PRACTICE TEST 4 Flashcards

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1
Q
A client has cancer of the liver. The nurse should be most concerned about which nursing diagnosis?
❍ A. Alteration in nutrition
❍ B. Alteration in urinary elimination
❍ C. Alteration in skin integrity
❍ D. Ineffective coping
A

Answer A is correct. Cancer of the liver frequently leads to severe nausea and vomiting, thus the need for altering nutritional needs. The problems in answers B, C, and D are of lesser concern and, thus, are incorrect in this instance.

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2
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with ascites. Which is the best method to use for determining early ascites?
❍ A. Inspection of the abdomen for enlargement
❍ B. Bimanual palpation for hepatomegaly
❍ C. Daily measurement of abdominal girth
❍ D. Assessment for a fluid wave

A

Answer C is correct. Daily measuring of the abdominal girth is the best method of deter- mining early ascites. Measuring with a paper tape measure and marking the measured area is the most objective method of estimating ascites. Inspection and checking for fluid waves, in answers A and D, are more subjective and, thus, are incorrect for this question. Palpation of the liver, in answer B, will not tell the amount of ascites.

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3
Q

The client arrives in the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. Nursing assessment findings include BP 68/34, pulse rate 130, and respirations 18. Which is the client’s most appropriate priority nursing diagnosis?
❍ A. Alteration in cerebral tissue perfusion
❍ B. Fluid volume deficit
❍ C. Ineffective airway clearance
❍ D. Alteration in sensory perception

A

Answer B is correct. The vital signs indicate hypo- volemic shock or fluid volume deficit. In answers A, C, and D, cerebral tissue perfusion, airway clearance, and sensory perception alterations are not symptoms and, therefore, are incorrect.

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4
Q

The home health nurse is visiting a 15-year-old with sickle cell disease. Which information obtained on the visit would cause the most concern? The client:
❍ A. Likes to play baseball
❍ B. Drinks several carbonated drinks per day
❍ C. Has two sisters with sickle cell trait
❍ D. Is taking Tylenol to control pain

A

Answer A is correct. The client with sickle cell is likely to experience symptoms of hypoxia if he becomes dehydrated or lacks oxygen. Extreme exercise, especially in warm weather, can exacerbate the condition, so the fact that the client plays baseball should be of great concern to the visiting nurse. Answers B, C, and D are not factors for concern with sickle cell disease.

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5
Q

The nurse on oncology is caring for a client with a white blood count of 600. During evening visitation, a visitor brings a potted plant. What action should the nurse take?
❍ A. Allow the client to keep the plant
❍ B. Place the plant by the window
❍ C. Water the plant for the client
❍ D. Tell the family members to take the plant home

A

Answer D is correct. The client with neutropenia should not have potted or cut flowers in the room. Cancer patients are extremely susceptible to bacterial infections. Answers A, B, and C will not help to prevent bacterial invasions and, therefore, are incorrect.

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6
Q

The nurse is caring for the client following a thyroid- ectomy when suddenly the client becomes nonres-ponsive and pale, with a BP of 60 systolic. The nurse’s initial action should be to:
❍ A. Lower the head of the bed
❍ B. Increase the infusion of normal saline
❍ C. Administer atropine IV
❍ D. Obtain a crash cart

A

Answer B is correct. Clients who have not had surgery to the face or neck would benefit from lowering the head of the bed, as in answer A. However, in this situation lowering the client’s head could further interfere with the airway. Therefore, the best answer is answer B, increasing the infusion and placing the client in supine position. Answers C and D are not necessary at this time.

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7
Q

The client pulls out the chest tube and fails to report the occurrence to the nurse. When the nurse discovers the incidence, he should take which initial action?
❍ A. Order a chest x-ray
❍ B. Reinsert the tube
❍ C. Cover the insertion site with a Vaseline gauze
❍ D. Call the doctor

A

Answer C is correct. If the client pulls the chest tube out of the chest, the nurse should first cover the insertion site with an occlusive dressing, such as a Vaseline gauze. Then the nurse should call the doctor, who will order a chest x-ray and possibly reinsert the tube. Answers A, B, and D are not the first priority in this case.

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8
Q

A client being treated with sodium warfarin has an INR of 8.0. Which intervention would be most important to include in the nursing care plan?
❍ A. Assess for signs of abnormal bleeding
❍ B. Anticipate an increase in the coumadin dosage
❍ C. Instruct the client regarding the drug therapy
❍ D. Increase the frequency of neurological assessments

A

Answer A is correct. An INR of 8 indicates that the blood is too thin. The normal INR is 2.0–3.0, so answer B is incorrect because the doctor will not increase the dosage of coumadin. Answer C is incorrect because now is not the time to instruct the client about the therapy. Answer D is not correct because there is no need to increase the
neurological assessment.

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9
Q
Which snack selection by a client with osteoporosis indicates that the client understands the dietary management of the disease?
❍ A. A granola bar
❍ B. A bran muffin
❍ C. Yogurt
❍ D. Raisins
A

Answer C is correct. The food indicating the client’s understanding of dietary management of osteoporosis is the yogurt, with approximately 400mg of calcium. The other foods are good choices, but not as good as the yogurt; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.

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10
Q

The client with preeclampsia is admitted to the unit with an order for magnesium sulfate IV. Which action by the nurse indicates a lack of understanding of magnesium sulfate?
❍ A. The nurse places a sign over the bed not to check blood pressures in the left arm.
❍ B. The nurse obtains an IV controller.
❍ C. The nurse inserts a Foley catheter.
❍ D. The nurse darkens the room.

A

Answer A is correct. There is no need to avoid taking the blood pressure in the left arm. Answers B, C, and D are all actions that should be taken for the client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia.

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11
Q

The nurse is caring for a 12-year-old client with appendicitis. The client’s mother is a Jehovah’s Witness and refuses to sign the blood permit. What nursing action is most appropriate?
❍ A. Give the blood without permission
❍ B. Encourage the mother to reconsider
❍ C. Explain the consequences without treatment
❍ D. Notify the physician of the mother’s refusal

A

Answer D is correct. If the client’s mother refuses the blood transfusion, the doctor should be notified. Because the client is a minor, the court might order treatment. Answer A is incorrect because the mother is the legal guardian and can refuse the blood transfusion to be given to her daughter. Answers B and C are incorrect because it is not the primary responsibility of the nurse to encourage the mother to consent or explain the consequences.

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12
Q
A client is admitted to the unit 2 hours after an injury with second-degree burns to the face, trunk, and head. The nurse would be most concerned with the client developing what?
❍ A. Hypovolemia
❍ B. Laryngeal edema
❍ C. Hypernatremia
❍ D. Hyperkalemia
A

Answer B is correct. The nurse should be most concerned with laryngeal edema because of the area of burn. Answer A is of secondary priority. Hyponatremia and hypokalemia are also of concern but are not the primary concern; thus, answers C and D are incorrect.

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13
Q

The nurse is evaluating nutritional outcomes for an elderly client with anorexia nervosa. Which data best indicates that the plan of care is effective?
❍ A. The client selects a balanced diet from the menu.
❍ B. The client’s hematocrit improves.
❍ C. The client’s tissue turgor improves.
❍ D. The client gains weight.

A

Answer D is correct. The client with anorexia shows the most improvement by weight gain. Selecting a balanced diet is useless if the client does not eat the diet, so answer A is incorrect. The hematocrit, in answer B, might improve by several means, such as blood transfusion, but that does not indicate improvement in the anorexic condition, so B is incorrect. The tissue turgor indicates fluid, not improvement of anorexia, so answer C is incorrect.

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14
Q
The client is admitted following repair of a fractured tibia and cast application. Which nursing assessment should be reported to the doctor?
❍ A. Pain beneath the cast
❍ B. Warm toes
❍ C. Pedal pulses weak and rapid
❍ D. Paresthesia of the toes
A

Answer D is correct. Paresthesia of the toes is not normal and can indicate compartment syndrome. At this time, pain beneath the cast is normal and, thus, would not be reported as a concern. The client’s toes should be warm to the touch, and pulses should be present. Answers A, B, and C, then, are incorrect.

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15
Q

The client is having a cardiac catheterization. During the procedure, the client tells the nurse, “I’m feeling really hot.” Which response would be best?
❍ A. “You are having an allergic reaction. I will get an order for Benadryl.”
❍ B. “That feeling of warmth is normal when the dye is injected.”
❍ C. “That feeling of warmth indicates that the clots in the coronary vessels are dissolving.”
❍ D. “I will tell your doctor and let him explain to you the reason for the hot feeling that you are experiencing.”

A

Answer B is correct. The best response from the nurse is to let the client know that it is normal to have a warm sensation when dye is injected for this procedure. Answers A, C, and D indicate that the nurse believes that the hot feeling is abnormal and, so, are incorrect.

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16
Q

Which action by the healthcare worker indicates a need for further teaching?
❍ A. The nursing assistant wears gloves while giving the client a bath.
❍ B. The nurse wears goggles while drawing blood from the client.
❍ C. The doctor washes his hands before examining the client.
❍ D. The nurse wears gloves to take the client’s vital signs.

A

Answer D is correct. It is not necessary to wear gloves when taking the vital signs of the client, thus indicating further teaching for the nursing assistant. If the client has an active infection with methicillin-resistant staphy-lococcus aureus, gloves should be worn, but this is not indicated in this instance. The actions in answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they are indicative of infection control not mentioned in the question.

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17
Q

The client is having electroconvulsive therapy for treatment of severe depression. Which of the following indicates that the client’s ECT has been effective?
❍ A. The client loses consciousness.
❍ B. The client vomits.
❍ C. The client’s ECG indicates tachycardia.
❍ D. The client has a grand mal seizure.

A

Answer D is correct. During ECT, the client will have a grand mal seizure. This indicates completion of the electroconvulsive therapy. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not indicate that the ECT has been completed.

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18
Q

The 5-year-old is being tested for enterobiasis (pinworms). To collect a specimen for assessment of pinworms, the nurse should teach the mother to:
❍ A. Place tape on the child’s perianal area before putting the child to bed
❍ B. Scrape the skin with a piece of cardboard and bring it to the clinic
❍ C. Obtain a stool specimen in the afternoon
❍ D. Bring a hair sample to the clinic for evaluation

A

Answer A is correct. An infection with pinworms begins when the eggs are ingested or inhaled. The eggs hatch in the upper intestine and mature in 2–8 weeks. The females then mate and migrate out the anus, where they lay up to 17,000 eggs, causing intense itching. The mother should be told to use a flashlight to examine the rectal area about 2–3 hours after the child is asleep. Placing clear tape on a tongue blade will allow the eggs to adhere to the tape. The specimen should then be evaluated in a lab. There is no need to scrape the skin, collect a stool specimen, or bring a sample of hair; therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.

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19
Q

The nurse is teaching the mother regarding treatment for enterobiasis. Which instruction should be given regarding the medication?
❍ A. Treatment is not recommended for children less than 10 years of age.
❍ B. The entire family should be treated.
❍ C. Medication therapy will continue for 1 year.
❍ D. Intravenous antibiotic therapy will be ordered.

A

Answer B is correct. Erterobiasis, or pinworms, is treated with Vermox (mebendazole) or Antiminth (pyrantel pamoate). The entire family should be treated, to ensure that no eggs remain. Because a single treatment is usually sufficient, there is usually good compliance. The family should then be tested again in 2 weeks, to ensure that no eggs remain. Answers A, C, and D are inappropriate for this treatment and, therefore, incorrect.

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20
Q

The registered nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should not be assigned to the pregnant nurse?
❍ A. The client receiving linear accelerator radiation therapy for lung cancer
❍ B. The client with a radium implant for cervical cancer
❍ C. The client who has just been administered soluble brachytherapy for thyroid cancer
❍ D. The client who returned from an intravenous pyelogram

A

Answer B is correct. The pregnant nurse should not be assigned to any client with radioactivity present, and the client with a radium implant poses the most risk to the
pregnant nurse. The clients in answers A, C, and D are not radioactive; therefore, these answers are incorrect.

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21
Q

Which client is at risk for opportunistic diseases such as pneumocystis pneumonia?
❍ A. The client with cancer who is being treated with chemotherapy
❍ B. The client with Type I diabetes
❍ C. The client with thyroid disease
❍ D. The client with Addison’s disease

A

Answer A is correct. The client with cancer being treated with chemotherapy is immune suppressed and is at risk for opportunistic diseases such as pneumocystis. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because these clients are not at a higher risk for
opportunistic diseases than other clients.

22
Q
The nurse caring for a client in the neonatal intensive care unit administers adult- strength Digitalis to the 3-pound infant. As a result of her actions, the baby suffers permanent heart and brain damage. The nurse can be charged with:
❍ A. Negligence
❍ B. Tort
❍ C. Assault
❍ D. Malpractice
A

Answer D is correct. Injecting an infant with an adult dose of Digitalis is considered malpractice, or failing to perform or performing an act that causes harm to the client. In answer A, negligence is failing to perform care for the client and, thus, is incorrect. In answer B, a tort is a wrongful act committed on the client or his belongings but, in this case, was accidental. Assault, in answer C, is not pertinent to this incident.

23
Q

Which assignment should not be performed by the registered nurse?
❍ A. Inserting a Foley catheter
❍ B. Inserting a nasogastric tube
❍ C. Monitoring central venous pressure
❍ D. Inserting sutures and clips in surgery

A

Answer D is correct. The registered nurse cannot insert sutures or clips unless specially trained to do so, as in the case of a nurse practitioner skilled to perform this task. The registered nurse can insert a Foley catheter, insert a nasogastric tube, and monitor central venous pressure.

24
Q
The client returns to the unit from surgery with a blood pressure of 90/50, pulse 132, respirations 30. Which action by the nurse should receive priority?
❍ A. Document the finding.
❍ B. Contact the physician.
❍ C. Elevate the head of the bed.
❍ D. Administer a pain medication.
A

Answer B is correct. The vital signs are abnormal and should be reported to the doctor immediately. A, B, and D are incorrect actions.

25
Q

Which nurse should be assigned to care for the postpartal client with preeclampsia?
❍ A. The RN with 2 weeks of experience in postpartum
❍ B. The RN with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery
❍ C. The RN with 10 years of experience in surgery
❍ D. The RN with 1 year of experience in the neonatal intensive care unit

A

Answer B is correct. The nurse in answer B has the most experience in knowing possible complications involving preeclampsia. The nurse in answer A is a new nurse to the unit, and the nurses in answers C and D have no experience with the postpartum client.

26
Q
Which medication is used to treat iron toxicity?
❍ A. Narcan (naloxane)
❍ B. Digibind (digoxin immune Fab)
❍ C. Desferal (deferoxamine)
❍ D. Zinecard (dexrazoxane)
A

Answer C is correct. Desferal is used to treat iron toxicity. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they are antidotes for other drugs: Narcan is used to treat narcotic overdose; Digibind is used to treat dioxin toxicity; and Zinecard is used to treat dox-
orubicin toxicity.

27
Q
The nurse is suspected of charting medication administration that he did not give. The nurse can be charged with:
❍ A. Fraud
❍ B. Malpractice
❍ C. Negligence
❍ D. Tort
A

Answer A is correct. If the nurse charts information that he did not perform, she can be charged with fraud. Answer B is incorrect because malpractice is harm that results to the client due to an erroneous action taken by the nurse. Answer C is incorrect because negligence is failure to perform a duty that the nurse knows should be performed. Answer D is incorrect because a tort is a wrongful act to the client or his belongings.

28
Q

The home health nurse is planning for the day’s visits. Which client should be seen first?
❍ A. The client with renal insufficiency
❍ B. The client with Alzheimer’s
❍ C. The client with diabetes who has a decubitus ulcer
❍ D. The client with multiple sclerosis who is being treated with IV cortisone

A

Answer D is correct. The client who should receive priority is the client with multiple sclerosis and who is being treated with IV cortisone. This client is at highest risk for complications. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because these clients are more stable and can be seen later.

29
Q

The emergency room is flooded with clients injured in a tornado. Which clients can be assigned to share a room in the emergency department during the disaster?
❍ A. A schizophrenic client having visual and auditory hallucinations and the client with ulcerative colitis
❍ B. The client who is six months pregnant with abdominal pain and the client with facial lacerations and a broken arm
❍ C. A child whose pupils are fixed and dilated and his parents, and a client with a frontal head injury
❍ D. The client who arrives with a large puncture wound to the abdomen and the client with chest pain

A

Answer B is correct. Out of all of these clients, it is best to place the pregnant client and the client with a broken arm and facial lacerations in the same room. These two
clients probably do not need immediate attention and are least likely to disturb each other. The clients in answers A, C, and D need to be placed in separate rooms because their conditions are more serious, they might need immediate attention, and they are more likely to disturb other patients.

30
Q

The nurse is caring for a 6-year-old client admitted with the diagnosis of conjunctivitis. Before administering eyedrops, the nurse should recognize
that it is essential to consider which of the following?
❍ A. The eye should be cleansed with warm water, removing any exudate, before instilling the eye- drops.
❍ B. The child should be allowed to instill his own eyedrops.
❍ C. Allow the mother to instill the eyedrops.
❍ D. If the eye is clear from any redness or edema, the eyedrops should be held.

A

Answer A is correct. Before instilling eyedrops, the nurse should cleanse the area with warm water. A 6-year-old child is not developmentally ready to instill his own
eyedrops, so answer B is incorrect. The mother cannot be allowed to administer the eye drops in the hospital setting so answer C incorrect. Although the eye might appear to be clear, the nurse should instill the eyedrops, as ordered (answer D).

31
Q

To assist with the prevention of urinary tract infections, the teenage girl should be taught to:
❍ A. Drink citrus fruit juices
❍ B. Avoid using tampons
❍ C. Take showers instead of tub baths
❍ D. Clean the perineum from front to back

A

Answer D is correct. To prevent urinary tract infec-tions, the girl should clean the perineum from front to back to prevent e. coli contamination. Answer A is incorrect because drinking citrus juices will not prevent UTIs. Answers B and C are incorrect
because UTI’s are not associated with the use of tampons or with tub baths.

32
Q

A 2-year-old toddler is admitted to the hospital. Which of the following nursing interventions would you expect?
❍ A. Ask the parent/guardian to leave the room when assessments are being performed.
❍ B. Ask the parent/guardian to take the child’s favorite blanket home because anything from the outside should not be brought into the hospital.
❍ C. Ask the parent/guardian to room-in with the child.
❍ D. If the child is screaming, tell him this is inappropriate behavior.

A

Answer C is correct. The nurse should encourage rooming in, to promote parent-child attachment. It is okay for the parents to be in the room for assessment of thechild, so answer A is incorrect. Allowing the child to have items that are familiar to him is allowed and encouraged; thus, answer B is incorrect. Answer D is incorrect and shows a lack of empathy for the child’s distress; it is an inappropriate response from the nurse.

33
Q

Which instruction should be given to the client who is fitted for a behind-the-ear hearing aid?
❍ A. Remove the mold and clean every week.
❍ B. Store the hearing aid in a warm place.
❍ C. Clean the lint from the hearing aid with a toothpick.
❍ D. Change the batteries weekly.

A

Answer B is correct. The hearing aid should be stored in a warm, dry place and
should be cleaned daily. A toothpick is inappropriate to clean the aid because it might break off in the hearing aide. Changing the batteries weekly is not necessary; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

34
Q
A priority nursing diagnosis for a child being admitted from surgery following a tonsillectomy is:
❍ A. Body image disturbance
❍ B. Impaired verbal communication
❍ C. Risk for aspiration
❍ D. Pain
A

Answer C is correct. Always remember your ABC’s (airway, breathing, circulation) when selecting an answer. Although answers B and D might be appropriate for this child, answer C should have the highest priority. Answer A does not apply for a child
who has undergone a tonsillectomy.

35
Q
A client with bacterial pneumonia is admitted to the pediatric unit. What would the nurse expect the admitting assessment to reveal?
❍ A. High fever
❍ B. Nonproductive cough
❍ C. Rhinitis
❍ D. Vomiting and diarrhea
A

Answer A is correct. If the child has bacterial pneu-monia, a high fever is usually present. Bacterial pneumonia usually presents with a productive cough, so answer B is incorrect. Rhinitis, as stated in answer C, is often seen with viral pneumonia and is incorrect for this case. Vomiting and diarrhea are usually not seen with pneumonia; thus, answer D is incorrect.

36
Q

The nurse is caring for a client admitted with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB). Because of the possibility of complete obstruction of the airway, which of the following should the nurse have available?
❍ A. Intravenous access supplies
❍ B. Emergency intubation equipment
❍ C. Intravenous fluid-administration pump
❍ D. Supplemental oxygen

A

Answer B is correct. For a child with LTB and the possibility of complete obstruction of the airway, emergency intubation equipment should always be kept at the bedside. Intravenous supplies and fluid will not treat an obstruction, nor will supplemental oxygen; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

37
Q
A 5-year-old client with hyperthyroidism is admitted to the pediatric unit. What would the nurse expect the admitting assessment to reveal?
❍ A. Bradycardia
❍ B. Decreased appetite
❍ C. Exophthalmos
❍ D. Weight gain
A

Answer C is correct. Exophthalmos (protrusion of eyeballs) often occurs with hyperthyroidism. The client with hyperthyroidism will often exhibit tachycardia, increased appetite, and weight loss. Answers A, B, and D are not associated with hyperthyroidism.

38
Q
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to the mother of an 8-year-old child diagnosed with celiac disease. Which of the following foods, if selected by the mother, would indicate her understanding of the dietary instructions?
❍ A. Whole-wheat bread
❍ B. Spaghetti
❍ C. Hamburger on wheat bun with ketchup
❍ D. Cheese omelet
A

Answer D is correct. The child with celiac disease should be on a gluten-free diet. Answer D is the only choice of foods that do not contain gluten. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect.

39
Q

The nurse is caring for a 9-year-old child admitted with asthma. Upon the morning rounds, the nurse finds an O 2 sat of 78%. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
❍ A. Notify the physician
❍ B. Do nothing; this is a normal O 2 sat for a 9-year-old
❍ C. Apply oxygen
❍ D. Assess the child’s pulse

A

Answer C is correct. Remember the ABC’s (airway, breathing, circulation) when answering this question. Before notifying the physician or assessing the child’s pulse,
oxygen should be applied to increase the child’s oxygen saturation. The normal oxygen saturation for a child is 92%–100%. Answer A is important but not the priority,
answer B is inappropriate, and answer D is also not the priority.

40
Q

A gravida II para 0 is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. The doctor performs an amniotomy. Which observation would the nurse expect to make immediately after the amniotomy?
❍ A. Fetal heart tones 160 beats per minute
❍ B. A moderate amount of clear fluid
❍ C. A small amount of greenish fluid
❍ D. A small segment of the umbilical cord

A

Answer B is correct. Normal amniotic fluid is straw colored and odorless, so this is the observation the nurse should expect. An amniotomy is artificial rupture of membranes, causing a straw-colored fluid to appear in the vaginal area. Fetal heart tones of 160 indicate tachycardia, and this is not the observation to watch for. Greenish fluid is indicative of meconium, not amniotic fluid. If the nurse notes the umbilical cord, the client is experiencing a prolapsed cord. This would need to be reported immediately. For this question, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

41
Q

The client is admitted to the unit. A vaginal exam reveals that she is 3cm dilated. Which of the following statements would the nurse expect her to make?
❍ A. “I can’t decide what to name the baby.”
❍ B. “It feels good to push with each contraction.”
❍ C. “Don’t touch me. I’m trying to concentrate.”
❍ D. “When can I get my epidural?”

A

Answer D is correct. The client is usually given epidural anesthesia at approximately three centimeters dilation. Answer A is vague, answer B would indicate the end of the first stage of labor, and answer C indicates the transition phase, not the latent phase of labor.

42
Q

The client is having fetal heart rates of 100–110 beats per minute during the contractions. The first action the nurse should take is to:
❍ A. Apply an internal monitor
❍ B. Turn the client to her side
❍ C. Get the client up and walk her in the hall
❍ D. Move the client to the delivery room

A

Answer B is correct. The normal fetal heart rate is 120–160bpm. A heart rate of 100–110bpm is brady- cardia. The first action would be to turn the client to the left side and apply oxygen. Answer A is not indicated at this time. Answer C is not the best action for clients experiencing bradycardia. There is no data to indicate the need to move the client to the delivery room at this time, so answer D is incorrect as well.

43
Q
In evaluating the effectiveness of IV Pitocin for a client with secondary dystocia, the nurse should expect:
❍ A. A rapid delivery
❍ B. Cervical effacement
❍ C. Infrequent contractions
❍ D. Progressive cervical dilation
A

Answer D is correct. The expected effect of Pitocin is progressive cervical dilation. Pitocin causes more intense contractions, which can increase the pain; thus, answer A is incorrect. Answers B and C are incorrect because cervical effacement is caused by pressure on the presenting part and there are not infrequent contractions.

44
Q

A vaginal exam reveals a breech presentation in a newly admitted client. The nurse should take which of the following actions at this time?
❍ A. Prepare the client for a caesarean section
❍ B. Apply the fetal heart monitor
❍ C. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position
❍ D. Perform an ultrasound exam

A

Answer B is correct. Applying a fetal heart monitor is the appropriate action at this time. Preparing for a caesarean section is premature; placing the client in Trendelenburg is also not an indicated action, and an ultrasound is not needed based on the finding. Therefore, answer B is the best answer, and answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

45
Q

The nurse is caring for a client admitted to labor and delivery. The nurse is aware that the infant is in distress if she notes:
❍ A. Contractions every three minutes
❍ B. Absent variability
❍ C. Fetal heart tone accelerations with movement
❍ D. Fetal heart tone 120–130bpm

A

Answer B is correct. Absent variability is not normal and could indicate a neurological problem. Answers A, C, and D are normal findings.

46
Q

The following are all nursing diagnoses appropriate for a gravida 4 para 3 in labor. Which one would be most appropriate for the client as she completes the latent phase of labor?
❍ A. Impaired gas exchange related to hyper- ventilation
❍ B. Alteration in placental perfusion related to maternal position
❍ C. Impaired physical mobility related to fetal-monitoring equipment
❍ D. Potential fluid volume deficit related to decreased fluid intake

A

Answer D is correct. Clients admitted in labor are told not to eat during labor, to avoid nausea and vomiting. Ice chips might be allowed, although this amount of fluid
might not be sufficient to prevent fluid volume deficit. In answer A, impaired gas exchange related to hyper-ventilation would be indicated during the transition phase, not the early phase of labor. Answers B and C are not correct because clients during labor are allowed to change position as she desires.

47
Q

As the client reaches 8cm dilation, the nurse notes a pattern on the fetal monitor that shows a drop in the fetal heart rate of 30bpm beginning at the peak of the contraction and ending at the end of the contraction. The FHR baseline is 165–175bpm with variability of 0–2bpm. What is the most likely explanation of this pattern?
❍ A. The baby is asleep.
❍ B. The umbilical cord is compressed.
❍ C. There is a vagal response.
❍ D. There is uteroplacental insufficiency.

A

Answer D is correct. This information indicates a late deceleration. This type of deceleration is caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, or lack of oxygen. Answer A is incorrect because there is no data to support the conclusion that the baby is asleep; answer B results in a variable deceleration; and answer C is indicative of an early deceleration.

48
Q
The nurse notes variable decelerations on the fetal monitor strip. The most appropriate initial action would be to:
❍ A. Notify her doctor
❍ B. Increase the rate of IV fluid
❍ C. Reposition the client
❍ D. Readjust the monitor
A

Answer C is correct. The initial action by the nurse observing a variable deceleration should be to turn the client to the side, preferably the left side. Administering oxygen is also indicated. Answer A is not called for at this time. Answer B is incorrect because it is not needed, and answer D is incorrect because there is no data to indicate that the monitor has been applied incorrectly.

49
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of a reassuring fetal heart rate pattern?
❍ A. A fetal heart rate of 180bpm
❍ B. A baseline variability of 35bpm
❍ C. A fetal heart rate of 90 at the baseline
❍ D. Acceleration of FHR with fetal movements

A

Answer D is correct. Answers A, B, and C indicate ominous findings on the fetal heart monitor and so are incorrect in this instance. Accelerations with movement are normal, so answer D is the reassuring pattern.

50
Q

The nurse asks the client with an epidural anesthesia to void every hour during labor. The rationale for this intervention is:
❍ A. The bladder fills more rapidly because of the medication used for the epidural.
❍ B. Her level of consciousness is altered.
❍ C. The sensation of the bladder filling is diminished or lost.
❍ D. She is embarrassed to ask for the bedpan that frequently.

A

Answer C is correct. Epidural anesthesia decreases the urge to void and sensation of a full bladder. A full bladder decreases the progression of labor. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because the bladder does not fill more rapidly due to the epidural, the client is not in a trancelike state, and the client’s level of consciousness is not altered, and there is no evidence that the client is too embarrassed to ask for a bedpan.