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Board Prep- Orthotics -Written and Written SIm > Practice Test #2 > Flashcards

Practice Test #2 Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum Dorsiflexion occurs at which phase of gait?

A

Terminal Stance

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2
Q

A singe gait cycle is defined as the activity that occurs from:

A

Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side

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3
Q

During which phase of gait are the hip extensors most active?

A

Loading Response

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4
Q

Which muscle most closely duplicates the function of the Tib Ant?

A

Extensor Hallicus Longus

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5
Q

Which of the following is often the result of an irregular birth?

A

Erb’s Palsy

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6
Q

Which of the following is an inflammation of the outer covering of the brain and spinal cord?

A

Meningitis

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7
Q

A patient presents to your office with bossing of the right posterior cranium and flattening of the left posterior cranium. How would you classify this?

A

Left Post Brachycephalic

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8
Q

What is the primary target organ in rheumatiod arthritis?

A

Cartilage

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9
Q

What is the lubricant filled sac which, if removed, results in increased friction?

A

Bursa

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10
Q

What is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars on a Taylor TLSO?

A

Spine of the scapula

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11
Q

Which pathology is most likely to be fit with free knee joints?

A

Genu Varum Deformity

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12
Q

Which type of scoliosis is most likely the result of a leg length discrepancy?

A

Nonstructural Scoliosis

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13
Q

Which would you most expect to see in a patient with a pf contracture?

A

Genu Recurvatun at midstance

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14
Q

True Df and PF occur in which plane?

A

Sagittal

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15
Q

What orthosis would best restore upper extremty function for a patient with a spinal cord injury above the C6 nerve root?

A

Wrist driven WHO

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16
Q

What is most appropriate for a median nerve injury at the wrist?

A

WHO with thumb post

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17
Q

The primary function of the brachioradialis is :

A

Elbow Flexion

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18
Q

In addition to the deltoid, the axillary nerve innervates the :

A

Teres minor

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19
Q

The axis of location of the hip is located?

A

Anterior and Superior

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20
Q

Aponeurisus is:

A

A flat broad tendon

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21
Q

Spondylolisthesis is a condition best described as:

A

Anterior displacement of the L5 vertebrae in relation to the sacrum

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22
Q

A hand orthosis controls:

A

Palmar arch and thumb position

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23
Q

Flaccid payalysis is most often seen in:

A

Lower motor neuron injuries

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24
Q

A patient present with excessive tibial torsion. How should this be incorporated into a conventional double upright AFO?

A

Deflect the side bars

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25
Q

You deliver a device in the hospital to a patient who is not able to communicate. You should:

A

Provide the nurse instructions and leave written instructions

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26
Q

Which muscle inserts on the navicular and medial cuneiform?

A

Posterior Tibialis

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27
Q

The space between an axon and a dendrite is called the :

A

Synapse

28
Q

The gelatinous center of a spinal disc is the :

A

Nucleus Pulposus

29
Q

Which muscle serves to abduct the phalanges away from the 3rd digit?

A

Dorsal Interossei

30
Q

Poliomyelitis is what type of pathology?

A

Lower Motor Neuron

31
Q

A patient with a complete C6 SCI powers a wrist-driven flexor hinge tenodesis orthosis by using the

A

Extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi ulnaris

32
Q

Which ligament prevents hyperextension of the hip joint?

A

Illiofemoral Ligament

33
Q

The position of the thoracic facets most easily allows for which movements?

A

Rotation and lateral flexion

34
Q

Which is not part of the scapula?

A

Coronoid process

35
Q

A yound child with a T12 myelimeningocele is seen in your office for a device that will help patient ambulate in the home and classroom and will allow hands free standing. What device do you evaluate him for?

A

Parapodium

36
Q

Hydocephalus often accompanies which of the following?

A

Spina Bifida

37
Q

The lumbricals function to :

A

Flex MCP joints and extend the PIP joints

38
Q

The muscle length tension relationship describes:

A

THe concept that strength of a muscle changes depending on the affected joints position through its arc of motion

39
Q

What actions are carried out by the sartorius?

A

Hip flexion and external rotation; knee flexion

40
Q

Which scenario is best to test the differential between a grade 3 and a grade 4 psoas major strength?

A

Patient lies supine with knee extended; examiner resists hip flexion

41
Q

Which of the following statements about the gluteus maximus is incorrect?

A

It functions as an internal rotator of the hip

42
Q

A positivr Trendelenburg sign is assigned when:

A

The affected side of the pelvis drops upon weight bearing on the sound side

43
Q

Which of the following is purely a sensory nerve?

A

Saphenous

44
Q

Maximum PF occurs at what phase of gait?

A

Pre Swing

45
Q

Swan neck deformity refers to which position?

A

Flexion of the DIP joint, hyperextension of the PIP joint

46
Q

To promote healing in a case of Legg Calve Perthes disease, the hip should be positioned in:

A

Abduction and internal rotation

47
Q

An orthotsis for a patient post ACL reconstruction should primarily control:

A

Anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur

48
Q

A patient comes into your office for an orthosis to prevent GH subluxation. What positions should the shoulder be placed in?

A

Abduction and internal rotation

49
Q

What muscle is not affected by a proximal lesion of the musculocutaneous nerve

A

Brachioradialis

50
Q

Which of the following is not a part of the humerus?

A

Pactineal line

51
Q

Which column of the spine do you expect to see damaged in a burst FX?

A

Middle and Anterior

52
Q

At what vertebral does the caudi equine begin?

A

L2

53
Q

Damage to what structre leads to sensation deficits?

A

Dorsal branch of the nerve root

54
Q

When the limb moves from midstance to terminal stance what muscle group contracts and in what manner?

A

PF, eccentric

55
Q

Torque is calculated by:

A

Multiplying lever arm length by force applied

56
Q

Pressure is determined by which of the following?

A

Force divided by area

57
Q

A patient with Charcot foot is most likely to present with:

A

A collapsed and inflamed arch

58
Q

The muscles that pass posterior to the lateral malleolus act to:

A

PF and evert the foot

59
Q

Which muscle inserts on the lesser trochanter?

A

Iliopsoas

60
Q

What are the two origins of the biceps brachii?

A

Supraglenoid tubercle and coracoid process

61
Q

Oppositiion of the thumb occurs at which joint?

A

Carpometcarpal joint

62
Q

What is the normal ROM for pronation and supination?

A

Pro 80, Sup 80

63
Q

The ML of an anatomical ankle joint is 8.3 cm. What should the inside measurement for your mechanical ankle joint be?

A

9.2cm

64
Q

Which nerve divides into the common peroneal nerve and the tibial nerve?

A

Sciatic Nerve

65
Q

A patient with quadriplegia resulting form a lesion at C7 neruosegmental level is most likely to benefit form which of the following?

A

Static HO

66
Q

Which is a benefit of a SOMI?

A

It can be fit with the patient in a supine position

67
Q

What motion of the calf band will occur if the mechanical ankle joint of an AFO is located too proximal in relation to the anatomical?

A

Calf band igrates distally with PF and distally with DF

Board Prep- Orthotics -Written and Written SIm (3 decks)

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