reduces force too much.
b. It creates too powerful a jump.
c. It makes the next jump too easy to execute.
d. It causes stress to the connective tissues.

A

d. It causes stress to the connective tissues.

90
Q

What are the two components of a sarcomere?

Select one:

a. Epimysium and endomysium
b. Tropomyosin and troponin
c. Actin and myosin
d. Muscle fiber and muscle cell

A

c. Actin and myosin

91
Q

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?

Select one:

a. 40-yard dash
b. Long (broad) jump
c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
d. Pro shuttle

A

d. Pro shuttle

92
Q

Which of the following best demonstrates an example of activities of daily living separate from planned exercise?

Select one:

a. Yardwork
b. Weightlifting
c. Running
d. Cycling

A

a. Yardwork

93
Q

What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?

Select one:

a. Sarcopenia
b. Muscular atrophy
c. Osteopenia
d. Muscular hypertrophy

A

d. Muscular hypertrophy

94
Q

What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex?

Select one:

a. Sprains and plantar fasciitis
b. Plantar fasciitis and shin splints
c. Strains and heel spurs
d. Achilles tendonitis and athlete’s foot

A

a. Sprains and plantar fasciitis

95
Q

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface.

Select one:

a. Somatosensation
b. Vision
c. Vestibular
d. Sensorimotor function

A

a. Somatosensation

96
Q

Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?

Select one:

a. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
b. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test
c. Rockport 1-mile walk test
d. YMCA 3-minute step test

A

d. YMCA 3-minute step test

97
Q

What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?

Select one:

a. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, tighten all muscles of the global core.
b. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, bear down with the muscles of the global core.
c. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, hold your breath and tighten your gluteals.
d. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.

A

d. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.

98
Q

What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?

Select one:

a. Altered length-tension relationship
b. Altered reciprocal inhibition
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Synergistic dominance

A

d. Synergistic dominance

99
Q

What is the function of the neuromuscular junction?

Select one:

a. Exposing actin-binding sites
b. The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate
c. The site of muscular contractions
d. The sliding filament theory

A

b. The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate

100
Q

Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?

Select one:

a. Local muscles
b. Global muscles
c. Back muscles only
d. Local and global muscles

A

a. Local muscles

NASM-CPT (2 decks)

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