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Imaging technique semester 2 > practice test > Flashcards

practice test Flashcards

1
Q

Cephalometrics is NOT used to

a. Plan orthodontic treatment
b. Assess facial asymmetry
c. Measure foetal head growth Correct
d. Study craniofacial growth

A

c. Measure foetal head growth

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2
Q

Once contrast media is introduced into the knee joint it must not be moved or flexed.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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3
Q

In dacrocystography, which is NOT a technique used to maximise ductal size on the image?

Select one:

a. Small focal spot is selected
b. Positioning the patient in OM position
c. Increased OFD is employed
d. Large focal spot is selected
e. Smallest receptor size selected

A

d. Large focal spot is selected Correct

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4
Q

Which of the following abbreviations refers to someone who may help the radiography department?

Select one:

a. FH
b. TLC
c. GSC
d. HCA

A

d. HCA Correct

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5
Q

Having a previous allergic reaction to local anesthetics is a primary contraindications for arthrography of any joint.

Give another primary contraindications for arthrography of any joint.

A

Allergic reaction to iodine based contrast media

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6
Q

The basic structure that is used to create most of the organic iodine contrast agents is:-

Select one:

a. Metrizoate
b. Pyridine
c. Benzene
d. Gadolinium

A

Benzene

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7
Q

Movement of the body part during between exposures will compromise the long bone study.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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8
Q

Which abbreviation does not relate to the nervous system?

Select one:

a. BI
b. TBI
c. POP
d. CVA

A

POP Plaster of paris

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9
Q

Give one example of neuromuscular pathology that may require orthography:

A

fasciitis plantar

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10
Q

Fertilisation of the ovum occurs in the uterine tube.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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11
Q

What is not a complication of gastric banding?

Select one:

a. Erosion into stomach
b. Band slippage Incorrect
c. Perforation of stomach
d. Malabsorption
e. Wound infection

A

Malabsorption

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12
Q

Osteoporosis in post menopausal women is defined by the WHO as having a BMD of

Select one:

a. 1.5 standard deviation below the average for the same age and sex population
b. 2.0 standard deviation below the average for the same age and sex population Incorrect
c. 2.5 standard deviation below the average for the normal young population
d. 1.0 standard deviation below the average for the normal young population

A

C. 2.5 standard deviation below the average for the normal young population

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13
Q

A z score produced during a DXA scan compares the patient’s bone density with that of

Select one:

a. a person with osteoporosis Incorrect
b. a person with osteopenia
c. an average young healthy individual with peak bone mass
d. an average individual of the same age and sex

A

C. an average individual of the same age and sex

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14
Q

Which of the following imaging modalities is not used during sailography?

Select one:

a. CT
b. Fluoroscopy
c. Ultrasound
d. Conventional radiography

A

c. Ultrasound

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15
Q

What does the abbreviation CHD mean?

A

Congestive Heart Disease

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16
Q
  1. Current use of macroradiography does NOT include

Select one:

a. trabeculae patterns on extremities
b. orbital phlebography
c. scaphoid
d. mammaography
e. avian radiography

A

orbital phlebography

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17
Q

Which of the following is not an abbreviation related to the abdomen?

Select one:

a. AAA
b. KUB
c. UTI
d. ICP Intra Cranial Pressure

A

d. ICP Intra Cranial Pressure

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18
Q

A sinus may form as a means of decompression of a synovial joint in what bony pathology (ies)?

Give one answer.

A

septic arthritis

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19
Q 
Match the following abbreviations with the most suitable body system category. (answers are used more than once).
AAA
CABG
TIA        
CPAP
OM
NBM
KUB
TLC        
BIBA
FH
UTI
FT
LMP
GCS
IUD
MUA
A 
AAA – Cardiovascular, 
CABG – Cardiovascular,
 TIA – Nervous, 
CPAP – Respiratory,
 OM – Musculoskeletal, 
NBM – Digestive, 
KUB – Urinary, 
TLC – Respiratory, 
BIBA – General/Hospital Information,
 FH – General/Hospital Information,
 UTI – Urinary, 
FT – Digestive, 
LMP – Reproductive, 
GCS – Nervous,
 IUD – Reproductive, 
MUA – Musculoskeletal
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20
Q

DXA of the hip requires the lower limb to be rotated medially15-20 degrees.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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21
Q

Taking the medication Metaformin can be is contraindicated prior to what procedure

Select one:

a. Ba Enema
b. IV Urogram Correct
c. Retrograde cystourethrogram
d. Enterocoliosis

A

b. IV Urogram

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22
Q

What type of contrast media is used for Myelography?

Do not specify brand name.

A

Oil Based

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23
Q

There is a moderate risk to the patient’s eye and tear duct during a dacrocystogram; even if the patient has no allergies or infection.

True or False

A

False

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24
Q

Which of the following is an abbreviation for how a patient eats/doesn’t?

Select one:

a. AE
b. BM
c. ABM
d. NBM

A

d. NBM

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25
Q

Lacrimal gland tear production is located on the lateral side of the eye.

True or False

A

False

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26
Q

Myelography is largely being replaced by MRI and CT

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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27
Q

Which of the following is not an abbreviation of a line that you would be asked to image to check for placement?

Select one:

a. PICC Incorrect
b. FT
c. CVL
d. ACL

A

d. ACL

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28
Q

Clinical indications for bone densitometry does not include one of the following.

Select one:

a. Estrogen deficiency in women
b. Vertebral abnormalities
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Polycystic kidney disease
e. Female with family history of osteoporosis

A

d. Polycystic kidney disease Correct

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29
Q

Select the 3 aspects of the Glascow Coma Scale

Select one or more:
a. verbal response 
b. pain retraction response
c. eye response
d. reflex response
e. motor response 
Feedback
Your answer is correct.
A

a. verbal response
c. eye response
e. motor response

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30
Q

2/3 of all abnormalities demonstrated in the hysterosalpingogram arise from:

Select one:

a. maldevelopment of the uterus and fallopian tubes
b. maldevelopment of the uterus
c. congenital chromosomal abnormalities
d. maldevelopment of the fallopian tubes
e. maldevelopment of the uterus and congenital chromosomal abnormalities Incorrect

A

A.maldevelopment of the uterus and fallopian tubes

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31
Q

What does the abbreviation NAD stand for?

A

no abnormalities detected

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32
Q

When imaging a Bariatric patient during fluoroscopy what considerations must you make before continuing with examination?

Select one:

a. X-ray tube rating
b. All options apply
c. Mobility of patient
d. Weight limit and size of foot plate attachment.
e. „Weight limit and size of fluoroscopy unit

A

b. All options apply

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33
Q

If a calculi is seen or expected in one of the salivary ducts which contrast media should be used?

Select one or more:

a. none
b. water soluble Incorrect
c. oil based
d. only air

A

c. oil based

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34
Q

Which of the following is not an abbreviation for hypertension?

Select one:

a. H/t
b. HT
c. HP
d. HTN

A

c. HP

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35
Q

Give a non traumatic reason for arthrography of the knee

A

Bakers cyst

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36
Q

The process of making a metal ion useful without the possibility of it binding chemically to the tissues of the body is called:-

Select one:

a. Concentration
b. Ionization
c. Chelating
d. Osmolarity

A

c. Chelating

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37
Q

Which of the salivary glands is the smallest?

A

Sublingual

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38
Q

Ultrasound is the modality most affected by obesity

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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39
Q

Which of the following is not a unit in a hospital?

Select one:

a. CCU
b. CHD
c. ICU
d. HDU

A

CHD

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40
Q

What is the recommended projection to show a stone in the submandibular gland?

Select one:

a. PA projection
b. Lateral oblique projection
c. AP projection
d. Superoinferior projection
e. Lateral projection

A

Superoinferior projection

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41
Q

For osteoporosis to be visible on conventional radiographs then a loss of at least
Answer:
Correct % of the trabecular bone must occur.

Write your answer as a number eg; 75

A

30

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42
Q

Osmolality of a solution refers to the _______________ of the solution.

Select one:

a. Weight
b. Volume
c. Viscosity
d. Miscibility

A

c. Viscosity

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43
Q

A patient that presents to the ED with a head injury may have which abbreviation on their notes?

Select one:

a. CHD
b. DSA
c. ABI
d. POP

A

c. ABI Acquired brain injury

44
Q

In macroradiography, magnification factors greater than ____ are impracticable if a 0.6 mm2 focus is used.

Select one:

a. 2.0x and 3.0x
b. 3.0 x
c. 1.5 x
d. 1.5x and 2.0x
e. 2.0 x

A

C. 1.5 x

45
Q

What does MUA stand for?

A

Manipulation under anaesthetic

46
Q

Which of the following abbreviations are you most likely to see on a request for a chest x ray?

Select one:

a. BE
b. CABG
c. TBI
d. OM

A

b. CABG

47
Q

Which of the following terms is not an aspect of the uterine tube?

Select one:

a. Isthmus
b. Infundibulum
c. Ampulla
d. Cornu

A

d. Cornu

48
Q

For a cephalogram, which positioning/technique aid is NOT used?

Select one:

a. bite block
b. wedge filter
c. nose piece
d. ear plugs in EAM

A

a. bite block

49
Q

Why is the risk of contrast reaction so low in a dacrocystogram?

Select one:

a. absorption of contrast occurs within 24 hours.
b. a small amount is used
c. low reaction contrast medium is chosen
d. ducts can tolerate a high ph
e. dilution of contrast with tears

A

B. a small amount is used

50
Q

Select the dental imaging that is intra oral .

Select one or more:

a. Periapical
b. Bitewing
c. Occlusal
d. Cephalostat
e. Orthopantomogram

A

b. Bitewing

51
Q

Which imaging system provides a single frontal perspective of the whole mandible?

A

OPG

52
Q

Select the considerations that must be considered when examining a bariatric patient on an x ray table.

Select one or more:
a. Weight limit and size
of x-ray table 
b. „Patient management – limited ability to mobilize
c. X-ray tube rating (2
fr/s or 3/frs -  tube heating
A

a. Weight limit and size
of x-ray table
c. X-ray tube rating (2
fr/s or 3/frs - tube heating

53
Q

Which two abbreviations relate to pregnancy?

Select one:

a. MXT and OM
b. HCG and LMP
c. GFR and LMP
d. NAD and HCG

A

b. HCG and LMP

54
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe a blockage or inability of the uterine tube to allow the flow of fluid?

Select one:

a. Guage
b. Stenosis
c. Patency
d. Atresia

A

b. Stenosis

55
Q

What region of the spine do the majority a dermal sinus tracts occur?

A

Sacrum

56
Q

Myelography is a radiographic study of;

Select one or more:

a. nerve root brances
b. spinal cord Correct
c. pia mater
d. intervertebral spaces
e. intervertebral foramen

A

b. spinal cord

57
Q

Hysterosalpingography is contraindicated for:

Select one:

a. intermittent abnormal Uterine Bleeding
b. primary infertility
c. patency of fallopian tubes
d. pelvic inflammatory disease
e. secondary infertility

A

a. intermittent abnormal Uterine Bleeding

58
Q

A track with open ends that communicates with 2 body areas is termed a

A

Fistula

59
Q

Select the option which is not a reason for a GCS score to be invalid.

Select one:

a. patient has taken mind altering drugs
b. patient is under 4 years of age
c. None of these choices.
d. patient has consumed a large amount of alcohol
e. patient is in shock with a systolic BP < 80

A

c. None of these choices

60
Q

What classification of joints are studied using arthrography?

A

Synovial joints

61
Q

Myelography can be performed with positive contrast agents only.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

62
Q

An opening to the skin surface & may yield pus or fluid is termed a

A

Sinus

63
Q

An allergic type reaction to a substance is caused by Answer

A

hypersensitivity

64
Q

List two (2) common sites of pathological fistulas caused by childbirth trauma

A

Rectovagina Vesicovaginorectal

65
Q

A T score above -1 indicate

Select one:

a. normal bone
b. developing bone
c. osteoporosis
d. osteopenia
e. severe osteoporosis

A

A. normal bone

66
Q

Which abbreviation would not relate to an x-ray request for a wrist?

Select one:

a. ROMW
b. POP
c. CVL
d. ROP

A

c. CVL

67
Q

The excretory pathway for the majority of the organic iodine compounds is through the:-

Select one:

a. Hepatic portal system
b. Urinary system
c. Respiratory system
d. GI tract by defecation

A

Urinary system

68
Q

During a Panorex (OPG) it is important to keep the _________ positioning line parallel to the floor

Select one or more:

a. IOML
b. OML
c. GAL
d. AML

A

a. IOML

69
Q

Select the common limitations a radiologist may noted on his/her report on a bariatric patient’s radiographic examination.

Select one or more:
a. Motion artifact noted
b. Underpenetration resulting in insufficient
contrast
c. ROI located out of field of view
d. Attenuation of ultrasound signal that made it
difficult to distinguish normal anatomy & anatomic landmarks

A

b. Underpenetration resulting in insufficient

contrast

70
Q

What is the name commonly given to the four conjoined tendons that make up the shoulder joint?

A

Rotator Cuff

71
Q

Renal insufficiency is indicated if the BUN ( blood urea nitrogen) level exceeds ________________ mg/dl and the Creatinine is above ___________________

A

30,1.5

72
Q

For a cephalogram, which positioning/technique aid is NOT used?

Select one:

a. nose piece
b. ear plugs in EAM
c. wedge filter
d. bite block

A

d. bite block

73
Q

What three joints are included on one IR for a long bone study of the lower limb?

List these in order from superior to inferior with a comma in between.

A

hip,knee,ankle

74
Q

What type of fistulogram is usually caused by necrotizing following surgery or irradiation

A

bronchopleural

75
Q

What is the name for the surgical procedure that shortens a limb by fusing the epiphysis?

A

Epiphysiodeses

76
Q

Which of the following region(s) do renal calculi commonly impact?

Select one:

a. at pelviureteric junction within the kidney
b. all options apply
c. at point of entry into the bladder
d. at level crossing of bifurcation of common iliac artery

A

b. all options apply

77
Q

Which is the largest of the salivary glands?

A

parotid

78
Q

Adult patients are at risk of contrast agent overdose if they have

i renal failure
ii asthma
iii urticaria
iv cardiac failure
v acites

a. All of the choices Incorrect
b. i, iv and v only
c. i ,ii and iv only
d. ii, iii, and v only

A

b. i, iv and v only

79
Q

List the six rights of basic principle for the administration for medication.

A

patient, drug, dosage, route, time, documentation

80
Q

Bone strength and bone density are directly proportional.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

81
Q

Give an example of a negative contrast media used in arthrography.

A

Room air

82
Q

The distal portion of the uterine tube opens in to the peritoneal cavity.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

83
Q

The risk for a patient developing lactic acidosis is increased if a type 2 diabetic patient is taking what treatment?

A

metformin

84
Q

The successful dacrocystograms images have been completed. What is the primary post operative instruction given to the patient about post operative risks?

A

wear an eye patch

85
Q

Which is not a limitations noted on Radiologist’s reports of plain x-rays taken on Bariatric patients?

Select one:

a. „Area of interest located outside the field of view.
b. „Underpenetration resulting in insufficient contrast.
c. „Contact between the patient’s body & imaging bore or gantry that caused beam hardening or near-field artifacts.
d. „Artifacts caused by patient motion.

A

c.„Contact between the patient’s body & imaging bore or gantry that caused beam hardening or near-field artifacts.

86
Q

What is the usual site of the Contrast Media introduction during a dacrocystogram?

A

punctum

87
Q

What three forms of knee injury require athrography?

Select one or more:

a. Sheath tears
b. Menisci tears
c. Joint capsule tears
d. Skin tears Incorrect
e. Ligament tears
f. Muscle tears Incorrect

A

Joint capsule tears, Menisci tears, Ligament tears

88
Q

During an IVU, what 45 degree AP oblique would best demonstrate the RIGHT URETER?

Select one:

a. RAO
b. LAO
c. RPO
d. LPO

A

c. RPO

89
Q
  1. What is NOT considered a common cause of leg length discrepancy?

Select one:

a. Polio
b. Legg-Perthes
c. Hemihypertrophy
d. Osgood-Schlatters’s disease
e. Epiphysiodeses

A

d. Osgood-Schlatters’s disease

90
Q

What focal spot size is recommended for macroradiography?

Write your answer as a number with the units eg; 0.9mm

A

0.3mm

91
Q

The major benefit of using a high and low kVp xray source with a DXA system is:

Select one:

a. Demonstrates attenuation differences between bone and soft tissue
b. Significantly reduces post processing time of the digital imaging
c. Reduces patient dose significantly
d. Reduces wear and tear on xray tube significantly

A

a. Demonstrates attenuation differences between bone and soft tissue

92
Q 
Which body system is the abbreviation HSG related to?
Select one:
a. Respiratory
b. Gastric
c. Reproductive
d. Nervous
A

c. Reproductive

93
Q

At approximately Answer:
Incorrect years of age is the first age more bone is being removed than is being replaced by new bone formation.

Write your answer as a number eg: 15

A

35

94
Q 
In which site does sialolithiasis occurs most often ?
Select one:
a. 80% occur in the submandibular gland 
b. 80% occur in the sublingual gland
c. 40% occur in the submandibular gland
d. 80% occur in the parotid gland
e. 40% occur in the sublingual gland
A

a. 80% occur in the submandibular gland

95
Q

Which of the following would not be a risk factor for extravasation.

Select one:

a. Use of metal needle in place of plastic cannular
b. Abnormal circulation caused by atherosclerotic vessels
c. Venous thrombosis
d. Tourniquets no being released during the injection.

A

Abnormal circulation caused by atherosclerotic vessels

96
Q 
All of these answers begin with D. Select the correct answer for each space. Ductal, Defect, Diagnosis, Dysphagia, Detected, Digital, Dual, Deep, Developmental, Disease
D\_\_\_\_\_\_ Carcinoma In Situ
Atrial Septal D\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 
D\_\_\_\_\_x
Difficulty swallowing is termed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
No Abnormalities D\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
D\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Subtraction Angiography
D\_\_\_\_\_\_ Energy X-ray Absorption
D\_\_\_\_\_\_Vein Thrombosis
D\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Dysplasia of the hip
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary D\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

The correct answer is: D______ Carcinoma In Situ – Ductal, Atrial Septal D________ – Defect, D_____x – Diagnosis, Difficulty swallowing is termed ___________ – Dysphagia, No Abnormalities D__________ – Detected, D_______ Subtraction Angiography – Digital, D______ Energy X-ray Absorption – Dual, D______Vein Thrombosis – Deep, D_______ Dysplasia of the hip – Developmental, Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary D______ – Disease

97
Q

The anatomic/ physiologic structure that prevents various chemicals and other harmful substances from passing to the central nervous system from the blood is called :-

Select one:

a. Parenchyma
b. Intima
c. Dura mater
d. Blood-brain barrier

A

d. Blood-brain barrier

98
Q

Which of these is not a criteria for surgical intervention for bariatric patient?

Select one:

a. BMI between 35 and 40 with an obesity related disease Incorrect
b. BMI greater than 40
c. Weight twice the patient’s ideal weight.
d. Patient planning pregnancy in next year.
e. No psychiatric or drug dependency problems.

A

: Patient planning pregnancy in next year.

99
Q

Into what space is the contrast media introduced with myelography?

A

subarachnoid space

100
Q

When undertaking radiation dose calculations for a 2 x macroradiography of the wrist, where the FFD remains the same, the patient dose will:

Select one:

a. stay the same
b. increase significantly because of the air gap
c. increase slightly
d. decrease significantly because of the air gap
e. decrease slightly

A

c. increase slightly

101
Q

Which two abbreviations are related ( ie; relates to same system)?

Select one:

a. ACL and ACJ
b. R/O and ROM
c. CSF and LP
d. NBM and NEB

A

c. CSF and LP

102
Q

Arthrography is a sterile procedure?

Select one:
True
False

A

True

103
Q

The purpose of densitometry is to

Select one:

a. Measure bone mineral density
b. Diagnose osteoporosis
c. All options apply
d. To rule out osteopenia
e. Access the response to osteoporosis therapy

A

c. All options apply

104
Q

Which of the following are considered to be an activation triggering type of reaction to contrast media?

i nausea
ii thrombus formation
iii heamolysis
Select one:
a. All options 
b. ii and iii only
c. 1 and ii only
d. i only
A

ii and iii only

105
Q

As the iodine concentration___________________

the viscosity of the substance will________________.

Select one:

a. decreases, increase
b. increases, increase
c. decreases, remains the same
d. increases, decrease

A

b. increases, increase

106
Q

Sialography is contraindicated for:

Select one:

a. Severe inflammation of the salivary gland or duct
b. Calculi lodged in salivary duct
c. Pain and swelling after a meals
d. Possible obstruction of the salivary duct
e. Salivary duct fistula

A

a. Severe inflammation of the salivary gland or duct

107
Q

The 12 small ducts leading from the sublingual glands to the oral cavity are called;

Select one:

a. Wharton’s ducts
b. Ducts of Rivunus
c. Accessory salivary ducts
d. Stenson’s ducts

A

Ducts of Rivunus

Imaging technique semester 2 (3 decks)

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