Practice Test (course) 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The administrator modifies a rule on the firewall and now all the FTP users cannot access the server any longer. The manager calls the administrator and asks what caused the extreme downtime for the server. In regards to the manager’s inquiry, what did the administrator forget to do first?

A. Submit a change request

B. Schedule a maintenance window

C. Provide notification of change to users

D. Document the changes

A

A. Submit a change request

Explanation: A change request should be submitted through the change management process prior to any changes being made.

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2
Q

An administrator would like to test out an open-source based phone system prior to making an investment in hardware and phones. Which of the following should the administrator do to BEST test the software?

A. Create virtual IP phones that utilizes the STP Protocol in your lab

B. Deploy an open-source VDI solution to create a testing lab

C. Deploy new SIP appliances and connect them to the open source phone applications

D. Create a virtual PBX and connect it to SIP phone applications

A

D. Create a virtual PBX and connect it to SIP phone applications

Explanation:
To test out the system prior to purchasing it, he should connect to a virtual PBX with a SIP phone application and ensure it meets his need. Deploying new SIP appliances would be costly, therefore a bad choice. Deploying a VDI is a virtual desktop infrastructure solution, which doesn’t have anything to do with phones. Creating virtual IP phones in a lab may work but isn’t going to give him an accurate representation of the actual usage of the system.

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3
Q

Which type of equipment should be used for telecommunications equipment and have an open design?

A. 2/4 post racks

B. Rail racks

C. Vertical frame

D. Ladder racks

A

A. 2/4 post racks

Explanation: The 2/4 post racks are open framed which are most common with telecommunication equipment.

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4
Q

A firewall technician configures a firewall in order to allow HTTP traffic as follows: Source IP Zone Dest IP Zone Port Action Any Untrust Any DMZ 80 Allow The organization should upgrade to what technology to prevent unauthorized traffic from traversing the firewall?

A. HTTPS

B. Stateless packet inspection

C. Intrusion detection system

D. Application aware firewall

A

D. Application aware firewall

Explanation: Application aware firewall can analyze and verify protocols all the way up to layer 7 of the OSI reference model. It has the advantage to be aware of the details at the application layer. Since we desired to allow HTTP traffic, we must deal with the traffic at the application layer. This will prevent an attacker from sending SSH traffic over port 80, for example. By using an application aware firewall, only HTTP traffic will be allowed over port 80.

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5
Q

A network technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between switches but suspects the ports are not properly labeled. What option will help to quickly identify the switches connected to each port?

A. Configure TACACs+ on each network device

B. Enable a discovery protocol on the network devices.

C. Configure each uplink to send LACP discovery units.

D. Enable a packet sniffer on each network device’s uplink port.

A

B. Enable a discovery protocol on the network devices.

Explanation: By enabling a discovery protocol on the network devices, the technician will be able to get detailed information such as the IP addresses, system version, and the type of device information from supporting devices directly connected to the discovery protocol, therefore providing information about the specific routers.

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6
Q

You are installing a Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) network consisting of a router with 2 ports, a switch with 8 ports, and a hub with 4 ports. The router has one port connected to a cable modem and one port connected to switch port #1. The hub’s first port is connected to switch port #2. Based on the description provided, how many collision domains exist in this network?

A. 3

B. 8

C. 9

D. 11

A

C. 9

Explanation: Based on the description provided, there are 9 collision domains. Each port on the router is a collision domain (2), each port on the switch is a collision domain (8), and all of the ports on the hub make up a single collision domain (1). But, since one of the ports on the router is connected to one of the ports on the switch, they are in the same collision domain (-1). Similarly, the hub and the switch share a common collision domain with their connection to each other over the switch port (-1). This gives us 9 collision domains total: the 8 ports on the switch, and the 1 port on the route that is used by the cable modem.

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7
Q

While troubleshooting, a technician notices that some clients using FTP still work and that pings to the local routers and servers are working. The technician tries to ping all known nodes on the network and they reply positively, except for one of the servers. The technician notices that ping works only when the host name is used but not when FQDN is used. What server is MOST likely offline?

A. WINS server

B. Domain controller

C. DHCP server

D. DNS server

A

D. DNS server

Explanation: The DNS Server translates Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDN) to IP addresses.

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8
Q

Dion Training is considering moving its headquarters and data center to Florida, but they are worried about hurricanes disrupting their business operations. To mitigate this risk, Dion Training has signed a contract with a vendor located in a different state to provide hardware, software, and the procedures necessary for the company to recover quickly in the case of a catastrophic event, like a hurricane causing a power loss for up to 10 days. Jason, as the owner, is a little concerned that this contract isn’t sufficient to mitigate enough of the risk since it only provides a solution for the first 10 days. Jason wonders, “what will we do if a major outage occurs and our offices are not able to be used for 6-12 months?” Jason has hired you on to help develop Dion Training’s long-term strategy for recovering from such an event. What type of plan should you create?

A. Incident response plan

B. Disaster recovery plan

C. Business continuity plan

D. Risk management plan

A

C. Business continuity plan

Explanation: A business continuity plan (BCP) is a plan to help ensure that business processes can continue during a time of emergency or disaster. Such emergencies or disasters might include a fire or any other case where business is not able to occur under normal conditions. A disaster recovery plan is useful (and usually a piece of the large business continuity plan), but it is insufficient for the long-term strategy which is needed to support business operations during an extended outage.

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9
Q

An administrator notices an unused cable behind a cabinet that is terminated with a DB-9 connector. What protocol was MOST likely used on this cable?

A. RS-232

B. 802.3

C. ATM

D. Token Ring

A

A. RS-232

Explanation: RS-232 is a standard for serial communication transmission of data. It formally defines the signals connecting between a DTE (data terminal equipment) such as a computer terminal, and a DCE (data circuit-terminating equipment or data communication equipment).

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10
Q

After a recent breach, the security technician decides the company needs to analyze and aggregate its security logs. Which system should be used?

A. Event log

B. Syslog

C. SIEM

D. SNMP

A

C. SIEM

ExplanationUsing a Security information and event management (SIEM) product, the security logs can be analyzed and aggregated. SIEM is a term for software products and services combining security information management (SIM) and security event management (SEM).

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11
Q

You are working as a service desk analyst. This morning, you have received multiple calls from users reporting that they cannot access websites from their work computers. You decide to troubleshoot the issue by opening up your command prompt on your Windows machine and running a program to determine where the network connectivity outage is occurring. Which tool should you use to determine if the issue is on the intranet portion of your corporate network or if the issue is occurring due to a problem with your ISP?

A. netstat

B. nslookup

C. ping

D. tracert

A

D. tracert

Explanation: Tracert is a command-line utility that is used to trace the path of an IP packet as it moves from its source to its destination. While using ping will tell you if the remote website is reachable or not, it will not tell you where the connection is broken. Tracert, though, performs a series of ICMP echo requests to determine which device in the connection path is not responding appropriately. This will help to identify if the connectivity issue lies within your intranet or is a problem with the ISPs connection.

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12
Q

A network technician has received a report that workstations are unable to gain access to the network. During the troubleshooting process, the technician discovers that the switch connecting these workstations has failed. Which of the following is the QUICKEST option to configure a replacement switch?

A. Baseline

B. Image

C. Archive

D. Syslog

A

B. Image

Explanation: The baseline is only to give you an idea on how it works before any changes are made. The archive won’t explain much and syslog is a windows feature. Process of elimination shows that an image would work best. To image a switch, you can make a backup of the configuration and deploy it to a new/different switch.

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13
Q

After an employee connected one of the switch ports on a SOHO router to the wall jack in the office, other employees in the building started losing network connectivity. Which of the following could be implemented on the company’s switch to prevent this type of loss of connection?

A. Loop prevention

B. ARP inspections

C. DHCP snooping

D. MAC address filtering

A

A. Loop prevention

It appears the connection of the SOHO router to the company network has caused a loop in the network, causing the loss of connectivity to other users. If the company network implements a loop prevention mechanism, such as Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), this will prevent a loop from occurring.

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14
Q

A network technician has just run a new point-to-point fiber link between two local routers. After the fiber has been plugged in on both ends, the interface will not come up. The network technician has double-checked the interface configuration on both routers, both SFPs have been hard-looped to confirm they are functioning, connectors on both ends of the links have been cleaned, and there is sufficient power. What is the cause of the problem?

A. Wavelength mismatch

B. Duplex mismatch

C. Distance limitations

D. Wrong IP address

A

A. Wavelength mismatch

Explanation: Wavelength mismatch is when two different transmitters at each end of the cable have either longer or shorter wavelengths. Both transmitters have to be identical on each end of the cable.

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15
Q

A technician has punched down only the middle two pins (pins 4 and 5) on an Ethernet patch panel. Which of the following has the technician cabled this port to be used with?

A. 10baseT

B. POTS

C. 568B

D. 568A

A

B. POTS

Explanation: POTS is short for plain old telephone service. The technician was making a cable for a telephone to use, since it only requires two pins (send and receive).

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16
Q

Which of the following wireless characteristic does channel bonding improve?

A. Signal strength

B. Encryption strength

C. Coverage area

D. Connection speed

A

D. Connection speed

Explanation: Channel Bonding is used to reduce redundancy or increase throughput, directly affecting the connection speed of a wireless connection. Signal strength only refers to the maximum transmitted power by an antenna.

17
Q

Which network element enables unified communication devices to connect to and traverse traffic onto the PSTN?

A. Access switch

B. UC gateway

C. UC server

D. Edge router

A

B. UC gateway

Explanation: Unified Communications (UC) enables people using different modes of communication, different media, and different devices to communicate with anyone, anywhere, at any time. To accomplish this, a UC gateway is needed.

18
Q

Which of the following connector types is used to terminate DS3 connections in a telecommunications facility?

A. 66 block

B. BNC

C. F-connector

D. RJ-11

A

B. BNC

Explanation: Bayonet Neill-Concelman Connector (BNC connector) is a type of coaxial RF (Radio frequency) electrical connector that is used in place of coaxial connectors. A DS3 (Digital Signal 3) is also known as a T3 line with a maximum bandwidth of 44.736 Mbit/s. DS3 uses 75 ohm coaxial cable and BNC connectors.

19
Q

A user is receiving certificate errors in other languages in their web browser when trying to access the company’s main intranet site. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. DoS

B. Reflective DNS

C. Man-in-the-middle

D. ARP poisoning

A

C. Man-in-the-middle

Explanation: A man-in-the-middle attack is a general term for when a perpetrator positions himself in a conversation between a user and an application, either to eavesdrop or to impersonate one of the parties, making it appear as if a normal exchange of information is occurring.

20
Q

Your company hosts all of the company’s virtual servers internally in your own datacenter. In the event of total failure or disaster, though, the server images can be restored on a cloud provider and accessed through a VPN. Which of the following types of cloud services is your company using in this scenario?

A. Community PaaS

B. Public IaaS

C. Hybrid SaaS

D. Private SaaS

A

B. Public IaaS

Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is the foundation of cloud computing. Rather than purchasing or leasing space in expensive datacenter, labor, real estate, and all of the utilities to maintain and deploy computer servers, cloud networks, and storage, cloud buyers rent space in a virtual data center from an IaaS provider. They have access to the virtual data center via the Internet. This type of cloud computing provides the “raw materials” for IT, and users usually only pay for the resources they consume, including (but not limited to) CPU cores, RAM, hard disk or storage space, and data transfer. Since this cloud provider is available to all companies to use, much like Microsoft Azure or Amazon Web Services, this is an example of a Public IaaS or Public Cloud.

21
Q

A network administrator wants to increase the speed and fault tolerance of a connection between two network switches. To achieve this, which protocol should the administrator use?

A. LACP

B. LLDP

C. L2TP

C. LDAP

A

A. LACP

ExplanationThe Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) provides a method to control the bundling of several physical ports together to form a single logical channel. The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol used by network devices for advertising their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. The Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is a tunneling protocol used to support virtual private networks (VPNs) or as part of the delivery of services by ISPs. The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is an open, vendor-neutral, industry standard application protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services over an Internet Protocol network.

22
Q

Tim is a network administrator who is setting up three additional switches in his test lab. While configuring the switches, he is verifying the connectivity but finds that when he pings one of the switches using its IP address, he receives “Destination Unreachable”. What kind of issue is this?

A. Denial of service attack

B. Misconfigured DNS settings

C. Misconfigured Split Horizon

D. RADIUS authentication errors

A

C. Misconfigured Split Horizon

Explanation: Split horizon is a method of preventing a routing loop in a network. If it is misconfigured, the switches would be unable to communicate with each other. None of the other answers provided would prevent communication between the switches.